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Physics Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Work is done when.

a)

Displacement is not zero

b)

The displacement is zero

c)

The force is zero

d)

The force and displacement are perpendicular

2.

Which of the following energy forms is involved in a pencil falling from a desk?

a)

Kinetic Energy

b)

Non-mechanical energy

c)

gravitational potential energy

d)

Elastic potential energy and kinetic energy

3.

A 3.00 kg toy falls from a height of 10.0 m. Just before hitting the ground, what will be its kinetic energy? (Disregard air resistance. g = 9.8 m/sec2)

a)

98.0 J

b)

0.98 J

c)

29.4 J 

d)

294 J

4.

What is the kinetic energy of a 0.135 kg baseball thrown at 40.0 m/s?

a)

54.0 J

b)

87.0 J

c)

108 J

d)

216 J

5.

Which of the following energy forms is associated with an object in motion?

a)

Potential energy

b)

Gravitational potential energy

c)

Thermal energy 

d)

Kinetic energy 

6.

Which of the following is the rate at which energy is transferred?

a)

Potential Energy 

b)

Kinetic Energy 

c)

Mechanical Energy

d)

Power

7.

What is the average power supplied by a 60.0 kg secretary running up a flight of stairs rising vertically 4.0 m in 4.2 secs?

a)

380 Watts

b)

560 Watts

c)

610 Watts

d)

670 Watts

8.

Which of the following energy forms is involved in winding a pocket watch?

a)

Electrical energy

b)

Non-mechanical energy

c)

gravitational potential energy 

d)

Elastic potential energy

9.

When a force is exerted on an object, work is done only if the object 

a)

Is heavy 

b)

Remains stationary

c)

Moves in the direction of the force

d)

Has no momentum

10.

A construction worker pushes a wheelbarrow 5.0 m with a horizontal force of 50.0 N. How much work is done by the worker on the wheelbarrow? 

a)

10 J

b)

1250 J 

c)

250 J 

d)

55 J 

11.

Potential energy is the energy an object has because of its

a)

Position 

b)

Temperature

c)

Size 

d)

Speed

12.

The fulcrum is the

a)

Efficiency 

b)

Lever

c)

Pivot point 

d)

Point of input force

13.

Which of the following is NOT a simple machine?

a)

Wedge 

b)

Lever

c)

Pendulum 

d)

Incline plane

14.

The ratio of output work to input work is called

a)

Fulcrum 

b)

Mechanical advantage 

c)

Work 

d)

Efficiency

15.

A small car and a large car are pushed from rest across a parking lot, equal distances with equal forces. The vehicle that receives more change in kinetic energy is the

a)

Small Car 

b)

Same for each of them

c)

Large truck 

d)

Cannot be determined

16.

Heat flow occurs between two bodies in thermal contact when they differ in which of the following properties?

a)

Mass

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Density

d)

Temperature

17.

If two small beakers of water, one at 70oC and one at 80oC, are emptied into a large beaker, what is the final temperature of the water?

a)

Less than 70oC

b)

Greater than oC

c)

Somewhere between 70oC and 80oC

d)

Not enough information to determine

18.

All of the following are widely used temperature scales EXCEPT

a)

Kelvin

b)

Fahrenheit

c)

Celsius

d)

Joule

19.

If 546oK equals 273oC, then 500oK equals

a)

227oC

b)

250oC

c)

773oC

d)

1000oC

20.

A substance registers a temperature change from 20oC to 40oC. This corresponds to an incremental change of

a)

20oF

b)

40oF

c)

36oF

d)

313oF

21.

Energy transferred as heat always moves from an object

a)

at high temperature to an object at low temperature. 

b)

at low temperature to an object at high temperature. 

c)

at low kinetic energy to an object at high kinetic energy.

d)

of higher mass to an object of lower mass.

22.

Which of the following terms describes a transfer of energy?

a)

Heat

b)

Internal energy 

c)

Temperature

d)

Kinetic energy

23.

High temperature is related to 

a)

Low Kinetic energy

b)

High Kinetic energy

c)

No difference in kinetic energy

d)

Zero net energy

24.

At what point on the figure above does the substance undergo a phase change?

a)

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

25.

Which of the following is a substance in which the temperature and pressure remain constant while the substance experiences an inward transfer of energy?

a)

Gas

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

d)

Substance undergoing a change of state

26.

On a sunny day at the beach, the reason the sand gets hot and the water stays relatively cool is attributed to the difference in which property between water and sand? 

a)

Mass density

b)

Specific heat

c)

Temperature

d)

Thermal conductivity

27.

Heat transfer by conduction occurs when

a)

electrons bump into atoms and other electrons(particle to particle movement) 

b)

large numbers of atoms move from place to place

c)

atoms give off heat in the form of electromagnetic waves

d)

electromagnetic waves travel through a vacuum

28.

Heat transfer by convection occurs when 

a)

electrons bump into atoms and other electrons(particle to particle movement) 

b)

large numbers of atoms move from place to place

c)

atoms give off heat in the form of electromagnetic waves

d)

electromagnetic waves travel through a vacuum

29.

Heat travels from the sun to the earth by

a)

Conduction 

b)

Convection 

c)

Radiation 

d)

Circulation

30.

A substance’s temperature increases as a direct result of 

a)

energy being removed from the particles of the substance.

b)

Kinetic energy being added to the particles of the substance. 

c)

a change in the number of atoms and molecules in a substance.

d)

a decrease in the volume of the substance

31.

Evaporation refers to the change in state from a 

a)

Liquid to a gas

b)

Gas to a liquid

c)

Solid to a liquid 

d)

Liquid to a solid

32.

How much heat is absorbed by 60 grams of copper when it is heated from 20oC to 80oC?

a)

Q=3276 cal

b)

Q=2760 cal

c)

Q=3600 cal

d)

Q=3300 cal

33.

Which of the following is NOT an example of approximate simple harmonic motion?

a)

A ball bouncing on the floor 

b)

A child swinging on a swing 

c)

A piano wire that has been struck 

d)

A car’s radio antenna waving back and forth

34.

Which of the following is the time it takes to complete a cycle of motion?

a)

Amplitude 

b)

Period

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

35.

Which of the following is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit of time

a)

Amplitude 

b)

Period

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

36.

How are frequency and period related in simple wave motion?

a)

Directly related

b)

Inversely related 

c)

They both measure the time per cycle 

d)

They both measure the number of cycles per unit of time

37.

An amusement park ride has a frequency of 0.05 Hz. What is the ride’s period?

a)

5 secs 

b)

10 secs

c)

20 secs

d)

40 secs

38.

Which of the following is considered a single disturbance in wave motion?

a)

Pulse wave

b)

Periodic wave

c)

Sine wave 

d)

Transverse wave

39.

A musical tone sounded on a piano has a frequency of 410 Hz and a wavelength of 0.80 m. What is the wave speed of the sound wave?

a)

170 m/sec

b)

240 m/sec

c)

330 m/sec

d)

590 m/sec

40.

Another name for transverse wave is

a)

Compression

b)

S-wave

c)

P-wave

d)

Pressure wave

41.

In the transverse wave shown above, the high point or the maximum distance from the equilibrium point is 

a)

Wavelengths

b)

Crests

c)

Troughs

d)

The masses

42.

In the longitudinal wave shown above, the stretched regions are the same as the

a)

Wavelengths

b)

Crests

c)

Troughs

d)

The masses

43.

In the longitudinal wave shown above, the compressed regions are the same as the

a)

Wavelengths

b)

Crests

c)

Troughs

d)

The masses

44.

A periodic wave has a wavelength of 0.50 m and a speed of 20 m/sec. What is the wave frequency?

a)

0.02 Hz

b)

20 Hz

c)

40 Hz

d)

10 Hz

45.

Which type of wave moves in a direction perpendicular to the movement of the medium

a)

longitudinal waves

b)

Cross

c)

transverse waves

d)

Frequent

46.

When a wave travels, the medium it travels in 

a)

Always moves with it

b)

Sometimes moves with it 

c)

Revolves around it 

d)

Never moves with it, only carries energy

47.

A trough is the _____of the wave

a)

Length 

b)

Hill 

c)

Top 

d)

Bottom

48.

Amplitude is the

a)

maximum distance from equilibrium to a crest

b)

 from top of the crest to the bottom of the trough

c)

distance from crest to crest

d)

distance from trough to trough

49.

Velocity of a wave depends on

a)

how hard the wave is that is sent out

b)

the medium the wave is traveling through

c)

the amplitude of the wave

d)

how many boats are in the lake

50.

Which of the following represents the type of interference that results when 2 waves are added together to form the resultant wave with a higher amplitude? 

a)

constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

c)

Canceled out

d)

Straight 

51.

Which of the following is the type of interference that results when 2 waves are moving opposite of each other and could have cancellation

a)

constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

c)

Canceled out

d)

Straight 

52.

Which of the following types of interference will occur in the figure above? (HINT: note the amplitude?

a)

constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

c)

Standing wave

d)

node

53.

How many nodes and antinodes are shown in the standing wave above

a)

four nodes and four antinodes.

b)

four nodes and three antinodes

c)

four nodes and five antinodes

d)

five nodes and four antinodes

54.

When a wave hits a “rigid barrier” or a fixed boundary, waves are

a)

neither reflected nor inverted

b)

reflected but not inverted

c)

reflected and inverted

d)

inverted but not reflected

55.

Which of the following is defined as: bending around a medium to transfer wave energy?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction 

c)

Diffraction

d)

Interference

56.

Which of the following is defined as: bending around a medium to transfer wave energy?

a)

Reflection 

b)

Refraction 

c)

Diffraction

d)

Interference

57.

Standing waves are produced by periodic waves of

a)

any amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction

b)

the same amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction

c)

any amplitude and wavelength traveling in opposite directions

d)

the same frequency, amplitude, and wavelength traveling in opposite directions

58.

The source of all waves motion is a 

a)

Movement of matter

b)

Harmonic object

c)

Vibration

d)

Region of variable high and low pressure

59.

The distance between successive identical parts of a wave is called its

a)

Frequency 

b)

Period 

c)

Wavelength 

d)

Amplitude

60.

Sound is an example of 

a)

A longitudinal wave

b)

A transverse wave

c)

A standing wave 

d)

A constructive wave

61.

In a vacuum, electromagnetic radiation waves of short wavelengths

a)

travels as fast as radiation of long wavelengths

b)

travels slower than radiation of long wavelengths

c)

travels faster than radiation of long wavelengths

d)

can travel both faster and slower than radiation of long wavelengths

62.

When red light is compared with violet light,

a)

both have the same frequency 

b)

both have the same wavelength

c)

both travel at the same speed

d)

red light travels faster than violet light

63.

In the electromagnetic spectrum, waves that have short wavelength

a)

have the same speed as anything else on the spectrum regardless of their wavelengths

b)

travels slower than radiation of long wavelengths

c)

travels faster than anything on the spectrum

d)

can travel both faster and slower than any type of radiation

64.

The farther light is from a source

a)

the more spread out light becomes

b)

the more condensed light becomes

c)

the more bright light becomes

d)

the more light is available per unit area

65.

If you are reading a book and you move twice as far away from the light source, how does the brightness at the new distance compare with that at the old distance

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

2 times more

66.

According to the law of reflection, if a light source strikes the surface at an angle of 20 degrees, the reflected ray will be

a)

70 degrees from the surface

b)

27 degrees from the surface

c)

20 degrees from the surface

d)

63 degrees from the surface

67.

When red light and green light shine on the same place on a piece of white paper, the spot appears to be

a)

Yellow 

b)

Brown 

c)

White 

d)

Black

68.

Which of the following is NOT an additive primary color? 

a)

Yellow

b)

Blue 

c)

Red 

d)

Green

69.

What color does yellow pigment subtract from white light?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

70.

What color does blue pigment subtract from white light? 

a)

Blue

b)

Red and green 

c)

Violet 

d)

Magenta

71.

Which of the following is NOT a primary subtractive color?  

a)

Yellow

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta 

d)

Blue 

72.

Which pair of glasses is best suited for automobile drivers? The transmission axes are shown by straight lines on the lenses. (Hint: The light reflects off the hood of the car.) 

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

If you looked at a light through the lenses from two polarizing sunglasses that were overlapped at right angles to one another

a)

all of the light would pass through

b)

most of the light would pass through

c)

little of the light would pass through

d)

none of the light would pass through

74.

The shadow produced by an object held close to a piece of paper in sunlight will be

a)

Fuzzy

b)

Sharp

c)

Opaque

d)

Transparent

75.

Light waves are

a)

Transverse waves

b)

Longitudinal waves

c)

Square and flexible 

d)

Tidal waves

76.

Light reflected from the surface of a lake or pool is polarized because the light rays are traveling

a)

Vertically 

b)

Horizontally 

c)

Parallel

d)

Perpendicular

77.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 materials for light transmission? 

a)

Opaque

b)

Transparent

c)

Penumbra

d)

Translucent

78.

Which of these is an example of a TRANSLUCENT material? 

a)

clear glass

b)

Water

c)

Wax paper

d)

Tree bark

79.

Which of these is an example of a TRANSPARENT material?

a)

Desk

b)

Wax paper 

c)

Wooden paper 

d)

Glass water

80.

A "partial" shadow that contains a blurry, fuzzy region is called

a)

Umbra

b)

Penumbra

c)

EM wave

d)

Translucent

81.

The unit of measurement for luminous intensity is

a)

Lumen (lm) 

b)

Candela (Cd) 

c)

Lumen/meter/meter (lm/m2

d)

Newton (N)

82.

White light can be diffraction by a glass prism into

a)

ROYGBIV

b)

Black

c)

RGB

d)

CMYK

83.

The color that travels fastest through clear glass is

a)

Red

b)

Green 

c)

Violet

d)

All of them-they have the same speed

84.

Complementary colors are two colors that 

a)

look good together

b)

are primary colors

c)

are next to each other on the color chart

d)

produced white light when added together

85.

The 3 paint colors that are useful for color subtraction are 

a)

red, green and blue

b)

red, blue and yellow

c)

magenta, cyan and yellow

d)

magenta, green and yellow

86.

The color of an opaque object is determined by the light that is

a)

Transmitted

b)

Absorbed

c)

Reflected 

d)

Deflected

87.

When r ed and blue light shine on a white sheet, the resulting color is

a)

Blue

b)

Cyan

c)

Yellow 

d)

Magenta

88.

The complementary color of green is

a)

Red

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

Yellow

89.

Which of the following is NOT part of the electromagnetic spectrum? 

a)

Sound

b)

Light

c)

UV

d)

Infrared

90.

The color of an object that we see with our eyes is determined by the 

a)

frequency of light absorbed by the object

b)

frequency of light is reflected by the object 

c)

colors of light shining on an object

d)

All of the above  

91.

Magenta light is really a mixture of

a)

red and blue light

b)

red and cyan light

c)

red and yellow light

d)

yellow and green light

92.

A sheet of red paper will look BLACK when illuminated with

a)

red light

b)

yellow light 

c)

magenta light 

d)

cyan light

93.

The cyan color of ocean water is due to the fact that water absorbs what color?

a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

94.

The colors of light given off by the spectra of elements is due to the fact that

a)

light is colored

b)

atoms of the elements become excited

c)

elements react

d)

elements absorb the heat

95.

The 3 primary colors of light addition are

a)

red, yellow and green

b)

red, yellow and blue

c)

red, green and blue

d)

yellow, cyan and red

96.

The color BLACK is a

a)

refraction of all colors on the spectrum

b)

reflection of all colors on the spectrum

c)

the absorption of all colors on the spectrum

d)

diffraction of all colors on the spectrum

97.

A RED apple looks RED because

a)

it absorbs red, orange and blue

b)

it absorbs red, yellow and green

c)

it absorbs all colors and reflects red

d)

it reflects all colors except red

98.

Which color is seen in equal brightness and intensity by ALL? 

a)

Green

b)

Red

c)

White

d)

Blue

99.

When describing "how bright" light is, the correct term is

a)

luminous flux

b)

luminous intensity

c)

Illumination

d)

Reflections

100.

If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 29° from the normal, the reflected ray will be

a)

29 degrees from the normal

b)

27 degrees from the normal

c)

61 degrees from the normal 

d)

36 degrees from the normal