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Spring Semester Biology Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which part of the cell controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cell membrane

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

2.

What is diffusion?

a)

when solute particles move from a low concentration to a high concentration

b)

when solute particles move from a high concentration to a low concentration.

c)

no movement

d)

solute particles move everywhere

3.

When both the inside and outside of a cell have the same concentration it is said that the cell has reached a state of

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Passive Transport

4.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
5.

Passive transport moves molecules from...

a)

low concentration to high concentration without the use of energy

b)

high concentration to low concentration without the use of energy

c)

low concentration to high concentration by using ATP

d)

high concentration to low concentration by using ATP

6.

Which type of Passive transport allows small nonpolar molecules to pass through the cellular membrane without the assistance of a protein?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Carrier transport

7.

What type of solution would cause the cell in the image on the left to bursts?

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

d)

notonic

8.

What type of solution would cause the cell in the image on the right to shrink?

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

d)

notonic

9.

____________________ embedded in the cell membrane are used for passive transport, and __________________ are used for active transport.

a)

Aquaporins, cholesterol

b)

Carrier proteins, channel proteins

c)

Channel proteins, aquaporins

d)

Channel proteins, Carrier proteins

10.

Which of the following cellular transport methods is NOT a form of active transport?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

sodium-potassium pump

11.

What is the main difference between passive and active transport?

a)

Passive transport requires the use of ATP, while passive does not

b)

Passive transport follows against the concentration gradient, while active flows with it.

c)

Active transport requires the use of ATP, while passive does not

d)

Active transport requires the use of a channel protein, while passive does not

12.

Which form of active transport does the Covid-19 virus enter the cell?

a)

pinocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

d)

exocytosis

13.

The cell uses endocytosis to bring in what type of substances?

a)

substances such as sodium, potassium, water, and glucose

b)

substances that normally use a carrier protein to flow in and out of the cell

c)

substances too small to fit through the cell membrane

d)

substances too large to fit through the cell membrane, or invaders such as bacteria and viruses

14.

What type of cellular transport is used to take in a large food particle or to engulf an invader?

a)

pinocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

d)

exocytosis

15.

Which type of cellular transport is NOT passive?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

simple diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

pinocytosis

16.

Which type of solution is at equilibrium, in which the cell is at the same concentration as its surroundings?

a)

hypertonic solution

b)

hypotonic solution

c)

isotonic solution

d)

aqueous solution

17.

A nucleotide contains all of the following, except...

a)

Steroid

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

A five-carbon sugar

18.

Which of the following is NOT true about RNA?

a)

uracil is one of its nitrogenous bases

b)

can be found in the nucleus or cytoplasm of a cell

c)

contains deoxyribose sugar in its nucleotides

d)

its shape is a single-stranded helix

19.

DNA replication results in ...

a)

2 completely new DNA molecules that do not contain original strands

b)

2 DNA molecules that each contain a strand of the original and a new strand

c)

1 new DNA molecule with one new strand and one old strand

d)

1 new molecule of DNA that contains only new strands

20.

Put the following steps for DNA replication in the correct order:

1. Recoil the supercoiling

2. Straightens the double helix

3. Primer is set and the DNA polymerase attaches.

4. Adds Free nucleotides to each strand

5. Breaks Hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together

a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

3, 4, 5, 2, 1

c)

5, 3, 2, 4, 1

d)

2, 5, 3, 4, 1

21.

The leading strand in DNA replication is building the following sequence. Determine its complementary sequence.

GCATTCGGA

a)

GCATTCGGA

b)

CGTTCGGT

c)

CGTAAGCCT

d)

CGATTGCCA

22.

Where does DNA replication begin?

a)

Polymerase action site

b)

Replication fork

c)

Point of Origin

d)

In the front

23.

Identify which of the following DNA replication parts are all matched correctly.

a)

1 = DNA polymerase, 2 = helicase, 3 = topoisomerase, 8 = RNA polymerase

b)

1 = single-stranded binding proteins, 2 = helicase 7 = okazaki fragments, 9 = ligase

c)

2 = ligase, 3 = DNA polymerase, 7 = okazaki fragments, 9 = helicase

d)

2 = topoisomerase, 5 = helicase, 6 = DNA polymerase, 9 = single-stranded binding proteins

24.

Transcription occurs in the _________________ , which produces a ____________ strand.

a)

nucleus, DNA

b)

nucleus, mRNA

c)

ribosome, protein

d)

ribosome, tRNA

25.

________________ is the primary enzyme used in the transcription process.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

26.

What does DNA replication and transcription have in common?

a)

Thymine pairs with Adenine

b)

Two strands are formed

c)

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides in the 5' --> 3' direction

d)

It occurs in the nucleus

27.

Translation occurs in the _________________ , which produces a ____________ strand.

a)

nucleus, tRNA

b)

nucleus, mRNA

c)

ribosome, protein

d)

ribosome, mRNA

28.

What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?

a)

Anticodon

b)

Codon

c)

Protein

d)

Ribosome

29.

The function of ______ is to form the composition of ribosomes.

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

DNA

30.

If the codon sequence within an mRNA strand is GCA, which tRNA anticodon will pair to this codon, and which amino acid will it bring?

a)

CGU, Ala

b)

CGU, Arg

c)

GCA, Ala

d)

GCA, Arg

31.

Translate the following DNA sequence into its corresponding amino acid. ATG CCC ATT

a)

Met - Pro - Ile

b)

Met - Gly - Stop

c)

Tyr -Gly - Stop

d)

Tyr - Pro - Ile

32.

These are the building blocks of a protein.

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

33.

Which of the following codons do all polypeptide chains begin with?

a)

AUG

b)

UAA

c)

UAG

d)

UGA

34.

What causes translation to end?

a)

when the mRNA runs out of nucleotides to translate

b)

when there are no more amino acids available in the nearby cytoplasm

c)

when the mRNA strand hits a stop codon

d)

when the mRNA strand contains the amino acid methionine

35.

Which component in the cell stores the information for making proteins?

a)

ribosome

b)

gene

c)

mitochondria

d)

rRNA

36.

Determine the amino acid chain for the following DNA gene strand from initiation to termination.

ATACGCCAGCACTT

a)

Try - Ala - Val - Val - AA

b)

Ile - Arg - Gln - His - Stop

c)

Met - Arg - Ser - Stop

d)

Met - Try - Ala - Val - Stop

37.
When one base replaces another, this is a common type of mutation called what?
a)
Insertion
b)
Substitution
c)
Inversion
d)
Deletion
38.

Name the mutation that happens when an extra base has been added to the sequence of bases.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Insertion

39.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations considered more damaging than a substitution?

a)

Insertions and deletions always cause a protein to end early.

b)

Deletions and insertions can cause a frameshift, which codes for all new amino acids

c)

A substitution causes a frameshift, which only changes one amino acid

d)

A substitution never changes the amino acid sequence.

40.

Which of the following is the correct order of the phases of the cell cycle from start to finish?

a)

prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis, telophase

b)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

c)

interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, cytokinesis, telophase

d)

prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase, cytokinesis, interphase

41.

What type of cells cannot control their growth?

a)

Skin cells

b)

Sex cells

c)

Cancer cells

d)

Blood cells

42.

Human body cells have ______ chromosomes, and their gamete cells have _____ chromosomes.

a)

23, 46

b)

46, 23

c)

23, 23

d)

46, 46

43.

The sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated (come apart) and move to opposite ends of the cell. Name this mitosis phase.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

44.
Cells spend 90% of their time in this stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason you would see most cells in this stage if viewed under a microscope.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Interphase
45.

Nucleolus and nuclear membrane start to disappear, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and spindle fibers start to form. Name that Mitosis phase!

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

46.

What is the correct order for the images pictured in the cell cycle?

a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 5, 1, 4

c)

3, 2, 5, 1, 4

d)

2, 5, 4, 1, 3

47.

The chromosomes start to line up in the middle of the cell. Name this mitosis phase.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

48.

_______________ is the process of the cytoplasm dividing between the cells splitting the cell into two.

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telokinesis

49.

Which is true regarding both mitosis and meiosis?

a)

They both only happen in animal cells

b)

They both produce gamete cells

c)

They both start with a diploid cell

d)

They both occur produce somatic cells

50.

DNA that is compacted into uncoiled, thin strands is called ____________________.

a)

chromatin

b)

centrosome

c)

chromatid

d)

histones

51.

What are the set of microtubules that appear during prophase for the spindle fibers to attach to?

a)

centrosomes

b)

chromosomes

c)

centromeres

d)

centrioles

52.

Homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles of a dividing cell during...

a)

Anaphase I of meiosis

b)

Anaphase II of meiosis

c)

Anaphase of mitosis

d)

none of these

53.

Which of the following best describe the term “crossing over”?

a)

A molecular interaction between two non-sister chromatids

b)

An exchange of information between two homologous chromosomes

c)

A molecular interaction between two sister chromatids

d)

A separation of two sister chromatids

54.

If the diploid number in a liver cell of an organism is 50, how many chromosomes are there in the egg of this organism?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

100

d)

200

55.

Which phase of meiosis is pictured?

a)

anaphase I

b)

anaphase II

c)

telophase I

d)

telophase II

56.

Liver and skin cells are _________, while sperm and egg cells are __________.

a)

haploid, diploid

b)

diploid, haploid

c)

haploid, haploid

d)

diploid, diploid

57.

Which of the following does NOT occur during interphase?

a)

Growth

b)

Cellular functions

c)

DNA replication

d)

DNA condenses into chromosomes

58.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
59.

What phase of meiosis is shown here?

a)
Anaphase I
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
 Metaphase I
60.

With mitosis you get ___, _________ cells, but with meiosis, you get ___, ____________ cells.

a)
4 different, 2 identical
b)
4 identical, 2 different
c)
2 different, 4 identical
d)
2 identical, 4 different
61.

What phase of meiosis is shown here?

a)
Telophase II
b)
Anaphase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Interphase I
62.

_______________ is considered the "Father of Genetics" and studied the genetic crossing of a ____________.

a)

Gregor Mendel, snapdragon

b)

Gregor Mendel, pea plant

c)

Aristotle, snapdragon

d)

Aristotle, pea plant

63.

Which of the following is NOT one of Gregor Mendel's Principles?

a)

Principle of Independent Assortment

b)

Principle Dominance and Recessiveness

c)

Principle of Design

d)

Principle of Segregation

64.

What is the relationship between an allele and a gene on a chromosome?

a)

Genes are the alternative forms of an allele that can cause varied expressions of traits.

b)

Alleles are the alternative forms of a gene that can cause varied expressions of traits.

c)

Genes are the expression of physical traits, whereas alleles are the expression of sexual traits.

d)

There is one allele coded within every gene on each chromosome.

65.

Dominant alleles are expressed with a __________ letter, and recessive alleles are expressed with a _________ letter.

a)

uppercase, uppercase

b)

lowercase, lowercase

c)

uppercase, lowercase

d)

lowercase, uppercase

66.

_______________ is the genetic code of a trait, while the _______________ is the physical expression of that trait.

a)

genotype, phenotype

b)

phenotype, genotype

c)

genotype, gene

d)

phenotype, allele

67.

Which of the following genotypes expresses a Homozygous Dominant trait?

a)

Hh

b)

gg

c)

Rr

d)

WW

68.

Which of the following genotypes represents a Heterozygous trait?

a)

TT

b)

Dd

c)

WW

d)

pp

69.

Which of the following traits represents a Homozygous Recessive trait?

a)

Ww

b)

PP

c)

ff

d)

CC

70.

What is a diagram used in predicting probabilities of a genetic cross?

a)

Square Crossing

b)

Probability Square

c)

Punnett Crossing

d)

Punnett Square

71.

______________ is a situation in which one allele is not completely dominant over the other allele.

a)

Homozygous Dominant

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Recessive Dominance

72.

Which of the following is an example of codominance?

a)

A black coated dog and a white coated dog produce a black and white speckled dog.

b)

A brown hamster and a white hamster produce a brown hamster.

c)

A curly haired woman and a straight haired male produce a wavy haired child.

d)

A blue fish and a red fish produce a red fish.

73.

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?

a)

A black coated dog and a white coated dog produce a black and white speckled dog.

b)

A brown hamster and a white hamster produce a brown hamster.

c)

A curly haired woman and a straight haired male produce a wavy haired child.

d)

A blue fish and a red fish produce a blue and red speckled fish.

74.

____________ is a trait controlled by two or more genes

a)

polygenic trait

b)

multiple alleles

c)

codominance

d)

multiple trait

75.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a polygenic trait?

a)

height

b)

hair color

c)

skin color

d)

widow's peak

76.

Which of the following examples describes the relationship of phenotypes and multiple alleles correctly.

a)

If a person has dark hair, they will most likely also have curly hair and dark skin tone too.

b)

Nobody in my immediate family are the exact same height.

c)

Humans can have A, B, AB, or O type blood.

d)

A dark toned father and a light skinned mother had four children, all with different skin tones.

77.

Some genetic traits are passed down on the X chromosome. Explain why it is more likely for a male to express a recessive trait linked to the X chromosome, rather than a female.

a)

Males have a Y chromosome, which enhances their ability to physically express recessive alleles

b)

Males only have one X chromosome, so it only takes one recessive allele to express that phenotype.

c)

Because women have two X chromosomes, their X genes always contain dominant alleles

d)

The hormones in males cause recessive gene expression on the X chromosome.

78.

Cows express codominance in their coat color. If a brown cow, BB, and a speckled brown and white cow, BW, cross with each other, what are the possible phenotypes for their offspring?

a)

brown, white, or speckled

b)

brown only

c)

brown or speckled

d)

speckled only

79.

In humans, there are four types of blood a person can receive: A, B, AB, or O. Type O is considered recessive. What is the probability of a child with type B blood, if one parent has AB blood and another parent is heterozygous for Type B blood, BO.

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

80.

Long whiskers, W, are dominant to short whiskers, w. If two heterozygous cats have kittens, what percent of the kittens will have long whiskers?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

81.

Which of the following Kingdoms are ONLY autotrophic?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

82.

Which of the following Kingdoms are ONLY heterotrophic?

a)

Bacteria and Protista

b)

Protista and Fungi

c)

Fungi and Bacteria

d)

Animalia and Fungi

83.

What is another term that autotrophs are called?

a)

heterotrophs

b)

consumers

c)

herbivores

d)

producers

84.

What is a heterotroph?

a)

An organism who makes its own food

b)

An organism who consumes other organisms

c)

An organism who does not need food

d)

An organism who both consumes and produces food.

85.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
86.
In this food chain, what will happen if the frogs become extinct?
a)
The snakes will increase.
b)
The grasshoppers will decrease.
c)
The eagles will remain the same.
d)
The grasshoppers will increase.
87.
What percentage of energy is passed on to each tropic level?
a)
10%
b)
50%
c)
90%
d)
100%
88.
A collection of organisms that belong to different populations but all live in the same area and interact with one another.
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Ecosphere
89.

Which choice shows the correct order of the levels of environmental organization?

a)

organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

b)

organism, population, ecosystem, biosphere, community

c)

organism, community, population, ecosystem, biosphere

d)

population, ecosystem, biosphere, organism, community

90.

cactus, snake, coyote, sagebrush, and hare are all examples of _______ within an ecosystem.

a)

consumers

b)

abiotic factors

c)

biotic factors

d)

producers

91.

All the individuals of one species in a given area is called a ______________. A herd of zebras would be an example.

a)

Population

b)

Community

c)

Non-living

d)

Organism

92.

An _____________ is an interwoven system of biotic and abiotic factors.

a)

Species

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Microscope

d)

Zoo

93.

What is an adaptation?

a)

A trait that increases the fitness of an organism.

b)

A trait that an organism acquires without genetic influence.

c)

A choice made by humans about what organisms breed for advantageous traits.

94.
a)

Physiological

b)

Structural

c)

Behavioral

95.
a)

Physiological

b)

Structural

c)

Behavioral

96.

Which biome does the polar bear live in?

a)

Grasslands

b)

Taiga

c)

Tundra

d)

Decidious Forest

97.

Which of the following is a salt water biome?

a)

Lakes

b)

Rivers

c)

Ponds

d)

Estuaries

98.

A person who eats a chicken that ate grain is a ...

a)

primary producer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

quaternary consumer

99.

Which of these organisms would receive energy from the snake?

a)

Plant

b)

Rabbit

c)

Mouse

d)

Hawk

100.
"Survival of the Fittest" describes which theory
a)
a) natural selection
b)
b) gravity
c)
c) heredity
d)
d) string theory