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4th QUARTER EXAM(BIOLOGY 2)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following represents the longest time period

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

2.

The chemical factors that determine traits are called __________.

a)

 alleles       

b)

  traits     

c)

     genes         

d)

characters

3.

The term phenotype refers to the ___________ of an individual.

a)

 breeding pattern       

b)

number of chromosomes         

c)

 genetic constitution         

d)

appearance of a characteristic or trait

4.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a)

 hybrid.   

b)

 homozygous.         

c)

 heterozygous.         

d)

dominant.

5.

 A cross of a red cow (RR) with a white bull (WW) produces all roan offspring (RW).  This type of inheritance is known as

a)

incomplete dominance.         

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

         codominance.         

d)

multiple alleles.

6.

Pink four o'clock flowers are obtained from a cross between pure breed red  flower plant and pure white flower plant.  What is the genotype of the pink flower?

a)

RR       

b)

  RW     

c)

    WW   

d)

      Rr

7.

A pink flower is crossed with another pink flower.  The genotype of pink flower is RW.  How many percent of offspring is pure white?

a)

 0%       

b)

  25%   

c)

      50%   

d)

      100%

8.

A pure red cow has a genotype of RR and roan cow has a genotype of RW.  A roan cow and red cow are mated.  What is the phenotype ratio of offspring?

a)

 1 red:  2 roan:  1 white       

b)

  1red:  1 roan         

c)

1 red: 2 roan         

d)

 2 red: 1 roan

9.

Human blood types are produced by alleles A, B, O.  Having more than 2 alleles control a trait is called

a)

 incomplete dominance     

b)

 codominance       

c)

   polygenic traits         

d)

multiple alleles

10.

 In determining the phenotype for the ABO blood system:

a)

 O is dominant over A   

b)

      B is dominant over A     

c)

    O is recessive       

d)

  all of the above

11.

Traits that are expressed in both sexes but more frequently in one than in the other sex is called

a)

 Sex-linked traits.       

b)

  Sex-limited traits. 

c)

        Sex-influenced traits.         

d)

 Multiple alleles

12.

 Which of the following is an example of sex-linked traits?

a)

color-blindness         

b)

lactation in cattle         

c)

baldness 

d)

 all of the above

13.

 If one of your parents is blood type A  and the other is type B, which of the following blood types would you likely be?

a)

A       

b)

  B   

c)

       O or AB         

d)

 any of the blood type above

14.

 Carriers of color-blindness trait include

a)

men who are  heterozygous for the trait.       

b)

   men who are homozygous for the trait, 

c)

       women who are heterozygous for the trait.         

d)

 women who are homozygous for the trait.

15.

What is the largest division of time in the geological timescale?

a)

Eon

b)

Era

c)

Epoch

d)

Period

16.

In which eon were dinosaurs present?

a)

Phanerazoic

b)

Proterozoic

c)

Archean

d)

Hadean

17.

What is the next smallest division of time after eras in the geological timescale?

a)

Eon

b)

Epoch

c)

Age

d)

Period

18.

How many years ago did the Archean Eon end?

a)

250 MYA

b)

4000 MYA

c)

2500 MYA

d)

1000 MYA

19.
In DNA, Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
20.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
21.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
22.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
23.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

24.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

25.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

26.

What is genetic recombination?

a)

The combination of genes produced by crossing over and independent assortment.

b)

When genes located close to each other on the same chromosome tend to travel together during meiosis.

c)

A map that shows the sequence of genes on a chromosome.

d)

The occurrence of one or more extra sets of chromosomes.

27.

Why is genetic recombination a good thing?

a)

Gives us new genes

b)

is lethal in humans

c)

increases genetic variation

d)

separates during crossing over

28.

Human skin colour and Human height are examples of-

a)

Pleiotropy

b)

Polygenic inheritance

c)

Codominance

d)

Multiple allelism

29.

The three possible methods of genetic recombination are...

a)

Transformation, translation, conjugation

b)

Conjugation, transformation, transduction

c)

Transduction, transformation, translation

d)

Reflection, translation, conjugation

30.

Which period came in the middle of Triassic and Carboniferous?

a)

permian

b)

carboniferuos

c)

cambrain

d)

Precambrain

31.

The period of geologic time when the biodiversity of life on the planet increased dramatically was

a)

Jurassic

b)

Triassic

c)

Permian

d)

Cambrian

32.

The epoch we are currently living in is the

a)

Holocene

b)

Quaternary

c)

Cambrian

d)

Pleistocene

33.

The worst mass extinction event in the history of the Earth wiping out 96% of all life was the

a)

Permian-Triassic

b)

Holocene

c)

Triassic-Jurassic

d)

Ordovician-Silurian

34.

During which periods did the first land plants, vertebrates, and insects appear?

a)

Jurassic-triassic

b)

Ordovician-silurian

c)

Hadean-acheon

d)

Tertiary-quaternary

35.

What are the names of ALL parts of the geologic time scale in correct order from broadest to narrowest?

a)

era, period, eon

b)

eon, era, period, epoch

c)

era, eon, epoch, period

d)

eon, era, epoch, period

36.

A characteristic that makes an organism well suited to its environment is called a(n)?

a)

natural selection

b)

trait

c)

adaptation

d)

variation

37.

Which feature of the finches helped support Darwin's theory of Natural Selection?

a)

Finches had different beak shapes to suit their food source

b)

Finches had unusual reproductive behavior

c)

Finches changed features during their lifetime

d)

Finches were able to survive from predator attacks

38.
Nature has a way of causing organisms that inherit advantageous traits to survive and reproduce more successfully than the ones that don't. This process is known as...
a)
natural selection
b)
genetic variation
c)
adaptation
d)
overproduction
39.
_________ is the fact that organisms change over time and are related through common ancestors. 
a)
Theory of Natural Selection
b)
Theory of Need
c)
Theory of Use and Disuse
d)
Theory of Evolution
40.
_______ believed that organisms develop traits needed for survival and that traits that were unused would become weaker and gradually disappear. 
a)
Darwin
b)
Lamarck
c)
Mendel
d)
Watson
41.
____________ believed that those organisms that were best suited for their environment would survive and pass on their beneficial traits to their offspring. 
a)
Darwin
b)
Lamarck
c)
Watson
d)
Mendel
42.
Looking at the similarities in development between different organisms would be an example of which piece of evidence?
a)
Palentology
b)
Embryology
c)
Cytology
d)
Structure Analysis
43.
What is survival of the fittest?
a)
It is where the fittest die out and therefore reproduce and pass on their genes
b)
It is where the fittest die out and therefore can't reproduce and pass on their genes
c)
It is where the fittest don't die out and therefore can't reproduce and pass on their genes
d)
It is where the fittest don't die out and therefore reproduce and pass on their genes
44.
A tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a short pea plant (tt). What percentage of the offspring will be tall?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
45.
In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is dominant over the allele for long hair.
B = short 
b = long
A purebred short haired guinea pig is crossed with a long haired guinea pig. What percentage of their offspring will have short hair?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
46.
What percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
47.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
48.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
49.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
50.
When we say that a woman is a carrier for a genetic disease or disorder it means that
a)
she has 1 gene, but not the disorder
b)
she has 2 genes for the disorder
c)
she can pass the gene only to male children
d)
she can pass the gene only to female children
51.

What allele combination could represent a person who suffered from a recessive disease trait?

a)

XBXB

b)

XY

c)

XbY

d)

XBXb

52.

Arrange the following events based on chronological order:

I. Cyanobacteria appeared.

II. Protozoans, sponges, and fungi came to being.

III. Anaerobic cells appeared as the first prokaryotic cells.

IV. Multicellular organisms have evolved from unicellular eukaryotes.

a)

I-II-III-IV

b)

I-III-II-IV

c)

II-I-IV-II

d)

III-II-IV-I

53.

Which of the following molecules is not abundant during the early formation of our planet?

a)

Methane

b)

Hydrogen gas

c)

Oxygen gas

d)

Ammonia

54.

Why do you think the emergence of plants and animals came later than simple living organisms?

a)

They are too big and take time to form.

b)

Their cell structures are more complex.

c)

They are the least important factor in the environment.

d)

They contain more nuclei compared to lower forms of organisms

55.
Which era is known as the "age of reptiles"
a)
Paleozoic Era
b)
Cenozoic Era
c)
Mesozoic Era
d)
Precambrian Era
56.
The Era when humans first appeared was...
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Paleozoic
d)
Precambrian
57.
Which era is known as the "age of mammals"
a)
Cenozoic Era
b)
Precambrian Era
c)
Paleozoic Era
d)
Mesozoic Era
58.
Pangaea broke up during the 
a)
Paleozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Cenozoic
d)
Precambrian
59.
During which era did the ice ages occur?
a)
Precambrian 
b)
Paleozoic
c)
Mesozoic
d)
Cenozoic
60.
The Mesozoic era occurred during which timeframe?
a)
66 mya - present
b)
4.6 bya - 540 mya
c)
245 mya - 66 mya
d)
540 mya - 245 mya
61.
Name the 4 time frames in order from oldest to youngest.
a)
Precambrian Time, Paleozoic Era, Mesozoic Era, Cenozoic Era
b)
Mesozoic Era, Precambrian time, Cenozoic Era, Paleozoic Era
c)
Paleozoic Era, Mesozoic Era, Precambrian Time, Cenozoic
62.
Which era is known as the "age of invertebrates"
a)
Precambrian
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Cenosozic
d)
Paleozoic
63.
In which era did the oceans and atmosphere form?
a)
Paleozoic
b)
Cenozoic
c)
Precambrian
d)
Mesozoic
64.

In the Picture - Where are the oldest fossils of the organisms that lived longest ago found?

a)

At the bottom

b)

At the top

c)

In the middle

65.

According to most scientists, what is the ultimate cause of most mass extinctions?

a)

overhunting

b)

evolution of new species to replace old ones

c)

major change in environment due to extreme natural events

d)

asteroid impact

66.

Which extinction is considered the largest mass extinction in Earth's history? Basically 96% of all species on Earth disappeared.

a)

Ordovician Extinction

b)

Devonian Extinction

c)

Permian Extinction

d)

Triassic Extinction

e)

Cretaceous Extinction

67.

The dinosaurs went extinct in the __________ Mass extinction

a)

Cretaceous-Tertiary (KT)

b)

Triassic Jurassic

c)

Ordovician-Silurian

d)

None of the options

68.
When was the Paleogene Period?
a)
65.5 mya - 23.0 mya
b)
10 mya - 12 mya
c)
90 mya - 110 mya
d)
20 mya - 27 mya
69.

In what Eon did life begin?

a)

Hadean

b)

Archean

c)

Protorezoic

d)

Phanerozoic

70.

The Neogene and the Paleogene together make up the period called the:

a)

Quarternary

b)

Cretaceous

c)

Tertiary

d)

Cenozoic

71.

When did the supercontinent Pangaea form?

a)

Permian Period

b)

Devonian Period

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Tertiary Period

72.

During which period did human ancestors evolve?

a)

Cretaceous

b)

Tertiary

c)

Quarternary

d)

Jurassic

73.

Which of the following is the primary reason for using the geologic time scale?

a)

To measure how long North America has existed

b)

To recognize major events that have occurred on Earth

c)

To explain how Earth was formed 4.6 billion years ago

d)

An explanation of how the dinosaurs disappeared

74.

What most likely caused the death of the dinosaurs?

a)

Vocanism

b)

An ice age

c)

An asteroid impact

d)

Humans

75.
T1. Lamarck’s ideas about evolution include the concept that differences among the traits of organisms arise as a result of
a)
continual increases in population size.
b)
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c)
an unchanging local environment.
d)
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
76.

Biogeography _________

a)

has taught us of the migration patterns of certain species

b)

is the science of studying maps

c)

was developed by Darwin during the voyage on the Beagle

d)

proves that all camels came from Egypt and North Africa

77.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
78.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
79.

A strand of DNA with the sequence A A C T T G will have a complimentary strand with the following sequence:

a)

CCAGGT

b)

AACTTG

c)

TTCAAG

d)

TTGAAC

80.

Mendel discovered principles of inheritance because he:

a)

Observed simultaneously all of the many characteristics in which the parents differed.

b)

Believed that the hereditary characteristics of two individuals became thoroughly blended in the offspring.

c)

Ignored all characteristics except a few markedly contrasting ones in which he studied.

d)

Studied only the offspring obtained from a single mating.

81.

Which statement is true about X-linked genes?

a)

The male needs two copies of the gene but will express the trait regardless of whether the alleles are dominant or recessive.

b)

The male needs two copies of the gene but will express the trait only if both alleles are dominant.

c)

The male needs only one copy of the gene and will express the trait regardless of whether the allele is dominant or recessive.

d)

The male needs only one copy of the gene but will express the trait only if the allele is dominant.

82.

Given the mRNA sequence - 3' AUG CAU GGU.5'. What is the original DNA template strand?

a)

5' TAC GTA CCA 3'

b)

5' UAC GUA CGA 3'

c)

3' UAC GUA CGA 5''

d)

3' TAC GTA CGA 5'

83.

Given the DNA strand: 3' TAC-TGT-GGT-TAA 5'. What is the amino acid sequence?

a)

Met-Thr-Pro-Ile

b)

Met-Pro-Thr-Ile

c)

Ile-Pro-Thr-Met

d)

Ile-Thr-Pro-Met

84.
Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
a)
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b)
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c)
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d)
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
85.

What is the start codon?

a)

UAC

b)

TAC

c)

AUG

d)

GUA

86.

DNA ligase is:

a)

. an enzyme that joins fragments in normal DNA replication

b)

an enzyme involved in protein synthesis

c)

. an enzyme of bacterial origin which cuts DNA at defined base sequences

d)

an enzyme which limits the level to which a particular nutrient reaches

87.

The Carboniferous contains which of the following periods? Select all that apply.

a)

Cambrian

b)

Jurassic

c)

Mississippian

d)

Pennsylvanian

e)

Devonian

88.

What is the name of some of the very first Algae on our planet?

a)

Blue Algae

b)

Green Algae

c)

Cyanobacteria

d)

Protozoa

89.

How long ago did these Cyanobacteria first show up?

a)

1 million years ago

b)

4 million years ago

c)

3.5 billion years ago

d)

last week

90.

What was missing from the Earth's atmosphere 3.5 billion years ago?

a)

N2

b)

CO2

c)

O2

d)

CH4

91.

What were the oceans populated by 3.5 billion years ago?

a)

anaerobic microbes

b)

fishes

c)

aerobic microbes

d)

plants

92.

What was the new ability that evolved between 3.5 and 2.5 mya?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

vision

c)

hearing

d)

movement

93.
As ____ evolved, they changed Earth’s atmosphere by producing oxygen.
a)
cyanobacteria
b)
reptiles
c)
trilobites
d)
dinosaurs
94.
During which geologic era did trilobites, mosses and ferns first appear in the fossil record?
a)
Paleozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Cenozoic
d)
Precambrian
95.
The Cenozoic Era is often called "the Age of the ____"
a)
Dinosaurs
b)
Mammals
c)
Amphibians
d)
Reptiles
96.
Algae blooms and other plant life caused the levels of CO2 in the atmosphere to increase so much that life in the oceans decreased by 90%. This mass extinction ended the _____ era. 
a)
Mesozoic
b)
Paleozoic
c)
Cenozoic
d)
Precambrian
97.
"age of marine life"
a)
Precambrian Era
b)
Mesozoic Era
c)
Cenozoic Era
d)
Paleozoic Life
98.

The signal that marks the end of a gene and causes transcription to stop is

a)

polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

a terminator

d)

methionine

99.

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linkage together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?

a)

polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

ribozyme

d)

reverse transcriptase

100.

Which of the following occurs when RNA polymerase attaches a promoter DNA?

a)

elongation of mRNA

b)

termination of mRNA

c)

initiation of a protein

d)

initiation of mRNA

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