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WorksheetsBiology Spring Exam Review 2023
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Mendel considered those traits that were hidden in the first generation to be:
a)
heterozygous
b)
recessive
c)
incompletely dominant
d)
incapable of breeding true
e)
incapable of being inherited.
2.
If a parent has the genotype AaBb, how many different allele combinations could this parent pass to its offspring?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
16
3.
If pure-breeding tall peas are crossed with dwarf peas, the resulting offspring will always be tall. This illustrates Mendel's law of:
a)
segregation
b)
unit characters
c)
dominance and recessiveness
d)
independent assortment.
4.
Which of the following would be a homozygous recessive individual?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
t
d)
both tt and TT.
5.
Mendel's Principle of Segregation states that factors separate during:
a)
fertilization
b)
gamete formation
c)
cross-pollination
d)
seed dispersal.
6.
The appearance of an organism, such as smooth versus wrinkled seeds, is referred to as a:
a)
genotype
b)
variety
c)
phenotype
d)
factor
e)
allele.
7.
The genetic makeup of an organism is called:
a)
a gene pool
b)
its phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
e)
its genotype.
8.
Two identical alleles for a given trait is:
a)
homozygous
b)
dominant
c)
independently assorting
d)
self-pollinating
e)
heterozygous.
9.
How are dominant alleles represented on a Punnett Square?
a)
a bold letter
b)
a capital letter
c)
a lowercase letter
d)
two lowercase letters
10.
Chromosomes that are the same in both males and females are called:
a)
sex chromosomes
b)
autosomes
c)
homologous
d)
codominant
e)
recombinant.
11.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, it:
a)
will occur more often in males
b)
will occur more often in females
c)
never show up at all in females
d)
will never show up in males
12.
Sex-linked recessive alleles:
a)
may not be passed from father to son
b)
may not be passed from mother to son
c)
may be passed only from mother to daughter
d)
are never passed from father to daughter
13.
Mutations in the gametes that can be passed from parent to offspring are found in:
a)
somatic cells
b)
germ cells
c)
body cells
d)
all of the above.
14.
In _____________ inheritance, traits are influenced by many different genes. Phenotypes show graduations of small differences. Examples in humans include: Hair color, skin color, eye color, height, and weight
a)
polygenic
b)
incompletely dominant
c)
codominant
d)
sex-linked.
15.
Which type of chromosome mutation has occurred when the members of a pair of homologous chromosomes do not separate during meiosis I or sister chromatids do not separate during meiosis II?
a)
translocation
b)
nondisjunction
c)
inversion
d)
deletion
16.
___________________-cell mutations occur in the body cells of an organism.
a)
Germ
b)
Somatic
c)
Gamete
d)
Nondisjunction.
17.
If the color of radishes is an Incomplete Dominant trait where red Radishes are “RR” and white radishes are “WW” then purpule radishes will be _____________.
a)
RW
b)
PP
c)
RRWW
d)
None of the above
18.
The offspring of parents with different traits are called?
a)
Mutants
b)
Somatic
c)
F1
d)
Hybrids
19.
In ____________ plants, the sperm fertilizes the egg of the same plant.
a)
cross-pollinating
b)
F1
c)
self-pollinating
d)
Hybrid
20.
Which of the following was NOT a reason that garden peas made a good choice for Mendel’s genetics experiments?
a)
They were readily available.
b)
They were easy to grow.
c)
They grew rapidly so a new generation could be produced quickly.
d)
They cross-pollinated easily.
21.
Different versions of a gene that produce distinguishable traits in offspring are called?
a)
alleles
b)
hybrids
c)
chromosomes
d)
chromatids
22.
When gametes are formed, the alleles of a gene for one trait segregate independently of the alleles of a gene for another trait. This is known as:
a)
Principle of Separation
b)
Law of Dominance and Recessiveness
c)
Law of Independent Assortment
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
23.
A Law or Principle of Mendel that states that some alleles have the ability to mask or cover up other alleles.
a)
Principle of Separation
b)
Law of Dominance and Recessiveness
c)
Law of Independent Assortment
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
24.
The Watson-Crick model suggested that _______ could carry coded information.
a)
the position of the sugars
b)
the sequence of the bases
c)
the linear array of the amino acids
d)
high energy phosphate bonds
e)
the turns of the double helix.
25.
When DNA is damaged inside a cell, enzymes called ______ can cut out and remove the damaged sections.
a)
polymerases
b)
helicases
c)
nucleases
d)
ligases.
26.
The DNA molecule can be compared to a “twisted ladder” whose rails are _____ and whose rungs are ______.
a)
sugar, phosphate backbones; nitrogenous base pairs
b)
adenines; guanines
c)
helical; antiparallel
d)
nucleotides; phosphate groups
e)
phosphate groups; deoxyribose sugar.
27.
The process of transcription involves the synthesis of _____ from ______.
a)
RNA; DNA
b)
RNA; RNA polymerase
c)
DNA; RNA
d)
proteins; DNA
e)
anticodons; codons.
28.
During mRNA transcription, Uracil replaces what nitrogen base found in DNA?
a)
thymine
b)
adenine
c)
deoxyribose
d)
ribose
29.
The termination of protein synthesis occurs:
a)
upon recognition of an mRNA stop codon
b)
as soon as mRNA transcription stops
c)
when the first codon of an mRNA sequence is released from the ribosomal site
d)
at the start of the next mRNA strand.
30.
The sequence of the DNA “backbone” is:
a)
–base-phosphate-sugar-base-
b)
-phosphate-base-phosphate-base-
c)
–phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar-
d)
–base-sugar-base-sugar-base-
e)
–base-sugar-phosphate-base
31.
Which one of the following is not a component of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar molecule
b)
phosphate molecule
c)
nitrogen base
d)
DNA polymerase.
32.
What is the function of DNA in cells?
a)
It serves as a filler material to keep the nucleus from collapsing.
b)
It stores the information that directs the ribosomes in protein synthesis.
c)
It is the storage area for carbohydrates and other.
d)
It is a storage area for unused nucleotides. macromolecules.
33.
When replication is complete, two _____ copies of the DNA molecule have been produced and the cell is ready to begin cell division.
a)
different
b)
identical
c)
similar
d)
opposite
34.
Which of the following might cause accidental damage or changes in existing DNA?
a)
exposure to chemicals
b)
radioactivity
c)
x-rays
d)
excessive exposure to ultraviolet light
e)
all of the above.
35.
The rules for complementary base pairing apply to which of the following?
a)
amino acids in a protein
b)
sugars and phosphates
c)
sugars and nitrogen bases
d)
two nitrogen bases.
36.
Both DNA and RNA:
a)
are single stranded molecules
b)
contain the same four nucleotide bases
c)
are types of amino acids
d)
have the same five carbon sugar
e)
contain phosphate groups.
37.
Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a)
adenine
b)
cytosine
c)
guanine
d)
uracil
e)
phosphate groups
38.
All of the following are directly involved in the making of proteins except:
a)
mRNA
b)
small subunit of the ribosome
c)
tRNA
d)
amino acids
e)
DNA polymerase
39.
If a bacterial protein has 30 amino acids, how many nucleotides would be needed to code for it?
a)
10
b)
30
c)
60
d)
90
e)
120
40.
The information that directs protein synthesis is in DNA’s:
a)
sugars
b)
phosphate groups
c)
nitrogenous bases
d)
enzymes.
41.
Hydrogen bonding plays an important role in the DNA structure by joining together:
a)
the two strands (sides) of the DNA helix
b)
phosphate groups and sugar groups
c)
the carbon atoms in the five carbon ribose sugar
d)
both 1 and 2 are correct
42.
There are ______ possible codons that map to _______ different amino acids.
a)
64, 60
b)
20, 64
c)
24, 60
d)
64, 20
e)
48, 24
43.
Type of mutation caused by inserting or deleting bases in an mRNA sequence.
a)
frameshift mutation
b)
point mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
substitution mutation
44.
In protein synthesis, the ribosome releases the newly formed protein when it reaches:
a)
a stop codon
b)
an initiator codon
c)
the end of transfer RNA
d)
the end of ribosomal RNA.
45.
Suppose we have a “mini-gene” with the sequence TACCCGGATACT. The protein encoded by this gene would have how many amino acids?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
four
d)
six
e)
twelve
46.
Suppose we have a “mini-gene” with the sequence TACCCGGATACT. The construction of an mRNA molecule from this “mini-gene” is called:
a)
replication
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
translocation
e)
transcription.
47.
Suppose we have a “mini-gene” with the sequence TACCCGGATACT. The amino acid being called for by the first codon is:
a)
serine
b)
glycine
c)
proline
d)
methionine
e)
lysine
48.
The Watson-Crick model suggested that _______ could carry coded information.
a)
the position of the sugars
b)
the sequence of the bases
c)
the linear array of the amino acids
d)
high energy phosphate bonds
e)
the turns of the double helix.
49.
When DNA is damaged inside a cell, enzymes called ______ can cut out and remove the damaged sections.
a)
polymerases
b)
helicases
c)
nucleases
d)
ligases.
50.
The sequence of the DNA “backbone” is:
a)
base-phosphate-sugar-base
b)
phosphate-base-phosphate-base
c)
phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar
d)
base-sugar-base-sugar-base
51.
A large amount of DNA can be packed into the tiny space within the nucleus because the DNA is wound tightly around proteins called _____.
a)
nucleotides
b)
histones
c)
ligases
d)
purines
e)
exons.
52.
The sugars are bonded to the phosphates in the DNA molecule by:
a)
covalent bonding
b)
base pairing
c)
hydrogen bonding
d)
RNA polymerase
53.
Hydrogen bonding plays an important role in the DNA structure by joining together:
a)
the two strands (sides) of the DNA helix
b)
phosphate groups and sugar groups
c)
the carbon atoms in the five carbon ribose sugar
d)
none of the above
54.
Which of the following would NOT be found in a nucleotide?
a)
a 5-carbon sugar
b)
a nitrogen base
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
a phosphate group
55.
The enzyme of replication whose function is to link together individual nucleotides along a template strand is called:
a)
RNA polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
nuclease.
56.
When replication is complete, two _____ copies of the DNA molecule have been produced and the cell is ready to begin _____.
a)
different; growing
b)
identical; growing
c)
different; transcription
d)
identical; cell division.
57.
Each template strand of the DNA molecule can be used to make the other half of the DNA molecule during replication. This is because the two halves are ______ to each other.
a)
homologous
b)
complementary
c)
identical
d)
translatable.
58.
Which of the following might cause accidental damage or changes in existing DNA?
a)
exposure to chemicals
b)
radioactivity
c)
x-rays
d)
excessive exposure to ultraviolet light
e)
all of the above.
59.
Which of the following bases is never found in DNA?
a)
adenine
b)
uracil
c)
thymine
d)
cytosine
e)
guanine.
60.
Double ringed nitrogen bases belong to the group called:
a)
pyrimidines
b)
nitrogen bases
c)
purines
d)
phosphate groups.
61.
Nitrogen bases are held together across the center of the helix by which type of bond?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
peptide bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
ionic bonds.
62.
The rules of complementary base pairing link together which of the following?
a)
amino acids in a protein
b)
sugars and phosphates
c)
sugars and nitrogen bases
d)
two nitrogen bases.
63.
During replication, new nucleotides are added to a growing DNA strand by which enzyme?
a)
RNA polymerase
b)
nuclease
c)
helicase
d)
ligase
e)
DNA polymerase
64.
All of the living organisms in an area form a(n):
a)
community
b)
species
c)
population
d)
family
65.
Organisms that obtain their energy by consuming the bodies of dead organisms .
a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
detritivores
d)
omnivores
66.
The field of ecology was begun in 1866 by __________.
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Ernst Haeckel
d)
Charles Darwin
67.
In which of the following ways do decomposers benefit the ecosystem?
a)
They use the energy from the sun
b)
They reduce competition between organisms.
c)
They prevent an invasive species from overpopulating.
d)
They recycle chemical elements to the ecosystem
68.
Most life exists whithin a few meters of:
a)
the tops of mountains
b)
the desert
c)
the surface of the earth
d)
citys
69.
What name is given to the zone that receives direct or nearly direct sunlight all year long?
a)
Polar
b)
Temperate
c)
Tropical
d)
None of these
70.
Organisms with broad niches that can tolerate a range of conditions are called?
a)
autotrophs
b)
generalists
c)
specialists
d)
biotic factors
71.
What are the main autotrophs in terrestrial ecosystems?
a)
Green plants
b)
Algae
c)
Fungi
d)
Bacteria
72.
An event that causes a large number of species die out in a relatively short period of time?
a)
weather
b)
climate
c)
upwelling
d)
disturbance
73.
An organism’s _____ is the place where it lives out its life.
a)
habitat
b)
niche
c)
community
d)
location
74.
Name given to organisms that carry out chemosynthesis.
a)
chemoautotrophs
b)
photoautotrophs
c)
heterotrophs
d)
herbivores
75.
What are the main autotrophs in aquatic ecosystems?
a)
Green plants
b)
Algae
c)
Fungi
d)
Bacteria
76.
A step in a food chain that indicates position in the sequence of energy transfers.
a)
acclimation
b)
adaptation
c)
tolerance
d)
trophic level
77.
Organisms that obtain their energy directly from the inorganic sources in their environment.
a)
heterotrophs
b)
carnivores
c)
autotrophs
d)
herbivore
78.
An animal that eats only plants such as a cow.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Detritivore
79.
A genetic change in a species or population that occurs slowly over many generations.
a)
acclimation
b)
adaptation
c)
tolerance
d)
trophic level
80.
In which climate zone is the sun at a very low angle during the entire year?
a)
Polar
b)
Temperate
c)
Tropical
d)
None of these
81.
The linear path that shows the transfer of energy from one organism to another.
a)
food web
b)
trophic level
c)
autotrophs
d)
food chain
82.
An animal that eats both plants and animals such as a bear.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Detritivore
83.
Conformers are organisms that:
a)
do not regulate their internal body conditions
b)
use energy to regulate their internal body conditions
c)
can alternate between being an autotroph or a heterotroph
d)
can acclimate their diet to consume whatever is available.
84.
The day-to-day condition of Earth’s atmosphere is referred to as?
a)
weather
b)
climate
c)
upwelling
d)
disturbance
85.
A desert reptile is considered one because its body temperature changes with the environment.
a)
conformer
b)
regulator
c)
generalist
d)
specialist
86.
An organism that can survive in many places and can eat many different foods:
a)
generalist
b)
specialist
c)
consumer
d)
producer
87.
An organism’s _____ is the role or “occupation” it plays in its environment.
a)
habitat
b)
niche
c)
community
d)
location
88.
Developing more red blood cells after training at high elevations is an example of"
a)
adaptation
b)
acclimation
c)
tolerance
d)
Natural Selection
89.
Network of complex interactions of feeding relationships of many different organisms:
a)
food chain
b)
trophic level
c)
autotrophs
d)
food web
90.
The living components of an ecosystem are referred to as?
a)
abiotic factors
b)
heterotrophs
c)
biotic factors
d)
autotrophs
91.
A group of organisms that can mate with one another and all live in the same general area:
a)
community
b)
species
c)
population
d)
family
92.
An animal that eats only meat such as a lion.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Detritivore
93.
Name of the molecule that consists of three oxygen atoms?
a)
Methane
b)
water
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
ozone
94.
The angle north or south of the equator is known as:
a)
longitude
b)
lattitude
c)
angle of inclination
d)
time zone
95.
The changing angle of the sun causes this climate zone to range from hot to cold.
a)
Polar
b)
Temperate
c)
Tropical
d)
None of these
96.
The portion of Earth that supports all life is called the:
a)
ecosystem
b)
biome
c)
biosphere
d)
habitat
97.
What is the ultimate source of energy for life on Earth?
a)
the moon
b)
geothermal energy
c)
the sun
d)
plants
98.
Which one of the following might be a biotic factor that affects a meadow of wildflowers?
a)
The amount of sunlight the flowers receive.
b)
The pH of the soil in which they grow.
c)
The number of pollinating insects that occupy the area.
d)
The average daily temperature of the meadow
99.
Autotrophs are referred to as:
a)
consumers
b)
producers
c)
animals
d)
bacteria
100.
In a dihybrid cross between an individual that has the genotype “AABB” and an individual with the genotype of “aabb”, all of the resulting offspring will have a genotype of:
a)
AABB
b)
AaBB
c)
AaBb
d)
AABb
e)
aabb
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