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Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 224

Worksheet time: 4hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ahmed is making a model of a vertebrate digestive system. Which of the following should NOT be included in his model?

a)

only a single opening

b)

mechanical digestion

c)

chemical digestion

d)

symbiotic microorganisms

2.

What characteristic is common to all animal respiratory systems?

a)

air flows in one direction

b)

alveoli

c)

gases diffuse across a moist membrane

d)

lungs

3.

The two circulatory systems can be found in which types of organisms?

a)

left: invertebrates with gills; right: vertebrates with lungs

b)

left: annelids with two hearts; right: amphibians with four hearts

c)

left: fish with gills; right: mammals with lungs

d)

left: reptiles with an open circulatory system; right: mammals with a closed circulatory system

4.

Florida panthers are predatory carnivores that typically live in forests, marsh shrub swamps, and prairie grasslands. How should a model of the systems of the Florida panther illustrate how blood flows through a panther’s circulatory system?

a)

The model would show an open circulatory system that enables blood to flow to all tissues of the panther’s body.

b)

The model would show a closed circulatory system that enables blood to flow under higher pressure.

c)

The model would show a three-chamber heart that enables oxygen-poor blood to mix with oxygen-rich blood in the ventricle.

d)

The model would show a single-loop circulatory system than enables blood to flow throughout the panther’s body in one direction.

5.

All animals have structures and processes for eliminating nitrogen-containing wastes. How do mammals get rid of nitrogen-containing wastes?

a)

Wastes are removed from the blood in the lungs and exhaled.

b)

Wastes are removed from the blood in the kidneys and excreted.

c)

Wastes are digested by symbiotic microorganisms in the gut.

d)

Wastes are converted to amino acids.

6.

The skull of an animal reveals a mouth with two rows of flat-topped teeth, as well as a jaw that is adapted for side-to-side, “grinding” movements. What conclusion about the animal do these observations support?

a)

The animal is a carnivore.

b)

The animal is a herbivore.

c)

The animal has a small or absent stomach.

d)

The animal digests food mechanically but not chemically.

7.

Fish and other aquatic animals use gills to gain oxygen from the water and to eliminate carbon dioxide. For gills to work properly, which activity must occur?

a)

The gill filaments must spin rapidly, like tiny rotors or wheels.

b)

The gills must be in contact with stationary water.

c)

Air must be pumped so it flows over the gill filaments.

d)

Water must be pumped so it flows over the gill filaments.

8.

The heart of a closed circulatory system generally must exert more force than the heart of an open circulatory system, even in animals of similar size. Which statement is most useful for explaining this observation?

a)

In a closed circulatory system, the blood contains a variety of cells and dissolved substances.

b)

In a closed circulatory system, the heart has two or more chambers.

c)

In a closed circulatory system, the heart must pump blood through capillary beds.

d)

In a closed circulatory system, the blood pools in spaces called sinuses.

9.

Which is one way that the four-chambered heart, shown in the system at the right, is different from the two-chambered heart, shown in the system at the left?

a)

Blood flows in one direction only through each chamber.

b)

Blood may flow in either direction through each chamber.

c)

Oxygen-rich blood mixes with oxygen-poor blood in some of the chambers.

d)

The heart receives and pumps oxygen-rich blood separately from oxygen-poor blood.

10.

In most reptiles and birds, nitrogenous wastes are converted to uric acid and then eliminated from the body. How is this process different from the excretion of urine in mammals?

a)

Kidneys filter the nitrogenous wastes from the blood.

b)

Uric acid is mixed together and excreted with digestive wastes from the gut.

c)

Uric acid is exhaled from the lungs along with carbon dioxide

d)

Malpighian tubules filter the nitrogenous wastes from the blood.

11.

Valerie designed and conducted an experiment on pothos plants, which are common houseplants. Her hypothesis is that the direction of light will affect the growth pattern of a pothos plant. To test the hypothesis, she sets up two test groups of pothos plants and observes them three weeks later. The table summarizes the test groups and observations.

What are the roles of the two test groups in this investigation?

a)

Both are experimental groups, and each individually shows the effect of the direction of light.

b)

One is the experimental group and one is the control group, and together they show the effect of the direction of light.

c)

Both are control groups, but only Test Group 1 shows the effect of the direction of light.

d)

Both are experimental groups, but only Test Group 1 shows the effect of the direction of light.

12.

After analyzing the results of the experiment, Valerie asks if her hypothesis should be classified as a theory. Which is the best response to Valerie’s question?

a)

Yes, because her data support the hypothesis.

b)

Yes, but only if additional experiments show similar results.

c)

No, because the experiment did not provide enough data to support the hypothesis.

d)

No, because a theory is a highly reliable explanation that incorporates many well-tested hypotheses.

13.

Evolutionary theory has become the central organizing principle of biological science. Could this scientific theory ever become a scientific law?

a)

Yes, if scientists decide that enough evidence supports the theory.

b)

Yes, if the theory is shown to predict future events.

c)

No, because a theory is a complex explanation that does not become a law.

d)

No, because a theory can be proven correct while a law cannot be proven.

14.

and the body of a lion. What role, if any, could the griffin have in the science of biology?

a)

The griffin could be the subject of an investigation of animals.

b)

The griffin could be cited as evidence to evaluate a hypothesis or theory.

c)

The griffin could be used to test new ideas about animal structures or behaviors.

d)

The griffin has no role in biology, because it is not real.

15.

After a team of scientists completes an investigation, they submit an article about the investigation to a scientific journal. Before the journal publishes the article, they send it to other scientists for an anonymous, independent review. What is the purpose of this review?

a)

to evaluate the methods and test the results of the investigation

b)

to guarantee that the conclusions of the investigation are correct

c)

to make sure the investigation has practical, economic benefits

d)

to improve the appeal of the article to the general public

16.

When news of a scientific discovery is reported, readers must assess the credibility of the claim. For scientific discoveries in general, which statement indicates a valid and credible claim?

a)

The scientist aimed for precision and accuracy by using a small sample size.

b)

The scientist followed strict standards of investigation and scientific methodology throughout the research.

c)

The scientist assured that the experiment was broad in scope by testing many variables in each trial.

d)

No other scientists replicated the experiment to avoid the legal issues of patent infringement.

17.

Science is concerned with explaining natural phenomena, based on observation, experiments, and evidence. Other questions are best answered by using other forms of knowledge and understanding, such as art, philosophy, or religion. Which of these topics is best studied by science?

a)

the behavior of animals

b)

the meaning of existence

c)

the beauty of nature

d)

the rules of language

18.

In 1999, teams in Colorado and California were working together to put NASA’s Mars Climate Orbiter in orbit around Mars. The mission of the orbiter was to look for evidence of water. One team used English units of measurement. The other team used metric measurement. As a result, the spacecraft was lost. What would be the simplest and most cost-effective way to avoid mistakes like this in the future?

a)

Missions should be run by only one facility.

b)

All personnel and missions should use the metric system.

c)

Another office should oversee every aspect of missions.

d)

NASA should coordinate all missions with the European Space Agency.

19.

Which of the following scientific reports is MOST likely to be affected by the bias of the scientist?

a)

A scientist who studies viruses reports ways to prevent viral infections.

b)

A scientist who developed a new strain of cotton reports on the benefits of cotton.

c)

A scientist who studies wildlife in Australia reports on the native species of Australia.

d)

A physician who works for a hospital reports on the effectiveness of a new medicine.

20.

Which statement BEST explains why viruses are typically classified as nonliving?

a)

Viruses satisfy all of the properties of living things, but are too small to be alive.

b)

Viruses satisfy all of the properties of nonliving things, such as not moving and not using energy.

c)

Viruses fail to satisfy each of the properties of living things, including the use of DNA and universal genetic code.

d)

Viruses fail to satisfy many of the properties of living things, including obtaining and using energy, and responding to the environment.

21.

DNA fingerprinting is a technology that is used for many different purposes. The diagram below is an illustration of what DNA fingerprinting data may look like.

Police departments and other agencies are often tasked with investigating crimes.

Which of the following describes a solution to a problem investigators face that DNA fingerprinting can help solve?

a)

DNA fingerprinting can be used to treat criminals that have a genetic disease or disorder.

b)

DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify persons that were wrongly convicted of a crime.

c)

DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify which genes are active in persons that commit crimes.

d)

DNA fingerprinting can allow persons that commit crimes to be used as animal models in medical research studies.

22.

DNA fingerprinting is a technology that is used for many different purposes. The diagram below is an illustration of what DNA fingerprinting data may look like.

What do the dark bands in each sample represent?

a)

chromosomes

b)

active DNA fragments

c)

clones

d)

DNA fragments of different lengths

23.

A scientist is treating rice plants with a chemical that causes mutations. What is the possible benefit of this treatment?

a)

clones

b)

transgenic plants

c)

increased genetic variation

d)

increased hybridization

24.

One of the challenges facing the world today is supplying enough food for the human population. Farming with genetically modified plants is a possible solution to this challenge. What is a concern with using GM plants?

a)

Farming with GM plants that are resistant to chemical herbicides may lead to overuse of weed-killing compounds.

b)

Farming with GM plants requires less land and energy, which may lead to lower food costs and an economic crisis for farmers.

c)

GM plants require more insecticide use, which may increase the chance of chemical residues in the food supply.

d)

Scientific studies on GM plants are not available so the effects of GM plants are unknown.

25.

A medical researcher hopes to cure a disease in mice by changing a gene. How can she change the sequence of a gene?

a)

CRISPR

b)

cloning

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

DNA fingerprinting

26.

Scientists are optimistic about the use of gene therapy to treat genetic disorders, such as cystic fibrosis. If gene therapy is as successful as possible, what is its expected action and benefit for the patient?

a)

Gene therapy introduces a new gene to the patient and temporarily improves the symptoms of the disorder.

b)

Gene therapy deactivates the defective gene and permanently improves the symptoms of the disorder.

c)

Gene therapy removes the defective gene and permanently improves the symptoms of the disorder.

d)

Gene therapy replaces the defective gene and cures the patient of the disorder.

27.

Scientists are now able to make recombinant DNA, in which they transfer a gene from one species into the genome of another species. Which is an impact of recombinant DNA on the individual or society?

a)

Families will have the choice of cloning a favorite pet.

b)

Chimera animals will be possible, such as an eagle with the head of a lion.

c)

Diabetics will have ample supplies of insulin that are produced by bacteria.

d)

Human genetic disorders that involve extra chromosomes in cells can be cured.

28.

Which is the most likely type of ethical or social issue that could arise from the use of DNA fingerprinting?

a)

issues of animal rights that arise when an animal’s genome is changed for a human purpose

b)

privacy issues that arise when a donor’s DNA is identified without his or her consent

c)

environmental issues that arise when recombinant DNA is introduced, on purpose or by accident, into an ecosystem

d)

economic issues that arise because of the high expense of DNA fingerprinting

29.

A student wants to determine whether or not the flower is pollinated by an animal, such as an insect or a bird. Which property of the flower would be most useful for making this inference?

a)

number of stamens

b)

location of the style

c)

color and shape of the petals

d)

location and size of the ovary

30.

In an experiment, Marlene removes the six anthers from the flower. What best describes the ability of the altered flower to form seeds?

a)

The flower cannot form seeds because it cannot be pollinated.

b)

The flower cannot form seeds because it cannot produce male gametophytes.

c)

The flower may form seeds because the stigma can produce pollen.

d)

The flower may form seeds if it receives pollen made by another flower.

31.

Vascular tissue allows a plant to transport water against the pull of gravity. Which statement best describes the trait of vascular tissue in the plant kingdom?

a)

All plants use vascular tissue to transport water.

b)

Most plants, but not mosses and green algae, use vascular tissue to transport water.

c)

Only woody plants, such as trees and shrubs, use vascular tissue to transport water.

d)

Only herbaceous plants, such as grasses and garden vegetables, use vascular tissue to transport water.

32.

The life cycle of a plant includes two alternating phases: a diploid (2N) phase and a haploid (N) phase. As plants evolved in many stages from green algae to seed plants, what trend occurred in the alternating phases?

a)

The haploid phase became larger.

b)

The diploid phase became larger.

c)

The two phases became more alike.

d)

The two phases each became smaller.

33.

Which adaptation distinguishes all seed plants from mosses?

a)

Seed plants are larger in size.

b)

Seed plants reproduce with flowers.

c)

Seed plants transport water against gravity.

d)

Seed plants reproduce without standing water.

34.

A cucumber is often called a vegetable because of the way it is used as a food. What property of the cucumber shows that it is properly classified as a fruit?

a)

It has a rounded shape.

b)

It develops from the sepals of a flower.

c)

It has a fleshy, edible center.

d)

It contains the seeds of the plant.

35.

As plants evolved from algae, they developed the ability to live on dry land. Which of the following adaptations was most useful for this development to occur?

a)

tissues for drawing water from the soil

b)

chemicals for resisting insect attacks

c)

structures for reproducing in standing water

d)

enzymes for converting oxygen to carbon dioxide

36.

Which statement best describes the differences between monocots and dicots?

a)

The differences affect only specific plant parts, and not the entire plant.

b)

The differences develop over time during the life of the plant, and are not apparent during the early stages.

c)

The differences affect the growth, development, and structures of the plant throughout its life cycle.

d)

The differences are determined by environmental factors, and not the genes of the plant

37.

The uptake of carbon dioxide and the release of oxygen is essential for a plant to survive. Where and how does this gas exchange generally occur?

a)

in all plant organs, as a result of cellular respiration

b)

in the stems, to provide the energy for lifting water

c)

in the roots, to allow mineral absorption

d)

in the leaves, as a result of photosynthesis

38.

Angiosperms produce flowers, while gymnosperms do not. Which is a property of the flowers of angiosperms that is not shared by the reproductive structures of gymnosperms?

a)

A flower can produce many seeds at the same time.

b)

The same plant can produce many flowers.

c)

Flowers can be pollinated without the involvement of animals.

d)

Flowers produce seeds that are encased in protective fruits.

39.

Green lacewings are used to control aphids, which are pests of many crops. A population of 1000 green lacewings is released into a farmer’s field. The graph shows the change in the population over time.

What is the most likely explanation for the approximately constant population of the lacewings after the eighth year?

a)

The lacewings had eaten all of the aphids in the field.

b)

The lacewing population had reached the carrying capacity of the field.

c)

New predators of lacewings had arrived in the field.

d)

The birthrate of lacewings had increased, while the death rate remained constant.

40.

About 800 ash trees live in a tract of conservation land. Which of these events would have the least effect on the land’s carrying capacity for ash trees?

a)

Maple trees are introduced to the land, where they grow well.

b)

Human activities drain about half of the water that the land generally receives.

c)

A beetle that infects ash trees is introduced to the land.

d)

About one third of the ash trees are cut down and hauled away.

41.

A lake is home to many native fishes and aquatic plants. Which of these events is most likely to threaten the biodiversity of the lake ecosystem?

a)

a 20 percent increase in the population of one of the native fish species

b)

the arrival of migrating birds that prey on the native fishes

c)

the introduction of a nonnative fish species that has no natural enemies in the lake

d)

a storm that temporarily swells the lake and floods the surrounding land

42.

For many years in the 1800s, human hunters on the U.S. Great Plains hunted bison almost to extinction. Which statement, if true, best explains why the hunters were such a threat to the bison population?

a)

The death rate from hunting was much greater than the maximum birthrate of the bison.

b)

The death rate from hunting was much greater than the natural death rate of the bison.

c)

The hunting removed individuals of all ages, including very young bison.

d)

Human hunters had replaced the natural predators of the bison.

43.

In a tundra ecosystem, the carrying capacity for arctic hares is about 400 individuals. Which of these events is most likely to reduce the carrying capacity for arctic hares in the ecosystem by at least 25 percent?

a)

a severe storm that kills about 100 adult and young arctic hares

b)

a 25 percent decrease in the populations of foxes, wolves, or other predators of arctic hares

c)

the arrival in the ecosystem of a species that competes with the arctic hare for its food

d)

a temporary increase in the arctic hare population to more than 425 individuals

44.

Hyram fills a Petri dish with agar, which is a growth medium for bacteria. Then he raises a colony of bacteria in a Petri dish. For the first week, he observes the colony double in number every 1.5 days. Then he predicts that during the second week, the pattern of exponential growth will change to a pattern of logistic growth.

If Hyram’s prediction is correct, which most likely will be the cause of the change in the growth pattern of the bacteria?

a)

The rate of bacterial reproduction will decrease gradually over time in any growth medium.

b)

The amount of agar in the Petri dish will act as a limiting factor on the bacterial colony.

c)

A random mutation will produce bacteria that cannot reproduce, and so they die off quickly.

d)

As the bacteria population increases, the sizes of individual bacteria will become smaller.

45.

Deana applies the data in the table to calculate the rate of population increase or decrease of each country.

Which assumption is necessary for Deana’s calculations to be accurate?

a)

The immigration and emigration rates of the countries are insignificantly small or approximately equal.

b)

The immigration rates of the countries are much higher than the emigration rates.

c)

The immigration rates of the countries are much smaller than the emigration rates.

d)

The population is evenly distributed between rural, suburban, and urban areas.

46.

Which conclusion is most strongly supported by the data in the table?

a)

The population of each country is increasing at approximately the same rate.

b)

The population of each country is increasing at different rates.

c)

Italy has passed through the demographic transition, while the other countries have not yet passed through it.

d)

All of the countries except Italy have passed through the demographic transition.

47.

The black-footed ferret lives on the grasslands of North America. The species is endangered because of habitat loss and disease. What change would cause the species to become extinct?

a)

Habitat loss continues to such an extent that the carrying capacity for black-footed ferrets becomes zero.

b)

Disease continues to kill a constant percentage of all black-footed ferrets during the first year of life.

c)

The black-footed ferret population decreases until the birthrate equals the death rate.

d)

The black-footed ferret population decreases low enough for other limiting factors to affect it.

48.

Which conclusion does the diagram most strongly support?

a)

The population of the country is increasing at a rapid rate.

b)

The population of the country is relatively stable, and neither increasing nor decreasing significantly.

c)

In 50 years, about 20 percent of the population will be ages 0 to 4.

d)

In 50 years, about 20 percent of the population will be ages 50 to 54.

49.

Darwin’s theory of evolution offers a scientific explanation for which of the following?

a)

how genetic information is inherited

b)

changes in species over time

c)

human effects on biodiversity

d)

the age of Earth

50.

Thomas Malthus argued that if the human population grew unchecked, then supplies of food and other resources would be exhausted. Which of these ideas about evolution did Darwin adapt from Malthus’s work?

a)

An organism passes many of its traits to its offspring.

b)

All organisms fill a niche, or role in their environment.

c)

Variations within a species are necessary for evolutionary change.

d)

Organisms are able to produce many more offspring than will survive.

51.

Darwin’s observations of Galápagos finches support the theory of evolution. Molecular homology of genes, such as Hox genes, provides another type of support for how species evolve. What does this imply about scientific theories?

a)

With enough evidence, scientific theories will become laws.

b)

Scientific theories are a culmination of many pieces of evidence.

c)

Scientific theories should not be trusted because the evidence for them changes over time.

d)

Scientific theories are hypotheses that scientists investigate.

52.

Two species of fish are introduced to the same lake. Over time, only one species survives. According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, what should characterize the surviving species?

a)

greater genetic variation

b)

more abundant food supply

c)

a better ability to survive and reproduce in the lake

d)

a better ability to withstand seasonal changes in the lake

53.

Bernice is preparing a report on evidence for the common ancestry of species. She includes the figure of forelimbs shown.

The forelimbs are an example of which of the following?

a)

analogous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

homologous structures

d)

convergent structures

54.

A small population of mice is released into a meadow. Many but not all of the mice survive and reproduce, and this pattern continues for many generations of mice. According to Darwin’s ideas about evolution, which of these conditions is necessary for natural selection to occur on the mouse population?

a)

Any mutations in the population do not affect the fitness of a mouse.

b)

The meadow provides unlimited resources to support the mice.

c)

Traits that affect the survival of the mice vary among individual mice.

d)

The environment of the meadow remains about the same from year to year.

55.

Darwin observed many finch species on the Galapagos Islands. To explain these observations, he proposed that each species evolved from the same common ancestor, which was a finch species that migrated to the islands from the mainland. What additional evidence did Darwin use to support his explanation? 

a)

The finch populations were very numerous, and different species often bred with one another.

b)

The finch species lived in different habitats on different islands, which isolated them from one another.

c)

The finch species were distributed evenly among all of the islands, but did not interbreed.

d)

The beaks of the finches were identical, allowing them to eat the same foods on any of the islands.

56.

A snake does not have legs. Nevertheless, it has tiny hip-like bones in its midsection where legs could reasonably attach. The bones have no function.

How do the hip bones of a snake provide evidence for the evolution of snakes?

a)

The hip bones are vestigial structures that show evolutionary descent from an ancestor that had legs.

b)

The hip bones are analogous structures with the leg bones of other animals, and show how they all evolved from a common ancestor.

c)

The hip bones are vestigial structures that show that snakes, worms, and other legless animals evolved by adaptive radiation.

d)

The hip bones are homologous structures with the vertebrae and other bones of the snake, and show the sequence in which the vertebrate skeleton evolved.

57.

Single-celled bacteria and multicellular animals differ from one another in a wide variety of ways. How does molecular biology provide evidence for the evolutionary relationship between these two large groups of organisms?

a)

Differences in the use of DNA, RNA, and the genetic code show that the groups lacked a common ancestor.

b)

The identical use of DNA, RNA, and the genetic code show that the groups evolved from an ancient common ancestor.

c)

Differences in the use of DNA, RNA, and the genetic code show that the groups evolved at different rates in different environments.

d)

The identical use of DNA, RNA, and the genetic code show that the groups evolved in a pattern of coevolution.

58.

A population of rabbits grows rapidly from one year to the next. Then one year, a disease strikes approximately one fourth of the adult rabbits. The disease remains with the population in the years that follow.

As explained by Darwin’s theory, which of these conditions allows the rabbit population to evolve by natural selection?

a)

The disease affects adult and juvenile rabbits equally.

b)

The disease reduces the ability of the rabbits to reproduce.

c)

Some rabbits are resistant to the disease, and they pass the resistance to their offspring.

d)

No rabbits are resistant to the disease, and all die when the disease strikes them.

59.

A community is concerned about the effect of a proposed housing development on the biodiversity of a local pond. To mitigate the effect of the houses, the community is considering a ban on lawn fertilizer. A computer simulation was used to predict the outcome of the ban. The results are shown in the table.

If the community decides to allow the housing development, what is the strongest argument for banning the use of fertilizer that is supported by the results of the simulation?

a)

Compared to no regulations, banning lawn fertilizer increases species diversity by 50 percent after 25 years.

b)

Compared to initial conditions, banning lawn fertilizer decreases species diversity by 25 percent after 25 years.

c)

Compared to no housing development, banning lawn fertilizer decreases species diversity by 25 percent after 25 years.

d)

Without the housing development, species diversity remains about the same from year to year.

60.

Modern farming practices often act to reduce biodiversity, such as when genetically identical crops are raised in large fields. Which of the following proposed solutions would most likely improve the genetic diversity of a field of potato plants and increase the value of the potato crop?

a)

Raise a variety of wild potatoes in the field

b)

Reduce the use of pesticides and fertilizer

c)

Increase the use of pesticides and fertilizer

d)

Transfer useful genes from wild potato plants to the crop plants

61.

From 1970 to 2016, scientists were regularly observing the Joshua County Nature Reserve. Their data show that a community of grasses and other small plants was gradually replaced by a pine forest. Which claim about the history of the nature reserve could be supported by the data and logical reasoning?

a)

Several years before 1970, a forest fire burned down a pine forest.

b)

For several years until 1970, a pine forest was gradually replaced by grasses and other small plants.

c)

The land was used for a commercial pine forest before 1970, but was then abandoned.

d)

The land had always supported grasses and other small plants until 1970.

62.

Which of these events is most likely to be followed by primary succession in the area where the event occurs?

a)

A fire burns most of the trees of a forest.

b)

Floodwaters cover and then drain away from a valley.

c)

A volcanic eruption covers a mountainside with molten rock.

d)

A farmer stops raising crops on a field.

63.

A farmer spreads insect-killing chemicals on an orchard to protect the fruit from harmful insects. Which of these unwanted events is the most likely side-effect of the chemical treatment?

a)

decreased diversity of the fruit crop

b)

decreased growth of the fruit trees

c)

loss of fruit to birds and other fruit-eating animals

d)

decreased volume of fruit crop due to fewer pollinators

64.

After a glacier retreats from a mountain valley, bare rocks are exposed to the surface. Which of the events of primary succession occurs first to the rocks?

a)

Plant stems push up through the rocks from deep underground.

b)

Thick plant roots break apart the rocks as they grow around or through them.

c)

Soil gradually piles over the rocks and buries them.

d)

Lichens, mosses, and other pioneer species begin growing on the rocks.

65.

Khalil and Vera are visiting a region of land that is unfamiliar to them. They observe a community of grasses and shrubs, as well as a variety of insects, birds, snakes, and small mammals such as mice and rabbits.

Khalil claims that they are visiting a meadow ecosystem that, if undisturbed, will remain stable for many years. Vera argues that Khalil is incorrect. She claims that the ecosystem is undergoing ecological succession, and that it likely will become a hardwood forest.

Which observation from this region would provide the strongest evidence in support of Vera’s claim?

a)

singed or charred tree trunks along the ground or in the soil

b)

large grazing animals, such as buffalo or zebra

c)

a river, lake, or pond that has very clear water

d)

rocks with lichens growing on their surface

66.

Ms. Hogan owns land that once was used for farming. Now the land is covered in meadows, wetlands, and small groves of trees.

Ms. Hogan is planning to convert the farmland into a golf course. She asks the town to choose from several plans. Each plan preserves either the meadows, the wetlands, or the trees--but not all three parts of the ecosystem.

Which is the strongest argument for the town to choose to preserve the wetlands?

a)

Unlike other ecosystems, wetlands are home to microorganisms that maintain soil structure.

b)

Unlike other ecosystems, wetlands are home to animals that pollinate crops and regulate pests.

c)

More so than other ecosystems, wetlands remove excess carbon from the atmosphere.

d)

More so than other ecosystems, wetlands filter and purify water as it soaks into the ground

67.

A tropical rain forest is an example of a climax community. It is a stable community that generally, but not always, returns after a disturbance. Which of these disturbances is most likely to result in a permanent change to the tropical rain forest, meaning that the rainforest community is not likely to return over time?

a)

A fire burns down all the trees within a 10-meter radius of a lightning strike.

b)

A hurricane blows down rainforest trees along a coastline.

c)

The rain forest trees are cleared, and the land is used for farming.

d)

A fungal infection kills several rainforest trees from various species.

68.

Garden 1 is a monoculture of corn plants, meaning that is filled with corn plants that are genetically the same as one another. Garden 2 contains corn plants and a wide variety of other crops, all distributed evenly. The two gardens are similar or identical in their other properties, such as soil quality and exposure to sunlight.

Gerry claims that Garden 2 is the more likely to succeed, meaning that its plants are more likely to thrive and produce a useful crop.

Which statement provides the strongest argument in support of Gerry’s claim?

a)

The greater biodiversity of Garden 2 provides it with greater resilience to environmental changes.

b)

The greater biodiversity of Garden 2 allows each of its plants to grow taller and take up more space.

c)

The greater biodiversity of plants in Garden 2 decreases the biodiversity of insect pests.

d)

Although both gardens have similar biodiversity, Garden 2 plants are likely to require less water and sunlight.

69.

Which activity would you predict is most likely to have the smallest impact on environmental systems?

a)

using more land to grow corn that is used to produce fuel

b)

using land to create a national park

c)

building a dam for energy production

d)

building new housing in an area far from a city

70.

Legislation was introduced in 1987 to ban the use of compounds that were depleting the ozone layer. The graph below shows the levels of halogens in the atmosphere for several years after the legislation was passed.

What conclusion can you draw from this graph?

a)

The size of the ozone layer decreased during this time period.

b)

The concentration of ozone in the upper atmosphere increased during this time period.

c)

The concentration of halogens in the atmosphere decreased during this time period.

d)

The size of Antarctica below the ozone layer decreased during this time period.

71.

Commercial development in the U.S. has resulted in an increase in the number of roads, housing developments, shopping centers, and parking lots. What risk does this pose to organisms in environments impacted by commercial development?

a)

Development often causes habitat fragmentation, which can threaten biodiversity.

b)

Development often causes reforestation, which can reduce the number of anthromes.

c)

Development often causes pollution, which can increase the ozone of the ozone layer.

d)

Development often causes biological magnification, which can increase global warming.

72.

Which of the following is a benefit of using renewable resources?

a)

Renewable resources are resilient to environmental stresses.

b)

Renewable resources are not affected by innovation.

c)

Renewable resources are replaceable by healthy ecosystems.

d)

Renewable resources contribute to a larger ecological footprint than nonrenewable resources.

73.

Fossil fuels are commonly used as an energy source for transportation vehicles. Burning fossil fuels has led to more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and dissolved in seawater. Which of the following describes how burning fossil fuels is most likely to impact marine organisms?

a)

Increased levels of carbon dioxide in seawater would increase the rate of photosynthesis in marine plants.

b)

Dissolved carbon dioxide in seawater would cause an increase in shellfish populations due to strengthened skeletons.

c)

Increased levels of carbon dioxide in seawater would cause ocean acidification and weaken corals.

d)

Dissolved carbon dioxide in seawater would cause invasive species to out-compete native species.

74.

Luella argues that the cost of fossil fuels is not truly reflected in the price that people pay for them. She argues that the damage to the global climate that is caused by fossil fuels should be included in their cost. Which statement is most useful for explaining Luella's argument?

a)

Methane, which is the main component of natural gas, is a much more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.

b)

Human activities are depleting Earth's supply of fossil fuels much faster than natural processes can restore them.

c)

The burning of fossil fuels releases heat directly into the atmosphere, where it is trapped by the greenhouse effect.

d)

The burning of fossil fuels acts to transfer carbon from the geosphere to the atmosphere, where it increases the greenhouse effect.

75.

Scientists have been monitoring global sea level for over 100 years. The graph shows how global sea level has changed from 1900 to 2010. Scientists are concerned that if the trend in the data continues, then coastal regions will be flooded.

The data in the graph provide the strongest evidence in support of which of these policies?

a)

Reducing the use of wind turbines, which may divert local wind patterns.

b)

Reducing the emissions of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which harm the ozone layer.

c)

Reducing the global burning of fossil fuels, which add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere.

d)

Increasing the construction of dams and reservoirs, which help store water on land.

76.

A team of climate scientists issues a forecast for Earth's average temperatures by the year 2100. The forecast includes a range of temperatures, with a minimum increase of 2.6°C and a maximum increase of 4.8°C.

Which factor is most likely responsible for the uncertainty in the forecast?

a)

uncertainty about the mechanisms of the greenhouse effect

b)

uncertainty about the rate of sediment build-up on the ocean floor

c)

unpredictability of volcanic eruptions

d)

future human decisions about energy use and reforestation

77.

A developer proposes to develop a 300-acre tract of land known as Franklin Hill. The plan calls for 20 new houses, with solar panels installed on each house to provide electricity. The plan also calls for the establishment of a nature preserve where a forest will grow. However, another feature of the plan is for the wetlands of Franklin Hill to be drained and replaced with lawns.

Is the planned housing development for Franklin Hill an example of sustainable development?

a)

Yes, because it uses a renewable resource to provide electricity.

b)

Yes, because it establishes and protects a tract of new forest.

c)

No, because human use of the land is never sustainable.

d)

Only partially, because the draining of the wetlands damages an important ecosystem service.

78.

The pesticide DDT was once widely used to control mosquitos. However, because of a process called biomagnification, DDT caused damage to ecosystems and biodiversity. Which property of DDT caused this damage to occur?

a)

DDT kills small organisms at very low concentrations and larger organisms at higher concentrations.

b)

DDT persists in biological systems and becomes concentrated as it passes up food chains.

c)

DDT is broken apart quickly in biological systems, and its byproducts are toxic to many animals.

d)

DDT is broken apart for its energy, and so replaces the natural diets of many animals.

79.

A student is making a model to illustrate the functions of ADP and ATP in photosynthesis. Which model best illustrates the role of ATP in photosynthesis?

a)

a power plant that generates energy

b)

a rechargeable battery that stores and releases energy

c)

a pan that carries coal

d)

a hammer that helps break apart water molecules

80.

During photosynthesis, how is the light energy that strikes the cell transformed into the chemical energy contained in sugars?

a)

Energy is transferred directly to sugars, with no intermediates.

b)

Energy is transferred to sugars through intermediates such as H2O, O2, and CO2.

c)

Energy is transferred to sugars through intermediates, such as ATP and NADPH.

d)

Energy is transferred to sugars through light-dependent reactions.

81.

Which statement accurately describes the role of the light-independent reactions?

a)

transforming light energy into chemical energy

b)

transferring chemical energy to high-energy sugars

c)

returning chemical energy to light energy

d)

transferring light energy among different compounds

82.

Which of the following describes the role of photosynthesis in the carbon cycle?

a)

storage of carbon in the atmosphere

b)

storage of carbon in the geosphere

c)

transfer of carbon from the hydrosphere to the atmosphere

d)

transfer of carbon from the atmosphere to the biosphere

83.

Photosynthesis can be modeled by its overall chemical reaction. Which two compounds are the inputs, or reactants, of this reaction?

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

water and oxygen

84.

What is the relationship between the light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions?

a)

The light-dependent reactions depend on the light-independent reactions for energy that is transferred by ATP and NADPH.

b)

The light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions both convert energy from the sun to chemical energy.

c)

High-energy electrons are transferred from the light-independent reactions to the light-dependent reactions.

d)

Energy in the form of ATP and NADPH is transferred from the light-dependent reactions to carbohydrates in the light-independent reactions.

85.

Photosynthesis converts light energy to stored chemical energy. What best describes the role of molecular oxygen (O2) in this process?

a)

an essential reactant that is used to make sugars

b)

an optional reactant; its presence speeds up the process

c)

the main product that stores chemical energy for use by the organism

d)

a byproduct that is released into the atmosphere

86.

The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis involve atoms of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Which statement describes the role of carbon atoms in these reactions?

a)

Sugars break apart to form carbon dioxide.

b)

Sugars combine with carbon dioxide, and release oxygen as a waste gas.

c)

Carbon atoms from ATP are combined to form sugars.

d)

Carbon atoms from carbon dioxide are combined to form sugars.

87.

What BEST describes the role of water molecules in the chemical reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Water molecules are an intermediate of photosynthesis; they absorb light and pass the energy to chlorophyll.

b)

Water molecules are an intermediate of photosynthesis; they are part of the electron transport chain.

c)

Water molecules are an input of photosynthesis; they split apart and supply electrons to chlorophyll.

d)

Water molecules are an output of photosynthesis; they are released at the end of the electron transport chain.

88.

During photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions supply ATP to the light-independent reactions. How is ATP used in the light-independent reactions?

a)

ATP provides the hydrogen atoms that are incorporated into sugars.

b)

ATP provides the carbon and oxygen atoms that are incorporated into sugars.

c)

ATP provides the chemical energy for the reactions to occur.

d)

ATP receives the chemical energy that the reactions release.

89.

The enzyme ATP synthase is a protein that contains a small channel. How is the movement of hydrogen ions through the channel useful in the function of the enzyme?

a)

Some of the hydrogen ions combine with ATP to form the enzyme.

b)

Some of the hydrogen ions are combined with ADP to form ATP.

c)

The movement of hydrogen ions provides the energy for the reaction that breaks apart ATP.

d)

The movement of hydrogen ions provides the energy for the reaction that forms ATP.

90.

A student traced the recurrence of a widow’s peak hairline in her family. Based on her interviews and observations, she drew the pedigree shown below.

Which pattern of inheritance is consistent with the pedigree?

a)

sex-linked

b)

multiple alleles

c)

codominant alleles

d)

dominant alleles

91.

Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant allele for a protein found in brain cells. The symptoms of Huntington’s disease include mental deterioration and uncontrollable movements. Symptoms do not usually appear until middle age. How could a doctor determine the chances that a patient would have Huntington’s disease?

a)

By identifying if the patient’s parents carry the dominant allele for Huntington’s disease.

b)

By identifying if the patient is married to a person that exhibits symptoms of Huntington’s disease.

c)

By identifying if the patient had been in close contact with someone that exhibits symptoms of Huntington’s disease.

d)

By identifying if the patient had been in close contact with someone that carries the dominant allele for Huntington’s disease.

92.

In 2008, the U.S. Congress passed the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act. This act makes it illegal for insurance companies and employers to discriminate based on information from genetic tests. Which of the following was most likely a concern that led to passage of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act?

a)

Insurance companies might identify where a person lives.

b)

Insurance companies might charge unreasonable rates for genetic tests.

c)

Insurance companies might try to alter a person’s DNA.

d)

Insurance companies might deny a person insurance based on his or her chances of developing a disease.

93.

How do alleles that display codominance differ from alleles that display simple dominance?

a)

If two alleles are codominant then both alleles will be expressed in heterozygotes.

b)

If two alleles are codominant then the heterozygous phenotype will be somewhere between the homozygous phenotypes.

c)

If two alleles display simple dominance then only the recessive allele will be observed in heterozygotes.

d)

If two alleles display simple dominance then neither allele will be observed in heterozygotes.

94.

A legislator argues that laws to protect the privacy of an individual’s DNA are not necessary. The legislator claims that sequencing DNA is a slow, expensive process that is prone to errors, and therefore will be done only rarely and for special circumstances.

Which is the strongest counter argument against the legislator’s claim?

a)

Your claim is accurate. However, despite the expense and difficulty, DNA sequencing continues to be performed regularly.

b)

Your claim is false. DNA cannot be sequenced by existing technology.

c)

Your claim is accurate, but not relevant. DNA is analyzed indirectly, without sequencing.

d)

Your claim is out of date. DNA sequencing is now very fast, inexpensive, and reliable.

95.

Serious genetic disorders include cystic fibrosis and Sickle cell disease. What determines whether a person has a genetic disorder?

a)

epigenetic factors from the environment

b)

whether defective genes were inherited from the parents

c)

the person’s behavior, such as choices in diet and exercise

d)

random events that occur during the person’s growth and development

96.

In 2003, scientists completed the Human Genome Project, in which they completed the mapping of the human genome. Which is one way that the Human Genome Project, along with later mapping efforts, has affected the individual and society?

a)

Individuals may now modify their genes to prevent acquired diseases, such as bacterial infections.

b)

Individuals may now modify their genes to alter traits such as height, eye color, and hair color.

c)

Individuals may now select which genes to activate or deactivate.

d)

Individuals may now have their DNA analyzed to determine ancestry.

97.

Which member of the family MUST be a carrier of the trait?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

98.

A student concludes that the same pedigree could also apply to an X-linked recessive trait. Is the student’s conclusion accurate?

a)

Yes, because only a few family members express the trait.

b)

Yes, because more females than males express the trait.

c)

No, because individual C would need to express the trait for his daughter to inherit it.

d)

No, because individual A would need to express the trait for any of his descendants to inherit it.

99.

A fetus is a developing baby before birth. Parents are now able to have a karyotype analyzed for a fetus. Based on this analysis, what information can parents learn about their baby?

a)

a variety of physical traits, including hair color and eye color

b)

the likelihood of acquiring certain diseases, such as diabetes and cancer

c)

the presence or absence of a chromosomal disorder, such as Down syndrome

d)

the developmental age of the fetus, and the approximate date when the baby will be born

100.

According to the cladogram, which of these organisms appeared before all the others?

a)

mosses

b)

a plant with vascular tissue

c)

an organism that developed from an embryo

d)

a plant that made seeds

101.

What conclusion about flowers is supported by the evidence in the cladogram?

a)

Flowers evolved more recently than seeds and vascular tissue.

b)

Most plants alive today produce flowers.

c)

Flowers are a trait of living plant species, but not extinct species.

d)

Flowers evolved from cone-bearing plants.

102.

Two students are studying plants to determine the closest relatives to cone-bearing plants. Which conclusion could they make based on the cladogram?

a)

Cone-bearing plants are most closely related to ferns because they both have vascular tissues.

b)

Cone-bearing plants are most closely related to ferns because they share the most recent common ancestor

c)

Cone-bearing plants are most closely related to flowering plants because they both have flowers.

d)

Cone-bearing plants are most closely related to flowering plants because they share the most recent common ancestor.

103.

Compared to the Linnaean system of classification, what is the advantage of classifying species into clades?

a)

Clades show evolutionary relationships.

b)

Clades identify domains and kingdoms.

c)

Clades group single-celled organisms separately from multicellular organisms.

d)

Clades include more species.

104.

All organisms in the kingdom Fungi can be described by which of these characteristics?

a)

cell walls made of cellulose

b)

cell walls made of chitin

c)

autotrophic

d)

multicellular

105.

Scientists struggled with classifying red pandas and giant pandas because they have physical similarities to both raccoons and bears. How has the availability of DNA evidence affected the evolutionary classification of organisms such as the pandas?

a)

Organisms with the most shared derived genetic characters are considered the most closely related.

b)

Organisms with the most shared derived genetic characters are classified in the most clades.

c)

Derived genetic characters can be used to identify evolutionary relationships, but only if organisms have some shared physical characteristics.

d)

DNA analysis has confirmed species classifications based on derived physical characters, but no new classifications have been suggested.

106.

Scientists once classified a diverse group of eukaryotic species into kingdom Protista. However, in modern evolutionary classification, protists are not grouped together in their own clade, and the concept of kingdom Protista has little meaning.

Which statement about protists explains its revised classification?

a)

All protists evolved from a common eukaryotic ancestor.

b)

The common ancestor of protists gave rise to many other types of eukaryotes.

c)

Although most protists are unicellular, some species are multicellular.

d)

Traits evolved in protists that do not appear in other eukaryotic species.

107.

Vanessa is studying 6 species of butterflies, which she codes with the letters A to F. She constructs the cladogram, shown below, to describe the evolutionary relationship among the species. The five labeled dots represent derived characters that Vanessa identified. Assume that none of the derived characters were lost in the evolutionary lineages.

If Vanessa’s cladogram is accurate, then it supports which statement about the 6 butterfly species?

a)

The species evolved in the alphabetical order of their labels, from A to F.

b)

In any pair of the 6 species, about the same number of DNA sequences are shared.

c)

The genomes of species C and D have more similarities than the genomes of species B and C, or species D and E.

d)

The genomes of the 6 species share few, if any, DNA sequences.

108.

Scientists now classify all species into three domains. The domains Archaea and Bacteria contain prokaryotic, single-celled organisms. The domain Eukarya contains eukaryotic organisms, including plants, animals, and fungi. Each domain is a valid clade.

Which statement can be concluded about all species in domain Eukarya?

a)

Their most recent common ancestor was either archaea or bacteria.

b)

Their most recent common ancestor was neither archaea nor bacteria.

c)

They descended from several prokaryotic ancestors that were unrelated to one another.

d)

They descended from several eukaryotic ancestors that were unrelated to one another.

109.

Which information about two species can be concluded from their classification into clades, but not their classification in the Linnaean system of taxa?

a)

the niches they fill in habitats

b)

their different physical traits

c)

their similar physical traits

d)

their shared evolutionary history

110.

Primary growth and secondary growth both contribute to the growth of plants. Some of the tissues involved in plant growth are shown in the illustration below.

How does cell division in the vascular cambium contribute to plant growth?

a)

Division in the vascular cambium gives rise to new layers of the cortex, which result in thin, flat leaves.

b)

Division in the vascular cambium gives rise to new layers of pith, which result in new stem buds.

c)

Division in the vascular cambium gives rise to new layers of xylem and phloem, which result in a thicker stem.

d)

Division in the vascular cambium gives rise to new layers of vascular cambium, which result in a stronger stem.

111.

A plant pumps mineral ions into its root cells. Which of the following describes one of the functions of these ions?

a)

The ions allow water to enter the roots by osmosis.

b)

The ions absorb light so the plant can carry out photosynthesis.

c)

The ions form the apical meristem, where water is absorbed.

d)

The ions are stored in the ground tissue to provide support for the plant.

112.

Kate places her new houseplant near a window in her room. After a few weeks she notices the plant stems are bent toward the window. Which of the following explains how the stems are able to bend?

a)

Cytokinin stimulates cell division on the sunny side of the plant’s roots.

b)

Abscisic acid inhibits cell division on the sunny side of stems.

c)

Gibberella fujikuroi stimulates the plant to grow unusually tall.

d)

Auxin stimulates cell elongation on the shady side of the stems.

113.

Which of following correctly matches a plant’s structure to its function in the plant?

a)

Most leaves have a thin, flat shape for absorbing light.

b)

Most stems have tiny hairs for absorbing water.

c)

Monocots have clusters of vascular bundles for exchanging gases.

d)

Young plants have a waxy layer for protecting against loss of oxygen.

114.

An environmental scientist is concerned about the reduced biodiversity of farm crops due to modern agricultural practices. Which would be the most effective solution to safeguard against a loss of biodiversity?

a)

concentrating on a few crops to plant every year

b)

developing hybrid crops that improve yields

c)

establishing a seed bank to preserve wild relatives of farm crops

d)

draining wetlands for use as farm land

115.

Water is carried from the roots up to the leaves in xylem. What are the two primary mechanisms that allow plants to transport water to great heights?

a)

transpiration in the roots and evaporation in the leaves

b)

active transport in the xylem and photosynthesis in the leaves

c)

capillary action in the xylem and transpiration in the leaves

d)

thigmotropism in the xylem and evaporation in the leaves

116.

The embryo in a seed develops and grows to a certain point and then stops. When the environment is right, growth resumes and the dormant seed begins to grow again. What two hormones control seed dormancy?

a)

abscisic acid promotes dormancy and gibberellins stimulate growth

b)

ethylene stimulates growth and auxins promote dormancy

c)

cytokinins stimulate growth and ethylene promotes dormancy

d)

cytokinins promote dormancy and abscisic acid stimulates growth

117.

Between 1950 and 1970 the green revolution greatly increased the world’s food supply. The green revolution brought an end to food shortages in many countries. What two factors were key to the green revolution?

a)

organic farming and heirloom varieties

b)

slash-and-burn practices and monocultures

c)

seed banks and natural fertilizers

d)

artificial fertilizers and high-yield seeds

118.

Plant roots are often covered with thin cellular projections called root hairs. Which of the following is the primary function of root hairs?

a)

reaching into the soil to support the plant

b)

increasing the plant’s rate of gas exchange

c)

providing a large surface area for absorption

d)

returning unused nutrients to the soil

119.

One way that plants maintain homeostasis is by using their stomata to regulate gas exchange. How is the opening and closing of the stomata related to photosynthesis?

a)

The stomata are open when there is light and photosynthesis is taking place, allowing gas exchange.

b)

The stomata are closed when there is light and photosynthesis is taking place, allowing water to escape.

c)

The stomata are open when there is light and photosynthesis is not taking place, allowing water to escape.

d)

The stomata are closed when there is no light and photosynthesis is taking place, allowing gas exchange.

120.

What is the significance of the code shown in the diagram?

a)

It describes how DNA is transcribed to RNA.

b)

It describes how RNA is translated to amino acids.

c)

It describes how RNA is translated to genes.

d)

It describes how proteins are translated to RNA.

121.

Two scientists are both studying RNA. One scientist is studying RNA in mice and the other is studying RNA in E. coli bacteria. Which of the following best describes how each scientist would use a genetic code?

a)

Both scientists would use the same genetic code because all organisms have RNA.

b)

Both scientists would use the same genetic code because in all organisms the code is read three bases at a time and in the same direction.

c)

The scientist studying mice would use the genetic code for mice and the scientist studying E. coli would use the genetic code for E. coli because mice are more complex multicellular organisms.

d)

The scientist studying mice would use the genetic code for eukaryotes and the scientist studying E. coli would use the genetic code for prokaryotes because they each have different types of chromosomes.

122.

Suppose a cell had normal messenger RNA (mRNA) but no functioning transfer RNA (tRNA). How would this affect translation?

a)

The cell would be able to make mRNA but would not be able to make amino acids.

b)

The cell would not be able to synthesize proteins because it would not be able to assemble ribosomes.

c)

The cell would be able to carry instructions to ribosomes for coding proteins but would not be able to synthesize proteins.

d)

The cell would be able to transcribe DNA to RNA but would not be able to carry instructions to ribosomes for coding proteins.

123.

Howard is explaining the process by which DNA determines the structure of proteins. His explanation includes this statement.

“The base pair sequence of a gene determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein.”

Howard’s teacher evaluates this statement, and her critique is that the statement is not accurate in all circumstances. Which feature of gene expression provides the strongest evidence for the teacher’s critique?

a)

During translation, molecules of tRNA bind to specific codons and amino acids.

b)

Introns are removed from pre-mRNA, and then the exons are joined together.

c)

RNA transcriptase binds to a promoter region before transcription occurs.

d)

Gene expression may be controlled by epigenetic mechanisms.

124.

As a result of a point mutation, the base cytosine (C) was replaced by adenine (A) in a sequence of mRNA. Under which circumstance does this mutation cause the protein to be significantly shorter?

a)

The mutation introduced a stop codon into the middle of the mRNA molecule.

b)

The mutation changed the genetic code used during translation.

c)

The mutation occurred in a region of mRNA that is not translated.

d)

The mutation introduced a start codon in the middle of the mRNA molecule.

125.

A scientist develops a computer model of gene expression. However, the model does not include introns and exons. Which is the most likely result of a simulation that is based on this model?

a)

Genes are not transcribed into mRNA.

b)

Pre-mRNA is not edited, and is used as mRNA.

c)

Transcription occurs normally, but some errors occur during translation.

d)

Transcription occurs normally, but mRNA is not translated into proteins.

126.

Professor Marcus has identified a new species of beetle in the Amazon Rainforest. The professor then investigates the process of gene expression in the cells of the beetle. Which is an expected result of the investigation?

a)

The processes of transcription and translation are unique in the beetle.

b)

The process of translation in the beetle is similar to other organisms, but involves a unique genetic code.

c)

The process of transcription in the beetle is similar to other organisms, but involves a unique set of nucleic acids in mRNA.

d)

The processes of transcription and translation, including the genetic code, are the same in the beetle as in nearly all other organisms.

127.

Daphne identifies the entire sequence of nucleotides in a gene. Based on this information and the genetic code, she predicts the sequence of amino acids in the protein that the gene codes for. What is the MOST LIKELY reason that Daphne’s prediction would be incorrect?

a)

The gene codes for a carbohydrate, and not a protein.

b)

A mutation changes the genetic code that the cell uses.

c)

The cell removes introns from pre-mRNA.

d)

The cell removes introns from DNA.

128.

Proteins are assembled at ribosomes using mRNA as a template. Which property of tRNA allows it to assist in this process?

a)

Each of many tRNA molecules contains an anticodon, and it may bind to any amino acid.

b)

Each of many tRNA molecules contains an anticodon, and it binds to a specific amino acid.

c)

One tRNA molecule contains all of the anticodons and binds to all of the amino acids that are specific for the protein.

d)

One tRNA molecule contains all of the codons and binds to all of the nucleotides that are specific for the protein.

129.

Several differences between DNA and RNA allow the cell to differentiate between the two molecules, ensuring that transcription and translation occur appropriately. Which is one of the properties of RNA that differentiates it from DNA?

a)

RNA includes phosphate groups instead of nitrogenous groups.

b)

RNA is double stranded instead of single stranded.

c)

RNA contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

d)

RNA contains cytosine (C) instead of guanine (G).

130.

The development of the male reproductive system occurs in coordination with other human systems. Which of the following is an example of this coordination?

a)

The endocrine system releases the hormone testosterone.

b)

The muscular system strengthens the uterine wall.

c)

The circulatory system restricts blood flow to the testes.

d)

The excretory system removes urea from the blood.

131.

If a clot were to form in the pulmonary artery, how would this affect other systems?

a)

Blood flow from the heart to the lungs would be reduced.

b)

Blood flow from the heart to body tissues would be reduced.

c)

Blood flow from the lungs to body tissues would increase.

d)

Blood flow from the aorta to the arms and legs would increase.

132.

The human brain contains different regions that control specific bodily functions. On a model, how could you identify the region of the brain that is responsible for voluntary activities of the body, intelligence, learning, and judgment?

a)

This region is the thalamus, between the brain stem and cerebrum.

b)

This region is the brain stem, connecting the brain to the spinal cord.

c)

This region is the cerebellum, divided into left and right hemispheres.

d)

This region is the cerebrum, the largest region in the brain.

133.

Human development occurs in a series of stages, or processes. Which of the following best describes the key events that occur during gastrulation?

a)

The blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus and cells begin differentiating.

b)

Cells migrate from the ectoderm to form the mesoderm, resulting in the formation of three cell layers.

c)

A sperm and egg fuse producing a fertilized egg.

d)

Mesodermal tissue differentiates into the notochord and the nervous system develops.

134.

Which of the following is a nonspecific defense against pathogens?

a)

antibodies

b)

killer T cells

c)

humoral immunity

d)

fever

135.

The function of the circulatory system can be affected by a variety of factors, including disease and genetic disorders. Which of the following changes to the circulatory system would cause oxygen-rich blood to mix with oxygen-poor blood, and thus reduce oxygen distribution to all body cells?

a)

Capillary walls thicken slightly in the lungs.

b)

The heart rate increases due to intense exercise.

c)

A hole develops between the two sides of the heart, allowing blood to flow in both directions.

d)

A defect in a heart valve causes some blood to flow from the right ventricle into the right atrium.

136.

The human brain contains different regions that control specific body functions and perform specific tasks. Which describes the location and function of the brainstem?

a)

a large lobe near the center of the brain; controls reasoning and memory

b)

a pair of large lobes along the sides of the brain; coordinates muscular movement

c)

a collection of peripheral nerves that extends down the back; carries sensory information

d)

a relatively thin region at the base of the brain; transfers messages to and from the spinal cord 

137.

The environment affects personal health in many ways. Which statement best describes how infectious diseases can be obtained from the environment?

a)

Infectious diseases are spread mostly by person-to-person contact, and generally not through air, water, or other nonliving parts of the environment.

b)

Infectious diseases are spread mostly through contaminated air or water, and only rarely through person-to-person contact.

c)

Infectious diseases are spread in a wide variety of ways, and may involve either the living or the nonliving parts of the environment.

d)

Infectious diseases generally arise spontaneously in the environment, and are not affected by factors such as temperature or moisture.

138.

Physicians recommend that children receive vaccines against a variety of infectious diseases. Which condition is necessary for the vaccine against polio to provide lifelong immunity?

a)

The child must receive only the polio vaccine, and no other vaccines.

b)

The child must receive many other vaccines that protect against other diseases.

c)

Specific antigens of the virus that causes polio must remain the same over time.

d)

All antigens of the virus that causes polio must change, or mutate, over time.

139.

A group of citizens is debating the need for stricter regulations of mercury, lead, and other heavy metals that can pollute the environment. Which of the following statements is most useful for evaluating the arguments of this debate?

a)

Chemical processes can change toxic metals, such as mercury and lead, into nontoxic metals, such as sodium and potassium.

b)

Heavy metals can accumulate in bodies of water and contaminate food supplies.

c)

The human body relies on small amounts of heavy metals and can remove excess amounts by negative feedback mechanisms.

d)

The human body does not depend on heavy metals but can safely store them in fat, bone, and other tissues.

140.

In 1928 Frederick Griffith did a series of experiments to investigate how certain types of bacteria cause pneumonia. Griffith injected mice with different types of bacteria. The table below summarizes the results of his experiments.

What could be inferred from Griffith’s experiments?

a)

All bacteria cause pneumonia, because all mice that were injected with living bacteria died.

b)

Heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria cause pneumonia, because the mouse injected with these bacteria plus harmless bacteria died.

c)

Harmless bacteria cause pneumonia, because the mouse injected with these bacteria plus heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria died.

d)

The heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria passed something to the harmless bacteria, because the harmless bacteria alone did not cause pneumonia.

141.

Before a cell divides, it must duplicate its DNA. Which of the following best describes DNA replication?

a)

The two strands of a DNA molecule separate, and an exact copy of each strand is synthesized.

b)

The two strands of a DNA molecule separate, and a complementary strand is synthesized from each original strand.

c)

The two strands of a DNA molecule unwind, and an exact copy of one strand is synthesized.

d)

The two strands of a DNA molecule unwind, and a complementary strand is synthesized from one of the original strands.

142.

What characteristic of the structure of DNA allows DNA to carry coded genetic information?

a)

the sequence of nitrogenous bases

b)

the sequence of 5-carbon sugars

c)

the quantity of phosphate groups

d)

the quantity of each type of nitrogenous base

143.

Oswald Avery and his team ran experiments to identify the molecule that caused the transformation that Griffith identified. The results of the experiments showed that transformation could be caused by which type of molecule?

a)

proteins only

b)

DNA only

c)

either proteins or DNA, but not lipids

d)

either proteins, DNA, or lipids

144.

When prokaryotic cells copy their DNA, replication begins at

a)

a single point on the chromosome.

b)

opposite ends of the DNA molecule.

c)

dozens to hundreds of points along the DNA molecule.

d)

the telomere, at the tip of the chromosome.

145.

A scientist used a radioactive isotope of nitrogen to label the nitrogenous bases of the DNA in bacterial cells. The labeled cells were then allowed to grow and divide for one generation in a medium of non-radioactive nitrogen.

Where is the radioactive nitrogen in the DNA of the cells?

a)

distributed evenly among all of the DNA

b)

in both strands of the DNA of half of the cells

c)

in one strand of the DNA of half of the cells

d)

in one strand of the DNA of all of the cells

146.

Copies of the enzyme DNA polymerase work together to synthesize DNA. Why are two copies of the enzyme necessary at each replication fork?

a)

One copy breaks apart the original DNA molecule, and the other copy synthesizes two complementary strands.

b)

One copy synthesizes two complementary strands, and the second copy edits or corrects the new strands if necessary.

c)

Each copy attaches to one strand, and each synthesizes a complementary strand.

d)

Both copies attach to the same strand, where they work together to synthesize the complementary strand.

147.

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive phosphorus was used to label and track the DNA of a bacteriophage. Why was phosphorus, and not another element in DNA, the best choice for the radioactive label in this experiment?

a)

Phosphorus atoms form strong bonds with other atoms.

b)

Phosphorus readily forms compounds with other elements.

c)

Phosphorus is part of DNA, but not proteins.

d)

Phosphorus is part of both DNA and proteins.

148.

How could fossils like the ones shown support the theory of evolution?

a)

Fossil evidence supports the hypothesis that evolution can occur at different rates in different clades.

b)

Fossil evidence supports the hypothesis that populations evolve to adapt to a changing environment.

c)

Fossil evidence provides a complete record of the organisms that once lived and are ancestors to other organisms.

d)

Fossil evidence provides information on the allele frequency in ancestral populations.

149.

At the end of the Permian Period, a mass extinction occurred known as “The Great Dying.” How do mass extinctions affect the rate of evolutionary change?

a)

Organisms that survive mass extinctions evolve rapidly because they face limited competition.

b)

Organisms evolve slowly after mass extinctions because the environment has often changed significantly.

c)

Organisms do not evolve after mass extinctions because they do not face competition from other species.

d)

Evolutionary change occurs slowly after mass extinctions because a large number of species have become extinct over a relatively short time.

150.

Mitochondria provide evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved through endosymbiosis. What features of mitochondria support this theory?

a)

Mitochondria have been found throughout the fossil record.

b)

Mitochondria contain their own DNA and are similar in size to bacteria.

c)

Cells that contain mitochondria also contain chloroplasts and chloroplast membranes are similar to bacterial membranes.

d)

Mitochondria can be produced when sparks of electricity are passed through an environment of gases similar to the conditions of early Earth.

151.

Franklin is constructing an explanation for how mammals evolved by adaptive radiation from a single ancestral mammal species. What evidence would be most useful for Franklin to cite in support of this explanation?

a)

The trait of flight evolved independently in insects, birds, and mammals such as bats, making it an example of convergent evolution.

b)

Like other vertebrate groups, mammals have four limbs that are attached symmetrically to the spine.

c)

Sixty-five million years ago, a mass extinction killed the dinosaurs and many other species, which let the surviving species evolve quickly and diversify.

d)

The first mammals evolved in the Mesozoic Era, where they lived with dinosaurs.

152.

Lily observes that tree frogs and green anoles are both able to climb tree trunks. Based on evidence that she researches, she concludes that their tree-climbing ability is an example of convergent evolution. Which evidence most strongly supports this conclusion?

a)

The most recent common ancestor of the two species was able to climb trees.

b)

The most recent common ancestor of the two species was not able to climb trees.

c)

Other species of both frogs and anoles are able to climb trees.

d)

Both species have adaptations in their toe pads that allow them to climb trees.

153.

A certain species of orchid has flowers that are in the shape of a long tube. Which most likely was a necessary condition for the evolution of this shape of flower?

a)

evolution in another orchid species of flowers with a similar tube-like shape

b)

a variety of insect species that visit the orchid flower and pollinate it.

c)

genetic uniformity of the orchid species, which allowed evolution to occur

d)

coevolution in a moth species of a feeding tube that fits inside the flower

154.

Scientists use several concepts to explain patterns of evolutionary change. Which evidence would be most useful for identifying a pattern of punctuated equilibrium in an evolutionary lineage?

a)

Similar bone structures among mammal species alive today

b)

An identical genetic code in use among all species alive today

c)

Fossil sequences that show gradual changes over long spans of geologic time

d)

Fossil sequences that show rapid changes over brief spans of geologic time

155.

In the Miller-Urey experiment, a variety of inorganic gases were mixed in a chamber. The gases were chosen to mimic Earth’s early atmosphere. A spark of electricity was passed through the chamber. The gases reacted to form amino acids and other simple organic molecules.

How does the Miller-Urey experiment relate to the history of life on Earth?

a)

It provides strong evidence for the mechanism by which the first living things evolved.

b)

It suggests a mechanism by which compounds that are essential for life were first assembled.

c)

It provides evidence against the hypothesis that life evolved from non-living compounds.

d)

It is unrelated to the history of life on Earth because living things were always present in oceans and on land.

156.

Endosymbiotic theory is most useful for explaining which of these observations?

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA and make some of their own proteins.

b)

Like other organelles, mitochondria and chloroplasts cannot survive when separated from a cell.

c)

All multicellular organisms are eukaryotic.

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts rely on proteins made in the cytoplasm.

157.

A scientist cites fossil evidence to argue that modern whales evolved from relatively small, land-dwelling mammals. The scientist claims that a variety of fossil findings can be ordered in a sequence that demonstrates the evolutionary lineage.

Which analysis of the fossils would be most useful to support the scientist’s claim?

a)

width and length measurements, which should be the same for homologous bones

b)

mineralization analysis, which would identify the specific minerals in each fossils

c)

radiometric dating, which would show the absolute age of each fossil

d)

biogeography, which should show that all the species lived in the same region.

158.

Which of the following is a situation that could cause evolutionary change that is NOT due to natural selection?

a)

A volcano erupts and kills many individuals in a population.

b)

A mutation produces sea stars that are less visible to predators.

c)

An insecticide is sprayed in a community to combat mosquitoes.

d)

Cattle are treated with antibiotics to prevent the spread of infections.

159.

Which of the following is most likely to have caused the change in the distribution?

a)

A new predator arrived that preferred dark-tan crabs.

b)

A new predator arrived that preferred light-tan crabs.

c)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the least visible to predators.

d)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the most visible to predators.

160.

A population that is isolated in a remote environment is still able to experience genetic variation. How could genetic variation that contributes to evolution occur in such a population?

a)

A mutation in a liver cell produces liver cancer.

b)

Lateral gene transfer occurs that produces an organism that is less resistant to drought.

c)

A mutation in an egg cell causes a change in DNA that produces an organism that is more sensitive to sunlight.

d)

A mistake in DNA replication before meiosis produces an organism that is better able to outrun predators.

161.

Scientists want to estimate the time when two species began evolving separately from a common ancestor. What would be the most useful strategy for calculating this estimate?

a)

comparing DNA sequences from each species for different genes

b)

comparing DNA sequences from each species for the same genes

c)

comparing the length, size, or weight of an average member of each species

d)

identifying the traits of the common ancestor

162.

Natural and artificial selection depend on genetic and phenotypic variation. In natural selection, the selective pressure comes from the environment and in artificial selection, it comes from the human breeder. Suppose a breeder of pigeons has a population of birds with feather pigments that range from light, to intermediate, to dark. She selectively breeds the pigeons with intermediate pigmentation.

In what way will the phenotypes of her pigeons shift after a number of generations?

a)

disruptive selection, in which pigeons with dark pigmentation are favored

b)

stabilizing selection, in which pigeons with intermediate pigmentation are favored

c)

directional selection, in which pigeons with dark pigmentation are favored

d)

directional selection, in which pigeons with intermediate pigmentation are favored

163.

Scientists apply the concept of a molecular clock to estimate the time two species evolved separately.

Which data are most useful for the estimation?

a)

common traits of the two species

b)

homologies among the two species

c)

DNA sequence differences between the two species

d)

DNA fingerprinting of common fossils

164.

Which of the following most likely causes the changes in allele distribution?

a)

The allele for light gray coloration disappears from the population. This may be because light gray lizards are more visible to predators and therefore they might be less likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

The allele for black coloration decreases fitness and becomes less common. This may be because black coloration keeps the lizards cool during hot summer temperatures.

c)

Medium gray coloration in lizards appears to be a neutral mutant allele that allows the lizards to hide better from predators. This leads to increases in phenotypes and allele frequency of gray coloration.

d)

Because black and medium gray lizards are less visible to predators, these alleles are neutral to natural selection and therefore will not disappear from the population of lizards.

165.

Mutations are one way that genetic variation is introduced within a species.

Which statement describes the role of mutations in evolution?

a)

Mutations that result in adaptations that improve an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce affect natural selection.

b)

Mutations that lower fitness by decreasing an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce do not affect natural selection.

c)

Mutations do not occur in egg and sperm cells when they affect evolution through natural selection.

d)

Mutations must occur in body cells to be passed on to the next generation and affect evolution by natural selection.

166.

Researchers used DNA sequencing techniques to find similarities of Hox genes in roundworms, arthropods, mollusks, echinoderms, cephalochordates, and vertebrates.

What did they find out about these genes?

a)

Differences among Hox genes suggest that they all arose from diverse ancestral genes that duplicated many times.

b)

Similarities among Hox genes suggest that they all arose from different ancestral genes that divided many times.

c)

Hox genes are regulatory genes that determine body plans of animals, but they function differently in different groups of species.

d)

Many animals have Hox genes, suggesting that Hox genes arose early in animal evolution and provide information about evolutionary relationships.

167.

Grass plants in a population range in height from 6 cm to 25 cm. The short plants receive little sunlight, and the tall plants are eaten by grazing animals. Which statement best describes the effect of natural selection on the grasses?

a)

Because average height grass plants are favored, stabilizing natural selection is occurring.

b)

Because average height grass plants are favored, disruptive natural selection is occurring.

c)

Because tall grass plants are favored by the animals that eat grass, directional selection is occurring.

d)

Because short and tall grass plants are favored, normal natural selection is occurring.

168.

In a model summarizing cellular respiration, which of the following must be represented as raw materials, or the reactants of the process?

a)

glucose and carbon dioxide

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

oxygen and lactic acid

169.

Which statement best describes an event that contributes to the production of ATP?

a)

Pyruvic acid is broken down to form carbon dioxide.

b)

Oxygen molecules are broken down and converted into pyruvic acid.

c)

High-energy electrons are passed to NAD+ forming NADH.

d)

Carbon atoms in glucose are transferred to ADP, forming ATP.

170.

During glycolysis, what is the source of the chemical energy that is captured in ATP?

a)

the chemical bonds in pyruvic acid

b)

the chemical bonds in glucose

c)

the nuclei of atoms in glucose

d)

high-energy electrons in the cytoplasm

171.

What best describes the role of molecular oxygen (O2) in aerobic respiration?

a)

It accepts electrons when reacting to form water.

b)

It combines with carbon and hydrogen to form glucose.

c)

It is released when glucose breaks apart.

d)

It reacts to form carbon dioxide and water.

172.

Which is a role of cellular respiration in cycling materials between the atmosphere and the biosphere?

a)

It transfers carbon to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

b)

It transfers carbon to the biosphere as glucose.

c)

It transfers oxygen gas to the atmosphere.

d)

It transfers water from the atmosphere to the biosphere.

173.

Compared to aerobic respiration, the process of fermentation provides which of these advantages to the cell?

a)

Fermentation can occur without glucose.

b)

Fermentation can occur without producing wastes.

c)

Fermentation produces more ATP per glucose molecule.

d)

Fermentation can occur without oxygen.

174.

Given that almost all organisms obtain energy from food by the process of cellular respiration, which is the most likely explanation for what prevents Earth from running out of oxygen?

a)

The net effects of the reactions of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are the opposite of one another, therefore the produces of one are the reactants of the other, creating a cycle.

b)

The energy flow—and thus oxygen flow—for cellular respiration and photosynthesis take place in the same direction, and therefore build upon one another.

c)

Cellular respiration is a process that releases energy and oxygen, while photosynthesis withdraws energy and uses oxygen, therefore keeping each process in balance.

d)

Oxygen readily accepts electrons, so cellular respiration uses a negligible amount of oxygen.

175.

Cells rely on compounds that readily store and release energy. Which statement describes how energy storage and release occurs in cells?

a)

The Krebs cycle serves to store energy and make it readily available for cell functiond

b)

ATP attracts an additional phosphate group and stores energy in the form of ADP.

c)

ATP stores energy and releases it as it reverts back to ADP.

d)

The electron transport chain stores energy in the bonds of NAD+ and releases it as NAD+ reverts back to NADH.

176.

Juan is creating a model of aerobic cellular respiration. Which of the following should he identify as products of the process?

a)

glucose, NADH, and carbon dioxide

b)

glucose, FAD, and oxygen

c)

water, ATP, and lactic acid

d)

water, ATP, and carbon dioxide

177.

Which is a primary function of glucose molecules?

a)

to make up the structure of cell membranes

b)

to act as a catalyst for chemical reactions

c)

to encode genetic information

d)

to provide energy for cell activities

178.

What structural feature does glucose share with larger carbohydrates?

a)

a ratio of 1 carbon atom to 2 hydrogen atoms to 1 oxygen atom

b)

the presence of double covalent bonds between carbon atoms

c)

strong bonds between carbon atoms that cannot be broken

d)

ionic bonds between carbon atoms and oxygen atoms

179.

Roger is comparing a model of a sugar molecule to a model of an amino acid. Which of the following evidence statements would be supported by the two models?

a)

Sugars and amino acids are made of exactly the same elements.

b)

Sugars and amino acids have the same structure.

c)

Sugars and amino acids are made of the same elements except amino acids also contain nitrogen.

d)

Sugars and amino acids are made of the same elements except sugars also contain phosphorus.

180.

Many cells make and use an enzyme, called catalase, to facilitate the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). The products of the decomposition are hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2).

What is the effect of catalase on the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide?

a)

It decreases the activation energy needed to start the reaction.

b)

It decreases the total energy released by the reaction.

c)

It increases the total energy absorbed by the reaction.

d)

It changes the ratio of the amounts of the two products.

181.

Which of these changes to the cell would cause the greatest reduction in the activity of catalase?

a)

a decrease in the concentration of hydrogen and oxygen

b)

an increase in the concentration of hydrogen peroxide

c)

an increase or decrease in pH beyond normal range

d)

a return of pH to the normal range

182.

Water has many special properties, such as a high heat capacity and cohesive behavior. Which of the following best explains why water has these properties?

a)

The atoms of a water molecule are held together by ionic bonds.

b)

Water is polar and forms hydrogen bonds.

c)

Water is a weak acid and acts as a buffer.

d)

Water molecules join together to form polymers.

183.

Lee and Marisol are conducting a science experiment to identify different kinds of macromolecules in food. They prepare the following table to help them remember the chemical reactions that indicate the presence of each type of macromolecule they’re studying.

Suppose that one of the substances they’re testing turns bright red when they add a few drops of Sudan stain. What is the basic molecular structure of the substance?

a)

glycerol combined with long chains of fatty acids

b)

strings of amino acids held together with peptide bonds

c)

short carbon chain or ring in which the ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen is 1:2:1

d)

polymer made up of many monosaccharides

184.

How does a polymer of nucleotides encode genetic information?

a)

by the sequence of nitrogenous bases

b)

by the sequence of 5-carbon sugars

c)

by attaching sulfur groups to the phosphate groups

d)

by attaching carbohydrates to the 5-carbon sugars

185.

A group of students is identifying organisms. Which of the following is a characteristic they could use to differentiate an animal from a plant?

a)

ability to respond to stimuli

b)

presence of cell walls

c)

presence of membrane-bound organelles

d)

presence of specialized cells

186.

Based on the cladogram, which anatomical feature do modern humans and trout share with a common ancestor?

a)

backbone

b)

placenta

c)

four limbs

d)

amniotic egg

187.

Fossil records provide evidence for the scientific theory of evolution. Based on the fossil record, which is the correct order for the appearance of true bone, jaws, notochords, and vertebrae in chordate evolution?

a)

true bone, notochord, jaws, vertebrae

b)

true bone, notochord, vertebrae, jaws

c)

notochord, true bone, vertebrae, jaws

d)

notochord, vertebrae, jaws, true bones

188.

Modern mammals are divided into three groups— monotremes, marsupials, and placentals. What characteristics are used to classify mammals into these groups?

a)

their means of reproduction and development

b)

the presence or absence of a notochord

c)

the number of their fossils that have been discovered

d)

the presence or absence of mammary glands

189.

Between 6 and 7 million years ago, the lineage that led to hominins split from the lineage that led to chimpanzees. Which of the following best describes one of the way hominins evolved?

a)

Hominins evolved a smaller skull and smaller brain capable of designing tools.

b)

Hominins evolved an opposable thumb that enabled hands to grasp objects.

c)

Hominins evolved shoulder bones that enabled them to walk faster on all four limbs.

d)

Hominins evolved more chromosomes that enabled them to reason and solve problems.

190.

Fernando notices that his cats run to him when he uses the electric can opener. What type of behavior are his cats exhibiting?

a)

habituation

b)

classical conditioning

c)

operant conditioning

d)

insight learning

191.

Scientists use cladograms like this one to illustrate evolutionary relationships. The cladogram is based on hemoglobin polypeptide homology data of human hemoglobin polypeptide compared to that of five other species. The macaque has eight amino acid differences whereas the lamprey has 125 amino acid differences with human hemoglobin polypeptide.

Based on the cladogram, what is the order of relatedness of these species to humans?

a)

The macaque is the closest species related to humans, then the dog, bird, frog, and lamprey.

b)

The lamprey is the closest species related to humans, then the frog, bird, dog, and macaque.

c)

The bird is the closest species related to humans, then the dog, lamprey, macaque, and frog.

d)

The dog is the closest species related to humans, then the lamprey, frog, macaque, and bird.

192.

Fossil records provide evidence for the scientific theory of evolution. The table shows data with which to construct a cladogram of these eight species.

Which statement is most strongly supported by the data?

a)

This table provides data for six clades, each clade sharing a common ancestor that evolved a derived character.

b)

Although all the animals have a notochord in their embryo stages, they might not share a common ancestor

c)

This table provides data for eight clades, each sharing a common ancestor that evolved two or more derived characters.

d)

This table provides data for eight clades, each sharing a common ancestor that evolved two or more derived characters

193.

Which of the following describes some of the adaptations that evolved in hominins?

a)

The skull, neck, spinal column, hip bones, and leg bones evolved in ways that kept hominins walking on four legs.

b)

As the brain evolved, the medulla oblongata and olfactory bulbs became larger and more complex.

c)

An opposable thumb evolved that enabled hominins to grasp objects and use tools.

d)

The skull, neck, spinal column, hip bones, and leg bones evolved in ways that enabled modern humans to remain excellent climbers.

194.

Ants live and work together in highly organized societies called colonies. Each colony includes a queen, her daughters, the workers, and the brood consisting of eggs, larvae, and pupae. During the mating season, new queens and males develop.

What is one evolutionary benefit of an ant colony’s social behavior?

a)

Ants can live either in a large group or independently.

b)

The workers can build a complex nest together.

c)

The workers can interbreed with other insect species.

d)

The workers provide great variation to the gene pool of the colony.

195.

According to the Cell Theory, what is the source of all new cells?

a)

pre-existing cells

b)

compounds of carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen

c)

individual cell parts, such as mitochondria

d)

cytoplasm and similar fluids

196.

Which two types of structures are present in a plant cell, but not an animal cell?

a)

nucleus and chloroplasts

b)

cell membrane and cell wall

c)

chloroplasts and mitochondria

d)

chloroplasts and cell wall

197.

Which type of cell structure is included in all three cells?

a)

a cell membrane made of a lipid bilayer

b)

a nucleus that contains DNA

c)

mitochondria that contain DNA

d)

a cell wall made of cellulose

198.

The cell membrane acts as a barrier between the cell and its environment. Which best describes the type of barrier that the cell membrane forms?

a)

impermeable, like a brick wall

b)

permeable but selective, like a wall with gates

c)

very permeable, like a fishing net

d)

permeable only to water, like a very fine net

199.

The discovery of cells was made possible by the invention of microscopes. Today, several different types of microscopes are used by scientists. Which of the following best describes transmission electron microscopes?

a)

Transmission electron microscopes produce images of cell surfaces.

b)

Transmission electron microscopes produce three-dimensional images of cells.

c)

Transmission electron microscopes produce highly detailed images of cell structures.

d)

Transmission electron microscopes produce images of living cells.

200.

What conclusion about the cells does the data in the table support?

a)

Cell 1 is from a plant; Cell 2 is from an animal.

b)

Cell 1 is prokaryotic; Cell 2 is from a plant.

c)

Cell 1 is prokaryotic; Cell 2 is from an animal.

d)

Cell 1 is eukaryotic; Cell 2 is prokaryotic.

201.

Which of the following activities occurs in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Proteins are assembled on ribosomes.

b)

A large central vacuole stores DNA and RNA.

c)

Mitochondria provide energy for cell processes.

d)

Chloroplasts capture and transform the energy of sunlight.

202.

Nayla is planning an investigation on the role of osmosis in maintaining homeostasis. She plans to study red blood cells in a liquid suspension, similar to blood plasma.

For Nayla to observe the greatest variety of osmotic activity in the red blood cells, she should test the effect of which of these independent variables?

a)

temperature of the liquid suspension

b)

oxygen concentration of the red blood cells

c)

the number of red blood cells per liter of the liquid suspension

d)

salt concentration of the liquid that surrounds the red blood cells

203.

Stewart is investigating the responses of plants to their environment. As part of the investigation, he studies a plant that receives sufficient water and has straight, upright stems and firm leaves. He also studies another plant that was grown in dry soil, and that has wilted stems and leaves.

When Stewart examines the cells of the plants under a microscope, which organelle will display the greatest difference between the two plants?

a)

the nucleus, because chromosomes thicken in water

b)

the cell membrane, because water diffuses across it

c)

chloroplasts, because photosynthesis depends on water volume

d)

the central vacuole, because it stores water and provides support

204.

A team of science researchers is trying to decide which type of microscope to purchase for their laboratory. Compared to electron microscopes, a light microscope provides which of these drawbacks or disadvantages?

a)

uses electricity

b)

specimens cannot be alive

c)

lower magnification power

d)

more expensive to purchase and operate

205.

Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding plants with green pea pods with true-breeding plants with yellow pea pods. The resulting F1 generation all had green pea pods. What did he observe in the F2 generation?

a)

Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 3:1 ratio because the F1 generation was heterozygous.

b)

Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 4:1 ratio because the allele for green pea pods is dominant.

c)

Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 1:1 ratio because the F2 generation had the same characteristics as the parent generation.

d)

Mendel observed only green pea pods because both parents had green pea pods.

206.

Mitosis and meiosis are two different types of cell division. The model below illustrates anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis.

Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis that is supported by the model?

a)

In anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids separate. In anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate.

b)

Anaphase of mitosis leads to four haploid cells. Anaphase I of meiosis leads to two diploid cells.

c)

Crossing-over occurs after anaphase of mitosis while crossing-over occurs before anaphase I of meiosis.

d)

Chromosomes are not replicated before a cell enters anaphase of mitosis. Chromosomes have replicated before a cell enters anaphase I of meiosis.

207.

A biologist pollinates a true-breeding yellow flower with pollen from a true-breeding red flower of the same species. All of the F1 offspring are yellow. What question can be answered with the F2 cross?

a)

Are yellow flowers maternally inherited?

b)

Are yellow flowers recessive and red flowers dominant?

c)

Are red and yellow flowers codominant?

d)

Is flower color a polygenic trait?

208.

The gene map below shows some of the genes on chromosome 2 of the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster.

Which pair of traits is most likely to be inherited together?

a)

purple eye and brown eye because they are both eye traits

b)

aristaless and speck body because they have the greatest chance of crossing over

c)

curved wing and arc (bent wings) because they have the least chance of crossing-over

d)

black body and light eye because they are closest together on chromosome 2

209.

In pea plants, green peas (G) are dominant over yellow peas (g), and tall height (T) is dominant over short height (t). In a dihybrid cross of the two traits, what is the expected fraction of the offspring that show the recessive form of both traits, meaning they are short and have yellow peas? Assume the traits sort independently of each other.

a)

1/100

b)

1/16

c)

1/8

d)

1/4

210.

When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall pea plants with true-breeding short pea plants, all the offspring were tall. Then he allowed the first generation tall plants to self-pollinate.

What were the expected ratios of phenotypes in the F2 generation?

a)

Because this is a monohybrid cross of pea plants that carry two alleles for plant height, the expected ratio is 3 tall : 1 short.

b)

Because this is a dihybrid cross of pea plants that carry three alleles for plant height, the expected ratio is 9 tall : 3 intermediate: 1 short.

c)

Because this is a dihybrid cross of pea plants that carry four alleles for plant height, the expected ratio is 4 tall : 1 short.

d)

Because this is a monohybrid cross of pea plants that carry two alleles for plant height, the expected ratio is 1 tall : 1 short.

211.

Mendel studied 7 traits in pea plants. He concluded that the factors, or genes, for the 7 traits sorted independently of one another. Today, how do scientists explain Mendel's results?

a)

The genes for the 7 traits are located on the same chromosome.

b)

Crossing over events did not occur during Mendel's experiments.

c)

Crossing over events occurred very frequently during Mendel's experiments.

d)

The genes for the 7 traits are located on 7 chromosomes.

212.

Thomas Hunt Morgan concluded that in the fruit fly Drosophila, all of the genes are grouped into four linkage groups.

Which of these statements about Drosophila is correct?

a)

Drosophila has more than four chromosomes.

b)

The traits of each linkage group are generally inherited together and the four linkage groups assort independently during meiosis.

c)

Crossing-over between genes on different chromosomes occurs during prophase II of meiosis.

d)

Crossing-over between genes on the same chromosome occurs during anaphase I of meiosis.

213.

In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant over the allele for white fur (b). A cross of two black guinea pigs produces three offspring, all of which have black fur.

          What conclusion is supported about the genotypes of the two parent guinea pigs of the cross?

a)

Both parents were homozygous dominant (BB).

b)

At least one parent was homozygous dominant (BB), but the other parent could be heterozygous (Bb).

c)

Either parent could be homozygous dominant (BB) or heterozygous (Bb).

d)

Both parents were heterozygous (Bb).

214.

This Punnett square shows codominant inheritance of the MN blood groups in humans. The MN blood type is determined by the alleles of a certain gene. An LM allele codes for a glycoprotein marker (M) on the surface of red blood cells, whereas an LN allele codes for a glycoprotein marker (N).

If two people with LMLN genotypes have children, what is the expected ratio of genotypes among the children?

a)

1 LMLM: 2 LMLN: 1 LNLN

b)

9 LMLM: 3 LMLN: 1 LNLN

c)

4 LMLM: 1 LNLN

d)

1 LNLN : 1 LMLM

215.

Marissa and Gene have phenotypes at the opposite extremes of a polygenic trait. What phenotype will their children most likely have?

a)

They will have the intermediate phenotype for the trait at the middle of the bell curve.

b)

They will have either of the two extreme phenotypes of the trait inherited from their mother or father.

c)

They will have a phenotype that is determined by the typical distribution of phenotypes in the 9:3:3:1 ratio.

d)

They will resemble other family members but not their parents, because the alleles’ expression is hidden in the F1 generation.

216.

Which is an advantage of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction?

a)

increased survival rates in an unchanging environment

b)

increased genetic diversity

c)

increased rate of reproduction

d)

less energy required for reproduction

217.

What is taking place in the process shown?

a)

DNA replication

b)

cytoplasm division

c)

sexual reproduction

d)

cell growth

218.

What is the purpose of DNA replication in the cell cycle?

a)

to replace old DNA

b)

to increase genetic diversity

c)

to have two copies of each chromosome

d)

to help the cell grow larger

219.

A student is labeling a model of the cell cycle. Which substance(s) should the student label as regulating the cell cycle?

a)

chromosomes

b)

cyclins

c)

nutrients

d)

DNA

220.

Which of the following is true about totipotent cells?

a)

Embryonic stem cells are totipotent cells.

b)

Totipotent cells can differentiate into any type of cell or tissue.

c)

Adult stem cells are totipotent cells.

d)

Totipotent cells can form any cells except those surrounding the embryo.

221.

Some species are able to reproduce either sexually or asexually. What is a drawback of a population using asexual reproduction only?

a)

High genetic diversity puts the population at risk to environmental change.

b)

Low genetic diversity puts the population at risk to environmental change.

c)

High genetic diversity prevents the population from expanding its territory.

d)

Low genetic diversity prevents the population from expanding its territory.

222.

What is taking place during the S phase?

a)

DNA replication

b)

cytoplasm division

c)

DNA repair

d)

cell growth

223.

What is taking place during the G1 phase?

a)

DNA replication

b)

cytoplasm division

c)

DNA repair

d)

cell growth

224.

Which of the following distinguishes binary fission from mitosis?

a)

occurs after DNA replication

b)

occurs in eukaryotes

c)

occurs in prokaryotes

d)

occurs during the S phase