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ESRT Review - Earth Science Regents

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the equation for density?

a)

mass/volume

b)

mass*volume

c)

volume/mass

d)

density=mass+volume

2.

What is the density of a substance when the volume is 5.0 cm³ and the mass is 25 grams? The density is (a)   g/cm³.

Choose from the below words
5 g/cm³
10 g/cm³
15 g/cm³
20 g/cm³
3.

What is the gradient if a student measures the ground temperature to be 30° C and directly two meters above that same location 35° C? It is (a)   °C/m.

Choose from the below words
2.5 °C/m
3.0 °C/m
1.5 °C/m
2.0 °C/m
4.

Long Island is a part of (a)   landscape region?

Choose from the below words
Coastal Plain
Mountainous Region
Desert Area
Tropical Forest
5.

How many landscape regions are there in New York State?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

11

d)

9

6.

What is the northernmost New York State landscape region?

a)

Adirondack Mountains

b)

Catskill Mountains

c)

Hudson Valley

d)

Long Island

7.

What is the southernmost New York State landscape region?

a)

Adirondack Mountains

b)

Catskill Mountains

c)

Hudson Valley

d)

Atlantic Coastal Plain

8.

What is the easternmost New York State landscape region?

a)

Adirondack Mountains

b)

Catskill Mountains

c)

Hudson Valley

d)

Long Island

9.

What type of rock is Slide Mountain?

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

None of the above

10.

What is the latitude and longitude of Slide Mountain?

a)

42° N, 74°30' W

b)

40° N, 73° W

c)

41° W, 74° N

d)

43° N, 74° W

11.

What geological period does the rock around Syracuse come from?

a)

Cambrian

b)

Jurassic

c)

Silurian

d)

Cretaceous

12.

What rock type and geologic period do rocks from Long Island come from?

a)

Sedimentary rocks from the Cretaceous and Pleistocene

b)

Igneous rocks from the Cretaceous and Pleistocene

c)

Metamorphic rocks from the Cretaceous and Pleistocene

d)

Sedimentary rocks from the Late Triassic

13.

What is the latitude and longitude of Binghamton?

a)

42° N, 76° W

b)

40° N, 74° W

c)

34° N, 118° W

d)

51° N, 0° W

14.

What is the current that runs along the eastern coast of the United States?

a)

Gulf Stream

b)

California Current

c)

Kuroshio Current

d)

Labrador Current

15.

What is the current that runs along the western coast of the United States?

a)

Gulf Stream

b)

California Current

c)

Kuroshio Current

d)

Labrador Current

16.

What type of current is the Brazil Current?

a)

Warm

b)

Cold

c)

Static

d)

Electrical

17.

What type of current is the Labrador Current?

a)

Cold ocean current

b)

Warm ocean current

c)

Electrical current

d)

None of the above

18.

What type of plate boundary is the San Andreas Fault?

a)

Divergent boundary

b)

Convergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

d)

Subduction zone

19.

What type of plate boundary is the Aleutian Trench?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

d)

None of the above

20.

What type of plate boundary is the Peru-Chile Trench?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

d)

Subduction zone

21.

What is the latitude and longitude of the Hawaiian Hot Spot?

a)

19° N, 158° W

b)

20° N, 156° E

c)

18° S, 155° W

d)

19° W, 155° N

22.

How can a sedimentary rock change to an igneous rock?

a)

By undergoing melting and solidification

b)

By being exposed to high pressure only

c)

Through weathering and erosion

d)

By undergoing metamorphism

23.

How can an igneous rock change to a metamorphic rock?

a)

By melting and solidifying

b)

By undergoing heat and pressure

c)

By weathering and erosion

d)

By deposition and compaction

24.

How can a metamorphic rock change to a sedimentary rock?

a)

By melting and solidifying

b)

By undergoing heat and pressure

c)

By weathering, erosion, compaction and cementation

d)

By crystallization of minerals

25.

What is the minimum size of a cobble?

a)

6.4 cm

b)

3.2 cm

c)

1.6 cm

d)

.2 cm

26.

What is the maximum size of a pebble?

a)

2 cm

b)

4 cm

c)

6.4 cm

d)

25.6 cm

27.

What is the smallest sized particle?

a)

pebbles

b)

cobbles

c)

sand

d)

clay

28.

What is the largest sized particle?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

cobble

d)

Boulder

29.

What is the environment of formation for granite?

a)

intrusive

b)

evaporation of seawater

c)

volcanic

d)

extrusive

30.

What is the grain size for very coarse textures?

a)

Less than 1 mm

b)

1 mm to 2 mm

c)

Greater than 10 mm

d)

0.5 mm to 1.5 mm

31.

Name two rocks that are vesicular?

a)

Granite and Basalt

b)

Pumice and Scoria

c)

Slate and Marble

d)

Quartzite and Sandstone

32.

What is the environment of formation for pumice?

a)

extrusive

b)

instrusive

c)

convergent plate boundaries

d)

deep underground

33.

Name two rocks that have a light color and felsic composition?

a)

Granite and Rhyolite

b)

Basalt and Gabbro

c)

Slate and Schist

d)

Sandstone and Limestone

34.

What rock consists of rounded fragments?

a)

Granite

b)

Slate

c)

Conglomerate

d)

Marble

35.

This sedimentary rock consists of compacted plant remains?

a)

Sandstone

b)

Shale

c)

Bituminous Coal

d)

Limestone

36.

Name an organic rock cemented together by calcite?

a)

Limestone

b)

Sandstone

c)

Shale

d)

Coal

37.

What clastic rock consists of the smallest grain size?

a)

Sandstone

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Shale

d)

Siltstone

38.

What is rock salt's composition?

a)

halite

b)

calcite

c)

dolomite

d)

carbon

39.

What type of texture does Gneiss have?

a)

clastic

b)

Foliated

c)

non-foliated

d)

bioclastic

40.

What rock was formed by contact metamorphism?

a)

Slate

b)

Marble

c)

Granite

d)

Sandstone

41.

Name a coarse grained, non-foliated metamorphic rock?

a)

Slate

b)

Schist

c)

Marble

d)

Gneiss

42.

Which rock comes from the metamorphism of sandstone?

a)

Quartzite

b)

Slate

c)

Marble

d)

Limestone

43.

What rock will bubble with acid (HCl)?

a)

Granite

b)

Slate

c)

Limestone

d)

Sandstone

44.

What is the density of the continental crust?

a)

2.7 g/cm³

b)

3.0 g/cm³

c)

5.7 g/cm³

d)

8.1 g/cm³

45.

What is the density of the oceanic crust?

a)

2.7 g/cm³

b)

2.9 g/cm³

c)

3.0 g/cm³

d)

3.3 g/cm³

46.

What is the temperature at the boundary between the Outer Core and the Inner Core?

a)

5,000°C

b)

6,000°C

c)

6,300°C

d)

3,000°C

47.

What is the pressure at the boundary between the Outer Core and the Inner Core?

a)

3.1 mil atm

b)

2.9 mil atm

c)

1.5 mil atm

d)

.2 mil atm

48.

What is the density of the stiffer mantle?

a)

3.4 to 5.6 g/cm³

b)

9.9-12.2 g/cm³

c)

12.8-13.1 g/cm³

d)

2.7-3.0 g/cm³

49.

What is the minimum number of seismic stations needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.

If an earthquake's epicenter is 3000 km away from a seismograph station; approximately how long did the P-wave take to arrive to the seismograph station?

a)

5 minutes 40 seconds

b)

10 minutes

c)

5 minutes 20 seconds

d)

3 minutes 20 seconds

51.

A P-wave took 3 minutes and 20 seconds to reach a seismic station; approximately how long did it take for the s-wave to reach the same station?

a)

4 minutes and 40 seconds

b)

5 minutes

c)

5 minutes and 30 seconds

d)

6 minutes

52.

A p-wave arrives at 3:00:00 pm and the s-wave arrives at 3:07:20 pm, what is the exact distance that the seismic station is away from the epicenter?

HINT: FIND THE TIME DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WHEN THE P- AND S-WAVES ARRIVED.

MARK THAT TIME DIFFERNCE USING A PIECE OF PAPER.

a)

6200 km

b)

4800 km

c)

5800 km

d)

4000 km

53.

If a P-wave arrived at a seismic station at 12:10 and the S-wave arrived at 12:17, what is the time of origin of the earthquake?

Step 1: Find the time difference of p- and s-wave arrivals.

Step 2: Find the distance from the epicenter using the time difference.

Step 3: Based on the distance, find the p-wave travel time.

Step 4: Subtract the p-wave travel time from 12:10 (p-wave arrival)

a)

12:01

b)

12:09

c)

12:28

d)

12:10

54.

What is the dewpoint if the dry bulb temperature is 16° C and the wet bulb temperature is 10° C?

a)

6° C

b)

4° C

c)

9° C

d)

12° C

55.

What is the dewpoint if the dry bulb temperature is 10° C and the wet bulb temperature is 8° C?

a)

5° C

b)

6° C

c)

7° C

d)

8° C

56.

What is the wet bulb temperature if the dewpoint is 9° C and the dry bulb temperature is 16° C?

a)

5° C

b)

9° C

c)

12° C

d)

16° C

57.

What is the dewpoint if the dry bulb temperature is 18° C and the wet bulb temperature is 15° C?

a)

13° C

b)

14° C

c)

15° C

d)

16° C

58.

What is the relative humidity if the dry bulb temperature is 16° C and the wet bulb is 10° C?

a)

30%

b)

45%

c)

60%

d)

75%

59.

What is the relative humidity if the dry bulb temperature is 10° C and the wet bulb is 8° C?

a)

54%

b)

65%

c)

76%

d)

88%

60.

What is the wet bulb temperature if the relative humidity is 7% and the dry bulb is 16° C?

a)

5° C

b)

7° C

c)

9° C

d)

11° C

61.

What is the relative humidity if the dry bulb temperature is 18° C and the wet bulb is 15° C?

a)

45%

b)

55%

c)

65%

d)

72%

62.

If the air temperature is 10° C, what is the equivalent Fahrenheit temperature?

a)

50° F

b)

32° F

c)

18° F

d)

14° F

63.

What is 20° C equal to in Fahrenheit?

a)

68°F

b)

72°F

c)

78°F

d)

82°F

64.

What is 160° F equal to in Kelvin?

a)

344 K

b)

331 K

c)

355 K

d)

373 K

65.

If the pressure was recorded to be 992.0 millibars. How many inches of Mercury is that equal to?

a)

29.29 inches

b)

28.50 inches

c)

30.12 inches

d)

31.01 inches

66.

What is 1000.0 millibars equal to in inches of mercury?

a)

28.50 inches

b)

29.53 inches

c)

30.00 inches

d)

31.10 inches

67.

How many millibars is 30.00 inches of mercury equal to?

a)

1013 mb

b)

1016 mb

c)

1015 mb

d)

1018 mb

68.

What is the boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere?

a)

Tropopause

b)

Stratopause

c)

Mesopause

d)

Thermopause

69.

What is the boundary between the mesosphere and the thermosphere?

a)

Tropopause

b)

Stratopause

c)

Mesopause

d)

Thermopause

70.

Does temperature increase or decrease in the troposphere?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains constant

d)

Varies depending on the altitude

71.

Does temperature increase or decrease in the mesosphere?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

72.

Does pressure increase or decrease in the troposphere?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains constant

d)

Varies depending on altitude but not in a consistent pattern

73.

What has the largest wave length?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Microwaves

c)

Visible light

d)

X-rays

74.

What has the smallest wavelength?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Microwaves

c)

Visible light

d)

Gamma rays

75.

What part of visible light has the smallest wave length?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Violet

76.

What part of visible light has the largest wave length?

a)

Ultraviolet

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Green

77.

What part of the electromagnetic spectrum is on either side of visible light?

a)

Infrared and Ultraviolet

b)

Microwaves and Radio waves

c)

X-rays and Gamma rays

d)

Ultraviolet and X-rays

78.

Which way do the planetary winds blow between 30°N and 60°N?

a)

SW to NE

b)

NE to SW

c)

East to West

d)

West to East

79.

Does the equator experience wet or dry weather?

a)

Wet

b)

Dry

c)

Both

d)

Neither

80.

At 30° S latitude, are the winds diverging or converging?

a)

Converging

b)

Diverging

c)

Neither diverging nor converging

81.

What is the most massive type of stars?

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Giants

c)

White Dwarf Stars

d)

Supergiant Stars

82.

What is the name of the smallest star on the Luminosity and Temperature of Stars chart?

a)

Polaris

b)

Spica

c)

Deneb

d)

Proxima Centauri

83.

How many times more luminous is Aldebaran then our Sun?

a)

10 times more luminous

b)

100 times more luminous

c)

500 times more luminous

d)

20 times more luminous

84.

What is the approximate temperature of Polaris?

a)

3230 K

b)

6000 K

c)

7260 K

d)

10010 K

85.

Name three stars that are part of the main sequence?

a)

Sun, Sirius, Betelgeuse

b)

Sun, Sirius, Proxima Centauri

c)

Sun, Betelgeuse, Rigel

d)

Sirius, Vega, Rigel

86.

The hottest stars are what color?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

White

87.

The coolest stars are what color?

a)

Blue

b)

White

c)

Red

d)

Yellow

88.

Betelgeuse is how many times brighter than our Sun?

a)

10 times

b)

100 times

c)

100,000 times

d)

10,000 times

89.

What is luminosity?

a)

The brightness of a celestial object

b)

The distance of a star from Earth

c)

The color of a celestial object

d)

The size of a celestial object

90.

What is the temperature of our Sun?

a)

5,000 K

b)

5,800 K

c)

4,000 K

d)

6,200 K

91.

What is the mean distance of Mercury from the Sun?

a)

57.9 million km

b)

108.2 million km

c)

149.6 million km

d)

227.9 million km

92.

What is the period of revolution of Venus?

a)

224.7 days

b)

365 days

c)

687 days

d)

4332 days

93.

What is the eccentricity of Mars's orbit?

a)

0.093

b)

0.016

c)

0.054

d)

0.205

94.

What is Saturn's density?

a)

0.7 g/cm³

b)

1.6 g/cm³

c)

0.5 g/cm³

d)

3.9 g/cm³

95.

What is Earth's equatorial diameter?

a)

12,756 km

b)

10,000 km

c)

15,000 km

d)

9,461 km

96.

Which planet has the most eccentric orbit?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

97.

What is the hardness of magnetite?

a)

3.5 to 4.5

b)

5.5 to 6.5

c)

6 to 7

d)

7 to 7.5

98.

What two minerals bubble with acid?

a)

Quartz and Feldspar

b)

Calcite and Dolomite

c)

Mica and Gypsum

d)

Halite and Fluorite

99.

What mineral's composition is SiO2?

a)

Calcite

b)

Quartz

c)

Gypsum

d)

Halite

100.

Which mineral can have both a metallic and nonmetallic luster?

a)

Quartz

b)

Hematite

c)

Calcite

d)

Diamond

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