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APES Review Pt 1 (Unit 1,2,3)

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 5hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

a)

is increasing in part due to fossil fuel use.

b)

has not significantly changed in the past 200 years.

c)

is increasing in part due to deforestation.

d)

has been decreasing since the 1800’s.

e)

can not be reliably measured

2.

Which is NOT a non-renewable resources?

a)

aluminum

b)

oil

c)

timber

d)

copper

e)

coal

3.

The environment refers to

a)

all conditions surrounding us on Earth.

b)

species interactions that affect human life.

c)

conditions that cause negative effects on our health.

d)

interactions that harm the atmosphere.

e)

the sum of all the conditions surrounding us that influence life.

4.

Which is an example of a sustainable practice?

I. Replanting a logged forest

II. Developing substitutes for nonrenewable resources

III. Banning the use of all fossil fuels without a planned transition to an alternative

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

5.

An ecological footprint considers

a)

per capita resource use of a nation.

b)

how much an individual consumes in terms of land area.

c)

average yearly consumption of resources.

d)

resources that an entire nation consumes in and average year.

e)

the ratio of resources consumed in developed nations to less developed nations.

6.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


The treatments planted with only wheat are the

a)

sample size.

b)

control.

c)

environmental variable.

d)

null hypothesis.

e)

replication.

7.

The study of environmental science differs from study of other natural sciences because it

a)

doesn’t use experiments.

b)

does not require any mathematical calculations.

c)

also includes politics, law, and economics.

d)

does not require an understanding of biology.

e)

uses the scientific process.

8.

The goal of using resources to meet the needs of both current and future generations is referred

to as

a)

NAFTA.

b)

preservation

c)

remediation

d)

sustainability

e)

environmental science

9.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


Which statement provides a hypothesis for this experiment?

a)

Wheat grows taller when planted by itself than when it is alternated with clover.

b)

Clover grows better when planted by itself.

c)

Wheat grows better when planted together with clover.

d)

Clover grows better when planted together with wheat.

e)

Both A and C are legitimate hypotheses for this experiment.

10.

How do you calculate % Change?

a)

(y2-y1)/y2 * 100%

b)

(y1-y2)/y1 * 100%

c)

(y2-y1)/y1 * 100%

d)

(y1-y2)/y2 * 100%

11.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

12.

Which of the following is a qualitative observation?

a)

15 inches

b)

a liquid

c)

a green solution

d)

6 feet 1 inches

13.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

14.

A tapeworm lives in the small intestines where it feeds and grows, robbing the human of essential nutrients. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

15.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

16.

A positive feedback loop occurs

a)

when a system responds to a change by returning to its original state

b)

when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

when a system is in a steady state

d)

when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

17.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

18.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 10oC and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Temperate seasonal forest

b)

Temperate rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Tropical seasonal forest

19.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 4oC and 50 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate grassland/cold desert

d)

Woodland/shrubland

20.

Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?

a)

temperate seasonal forest

b)

woodland/shrubland

c)

tundra

d)

boreal forest

21.

Terrestrial biomes are defined by ____ and ____ variables.

a)

temperature; precipitation

b)

temperature; animals

c)

precipitation; plants

d)

animals; plants

22.

A keystone species is best defined as

a)

an organism that eats all others

b)

an organism that runs the fastest

c)

an organism that keeps the food web stable

d)

an organism that has the most advantages

23.

All of the following is true about a niche generalist EXCEPT

a)

thrives in multiple environments

b)

feeds on specific food only

c)

lives in various habitats

d)

feeds on various food

24.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles does not have an atmospheric phase?

a)

Hydrolic Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Sulfur Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

e)

Phosphorous Cycle

25.

Energy enters a system as sunlight and a producer is able to produce 10 kilograms of tissue. If eaten, the producer would produce about ___ kilograms of a consumer tissue that would provide about ____ kilograms of tissue for a secondary consumer

a)

100; 10

b)

10; 1

c)

100; 1

d)

1; 0.1

26.

Producers rely on _____ to release chemical energy and consumers rely on ____ to release chemical energy.

a)

Cellular Respiration; photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration; cellular respiration

c)

photosynthesis; cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis; photosynthesis

27.

In the Nitrogen cycle, what is one Natural way that Nitrogen gets into our soil?

a)

Fertilizers

b)

Human Waste through septic tanks

c)

Decomposing animals

d)

Industrial waste

28.

Intraspecific Competition is between the same species. true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

29.

In a food pyramid, which organism can be found on the bottom?

a)

Primary Consumers

b)

producers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Herbivores

30.

Fragmenting one large park or preserve into many small parks with human habitation in between them is most likely to lead to which of the following?

a)

Reduction in species diversity

b)

Stabilization of microclimates

c)

Decrease in the proportion of edge habitat

d)

Increase in population size of carnivores

31.

The factor that likely poses the greatest threat of extinction of species worldwide is

a)

black market trade in endangered species

b)

aggressive collecting of specimens by museums and zoos

c)

increasing loss of habitat

d)

weakening of environmental legislation

32.

Which of the following best shows the process of evolution?

a)

A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide

b)

A bear goes into hibernation

c)

A lizard’s color becomes brown as it sits on a log

d)

A population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available

33.

The net annual primary productivity of a particular wetland ecosystem is found to be 10,000 kcal/m2 per year. If respiration by the aquatic producers is 21,000 kcal/m2 per year, what is the gross annual primary productivity for this ecosystem, in kcal/m2 per year?

a)

11,000

b)

21,000

c)

31,000

d)

41,000

34.

If mean global temperature keeps on increasing as predicted by contemporary scientists, which of the following is most likely?

a)

There will be fewer insect pests and disease-carrying organisms

b)

Specialist species living in fragile ecosystems will risk extinction

c)

There will be an increase in the reproductive rate of mammals

d)

The geographical range of many plants will move toward the equator

35.

Eutrophication in lakes is frequently the direct result of

a)

nutrient enrichment

b)

industrial poisons

c)

a diminished supply of nitrates

d)

an increase in predators

36.

Gradual transition over time from one type of biological community to another.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Law of tolerance

c)

Ecological succession

d)

Energy pyramid

37.

Which of the following statements about ecological succession is correct?

a)

Secondary succession is followed by primary succession.

b)

Primary succession occurs over a shorter time span than secondary succession.

c)

Succession is influenced by competition for limiting resources such as available soil, moisture, and nutrients.

d)

In forest succession, less shade-tolerant trees replace more shade-tolerant trees.

38.

Roughly what percentage of incoming solar energy is converted into chemical energy by producers?

a)

99%

b)

50%

c)

1%

d)

Between 5 and 20%

39.

Which of the following is the approximate efficiency of the energy transfer as energy flows through the food chain?

a)

1 percent

b)

90 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

10 percent

40.

Which of these is an aquatic indicator species?

a)

Shrimp

b)

Coral

c)

Plankton

d)

Sea Anemone

41.

Why are sea otters so crucial to an ecosystem?

a)

They aren't.

b)

They build dams and help rivers flow

c)

They provide us with nutrients

d)

They feed on sea urchins which are harmful to kelp forests

42.

Pioneer species like moss and lichen are most likely to show up after

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

43.

Organisms that make physical changes and help create habitats are known as

a)

Invasive species

b)

Keystone species

c)

Foundation species

d)

Endangered species

44.

A role played by an organism in an ecosystem is known at its

a)

Niche

b)

Job

c)

Role

d)

Duty

45.

An optimum range is

a)

A threat to an organism

b)

An organism's niche

c)

An organism's comfort zone

d)

An organism's species richness

46.

Jay has 3 green marbles, 4 red skittles, and 5 twix. What is the species richness?

a)

3

b)

12

c)

1.5

d)

0.50

47.

Jay has 3 green marbles, 4 red skittles, and 5 twix. What is the species diversity index

a)

0.28

b)

0.71

c)

-0.28

d)

0.63

48.

Which of the following variables increase population size?

a)

Deaths

b)

Emigration

c)

Immigration

49.

Small populations that lead to a greater likelihood of harmful alleles spreading in a population is a result of

a)

metapopulation

b)

genetic inbreeding

c)

k-selected communities

50.

This type of species puts energy into reproduction not survival.

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

s-selected

d)

j-selected

51.

This type of species has many offspring with little to no parental care.

a)

k-selected

b)

r-selected

c)

s-selected

d)

j-selected

52.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an r-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

53.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an k-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

54.

Bacteria, algae, and dandelions are an example of

a)

r-selected species

b)

k-selected species

c)

s-selected species

55.

humans, polar bears, and elephants are an example of

a)

r-selected species

b)

k-selected species

c)

j-selected species

56.

Which type of survivorship curve represents animals that have constant mortality?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

57.

Which type of survivorship curve represents organisms that produce many offspring that mainly die early in life

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

58.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of rapidly growing populations?

a)

Short generation time

b)

Long length of reproductive life

c)

Low fecundity

d)

Reproduce early in life

59.

The definition of fecundity is...

a)

number of offspring

b)

amount of generation time

c)

the carrying capacity

d)

exponential growth

60.

A J-curve represents

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

no growth

61.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with a country that demonstrates the age structure diagram show above?

a)

There is a low infant mortality rate

b)

A high percentage of the population has access to medical care

c)

There is a low population growth

d)

There is a high total fertility rate

62.

What type of age structure diagram represents a population with negative growth rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
63.

Represents the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a particular ecosystem on a long-term basis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

64.

Which of the following is a true statement about the total fertility of a society?

a)

The total fertility of a society is the difference between the crude birth rate and the crude death rate.

b)

The total fertility of a society is the number of children necessary for a couple to replace themselves in the next generation.

c)

The total fertility of a society is positively correlated with the average education of women.

d)

The total fertility of a society is negatively correlated with the number of women of child-bearing age.

e)

The total fertility of a society decreases as the society progresses through the demographic transition.

65.

Which of the following is most typically associated with the transition from a rural to an urbanized society?

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Reduced need for sewage-treatment facilities

c)

Increased rates of population growth

d)

Increased air quality in urban areas

e)

Increased stabilization of microclimate in urban areas

66.

The current global human population is about 6.1 billion and is growing at an annual rate of 1.35 percent. If world population were to grow at this rate for the next year, approximately how many people would be added?

a)

8 × 105

b)

8 × 106

c)

8 × 107

d)

8 × 108

e)

8 × 109

67.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1,000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1,000, the natural annual percent increase of its population is

a)

0.6%

b)

1.6%

c)

3%

d)

16%

e)

32%

68.

Which of the following characteristics in the table best supports the claim that:

Country A is a more developed country and that Country

B is a less developed country?

a)

population size

b)

land area

c)

infant mortality rate

d)

net migration rate

69.

The crude growth rate, r , of a population is calculated by

a)

multiplying the existing population size by life expectancy

b)

dividing the crude birth rate by 2

c)

dividing the doubling time by 70

d)

adding the crude birth rate to the crude death rate

e)

subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate

70.

In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

71.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

35 years

72.

What is a generalist species?

a)

Species with a broad range of tolerance

b)

Species with a narrow range of tolerance

73.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

larger-bodied

b)

put energy into reproduction not survival

c)

good competitors

d)

are very protective of their offspring

74.

Which country would you expect to be in stage 1 of the demographic transition

a)

Country 1

b)

Country 2

c)

Country 3

d)

Country 4

75.

Which of the following can be interpreted from an age-structure diagram of a country?

a)

The maximum age when women give birth

b)

The total fertility rate of the population

c)

The relative population growth rate of the population

d)

The carrying capacity of the local environment