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Combined Science Semester Exam 2022

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of a force?

a)

Net force equal 0N and there is no change in the object's motion

b)

the overall force acting on an object after all forces are combined

c)

a push or a pull that acts on an object

d)

The force does not equal 0N, the object accelerates

2.

What is the definition of net force?

a)

a push or a pull that acts on an object

b)

Net force equal 0N and there is no change in the object's motion

c)

the overall force acting on an object after all the forces are combined

d)

The force does not equal 0N, the object accelerates

3.

What do we call a force that has a net force of zero Newtons and the object does not change its motion?

a)

balanced force

b)

unbalanced force

c)

acceleration force

d)

net force

4.

What do we call a force that causes an object to accelerate?

a)

net force

b)

moving force

c)

acceleration force

d)

unbalanced force

5.

What is the magnitude and direction of the force in the free body diagram shown?

a)

70 N right

b)

70 N left

c)

50 N right

d)

50 N left

6.

What is the magnitude and direction of the force in the free body diagram shown?

a)

20 N, no change in motion

b)

20 N right

c)

20 N left

d)

0 N , no change in motion

7.

What is the magnitude and direction of the force in the free body diagram shown?

a)

5 N down

b)

0 N, no change in movement

c)

15 N up

d)

15 N down

8.

An object in motion tends to stay in motion and an object at rest tends to stay at rest until acted on by an unbalanced force is which of Newton's laws?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

9.

The acceleration of an object is dependent upon the net force acting upon the object and the mass of the object is which of Newton's laws?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

10.

What is defined a push or pull?

a)

force

b)

net force

c)

an unbalanced force

d)

a balanced force

11.

Calculate the net force

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

0

12.

If you are pushing a 1200 kg car with an acceleration of 0.5 m/s2 , what is the force you have applied to the car?

a)

600

b)

2400

c)

4.16

d)

60

13.

calculate the force applied to a 5 kg shopping cart if it accelerates at 3 m/s2

a)

15

b)

1.67

c)

0.6

d)

1.57

14.

If you INCREASE the force applied to a 50 kg crate, what happens to the ACCELERATION of the crate

a)

acceleration increases

b)

acceleration decreases

c)

force increases

d)

this cannot be determined

15.

Based on Newton's 2nd Law of Motion, which statement is true about the acceleration of wagon A and wagon B if both are being pulled with the same external force

a)

wagon A will have a greater acceleration than wagon B

b)

wagon B will have a greater acceleration than wagon A

c)

wagon A and B will have the same accelerations

d)

the wagons will both have and acceleration of zero

16.

Based on Newton's 2nd Law of Motion, which statement is true about the force of the wagon with the kids if the mass of kids is identical but wagon A is moving TWICE the speed because it has more people pushing than that of wagon B

a)

wagon A will have a greater force

b)

wagon B will have a greater force

c)

the force will be the same for both wagons

d)

the force will be zero for both wagons

17.
Bill jogs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home.  He does so in 267 seconds.  What is Bill's average speed?
a)
about 3 m/s
b)
about 1.5 m/s
c)
0
d)
about 4 m/s
18.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
S = t/d
b)
S = d/t
c)
S = d x t
d)
S = t x d
19.

A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes her 10 seconds to finish. What is her average speed?

a)

10 m/s

b)

1000 m/s

c)

100 seconds

d)

10 seconds

20.
Dave runs a 400 m race with a speed of 4 m/s. What time will it take him to finish the race?
a)
400 minutes
b)
100 minutes
c)
100 seconds 
d)
.25 seconds 
21.
Which of the following is a unit of time?
a)
sec
b)
mi
c)
m/s
d)
km
22.
Which of the following is a unit of speed ?
a)
sec
b)
mi
c)
m/s
d)
min
23.
Which of the following is a unit of distance ?
a)
miles/hr
b)
mi
c)
s
d)
min
24.
Which of the following is a unit of distance ?
a)
miles/hr
b)
hr
c)
km
d)
min
25.
Which of the following is a unit of time?
a)
km/hr
b)
hr
c)
km
d)
mi
26.
Which of the following is a unit of speed?
a)
km/hr
b)
hr
c)
km
d)
s
27.
A train travels 25 km in .5 hrs. How fast is the train going?
a)
25 miles/hr
b)
5 miles/hr
c)
125 km/hr
d)
50 km/hr
28.
A different runner trains for a marathon for 6 months by eating nothing but bags of french fries from McDonalds. They run a 10 meter dash in 100 seconds. What is their speed?
a)
0.01 m/s
b)
0.1 m/s
c)
1 m/s
d)
10 m/s
29.
a)
b)
c)
d)
30.
a)
b)
c)
d)
31.

Where is the object stopped?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

Where is the object moving back to the origin?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

33.

Where is the object moving away from the origin at the quickest speed?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.

What is the speed of the object during segment B?

a)

0.5 m/s

b)

1.3 m/s

c)

2 m/s

d)

2.5 m/s

35.

Which graph shows the object moving at a constant speed away from the origin?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

Which graph shows the object moving from fast to slow?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.

A student walks 50 meters in 100 seconds. Calculate the speed.

a)

0.5

b)

0.5 m/s

c)

500 m/s

d)

2 m/s

38.

Which line shows the slower pace?

a)

dashed line

b)

solid line

39.

How do you find the speed from a distance-time graph?

a)

Find the area under the graph

b)

Find the gradient of the line

c)

Read the height of the graph

40.

How long is the train stopped for in total?

a)

5 minutes

b)

7.5 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

2.5 minutes

41.

Calculate the acceleration of the train at 2.5 minutes

a)

1 km/m2

b)

3.33 km/m2

c)

0.3 km/m2

d)

7.5 km/m2

42.

How far does the train travel in the first 10 minutes?

a)

1.5 km

b)

11.25 km

c)

3.75 km

d)

7.5 km

43.

What is the speed after 2 seconds?

a)

40 m/s

b)

20 m/s

c)

10 m/s

d)

40 m

44.

What was McKenzie's average speed for the entire journey?

a)

6.25 km/h

b)

12.5 km/h

c)

25 km/h

d)

100 km/h

45.

At what point is the speed the greatest?

a)

C-D

b)

B-C

c)

A-B

d)

D-E

46.

What is happening during point C to D?

a)

not moving

b)

increasing speed at a constant rate

c)

moving at a constant speed

d)

moving at 0 m/s2 acceleration

47.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
48.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
49.

How long did it take Charlie to finish the race?

a)

A)14 meters

b)

B)12 seconds

c)

C)17 seconds

d)

D)14 seconds

50.

What is this graph showing?

a)

Gradually slowing down

b)

Gradually speeding up

c)

Constant speed

d)

Stopped

51.

What is this graph showing?

a)

Constant speed

b)

Gradually speeding up

c)

Gradually slowing down

d)

At rest

52.
the starting materials in a chemical reaction
a)
Products
b)
Reactants
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
53.
a substance that is formed as the result of a chemical reaction
a)
Product 
b)
Reactant
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
54.
a chemical reaction that releases energy by light or heat
a)
Endothermic Reaction
b)
Exothermic Reaction
c)
Diffusion
d)
Fission
55.
a process or reaction in which the system absorbs energy from its surroundings; usually, but not always, in the form of heat
a)
Endothermic Reaction
b)
Exothermic Reaction
c)
Diffusion
d)
Fission
56.
type of reaction in which a compound is broken down into its simple elements
a)
Double Displacement
b)
Single Displacement
c)
Synthesis
d)
Decomposition
57.
In an endothermic reaction, heat is ...
a)
taken in or absorbed
b)
given out or released 
58.
Exothermic reactions...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
c)
Release Color
d)
Absorb Color
59.
What is essential for a combustion reaction to begin?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Fuel 
c)
Fuel, oxygen and heat
d)
Water and oxygen
60.
Which of the following shows the correct way to balance the chemical equation?
Fe + O2 -> Fe2O3
a)
4Fe + 3O2 -> 2Fe2O3
b)
2 Fe + 3O2 -> Fe2O6
c)
4 Fe + O6 -> 2Fe2O3
d)
None of the options are correctly balanced.
61.
Balance this equation...
HgO --> Hg + O2
a)
It is balanced 
b)
2HgO --> Hg + O2
c)
2HgO --> 2Hg + O2
d)
I don't know...Oh well!
62.
Ice melting
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
63.
What happens in ALL chemical changes?
a)
Change in state of matter
b)
A new substance is formed
c)
Bubbles are produced
d)
An explosion
64.
Is the following equation balanced or unbalanced?
Fe + S --> FeS
a)
balanced
b)
unbalanced
65.

In reactions, products must be equal to..

a)

Products

b)

Reactants

c)

Starters

d)

Enders

66.

According to the law of conservation of mass, how does the amount of each element on the product side compare to each element on the reactant side?

a)

The amount of atoms on each side is equal

b)

The amount of atoms on the product side is greater

c)

The amount of atoms on the reactant side is greater

d)

Depends on the reaction

67.
Which of the following describes a precipitate?
a)
a liquid forms when a block of metal is heated
b)
a solid forms when one liquid is poured into another
c)
a gas forms when a solid is placed in a liquid
d)
bubbles form when an acid is poured on a rock
68.
What does the 6 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
69.
What does 12.011 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
70.
What does the C represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
71.
These are found on the Periodic Table.
a)
Compounds
b)
Elements
c)
Mixtures
72.

the basic structural unit of matter

a)

atom

b)

matter

c)

element

d)

nucleus

73.

the positively charged subatomic particle contained in the nucleus of an atom

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

matter

74.

a subatomic particle, contained in the nucleus of an atom, having the same mass as a proton but no electrical charge

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

matter

75.

a negatively charged subatomic particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

matter

76.

a unique number for each element that equals the number of protons in an atom of that element

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic number

d)

atomic mass

77.
The atomic number of this pictured element is
a)
28
b)
58.6934
c)
Ni
d)
Nickel
78.

where are the metaloids found

a)

far left, vertical

b)

stair step/diagonal

c)

far right horizontal

d)

at the bottom

79.

A row on the Periodic Table of Elements

a)

family

b)

period

c)

row

d)

isotope

80.
___________ is the only metal that is a liquid at room temperature.
a)
Platinum
b)
Water
c)
Tin
d)
Mercury
81.

Metals (select all that apply)

a)

are found on the right side of the periodic table.

b)

are found on the left side of the periodic table.

c)

are good conductors of heat and electricity.

d)

are brittle.

e)

are malleable and ductile.

82.

Nonmetals (select all that apply)

a)

are found on the right side of the periodic table.

b)

are found on the left side of the periodic table.

c)

are good conductors of heat and electricity.

d)

are brittle.

e)

can be solid, liquids, or gases at room temperature.

83.
What does malleable mean?
a)
able to bend
b)
will break easily
c)
can be used for wire
d)
is shiny
84.
What does ductile mean?
a)
electricity flows easily
b)
quacks like a duck
c)
can be drawn into a wire
d)
able to bend
85.
Where are the non-metallic elements found in the periodic table?
a)
In the middle
b)
In the top rows
c)
On the left-hand side
d)
On the right-hand side
86.
The list which contains only metals is .......
a)
aluminium, copper, nitrogen
b)
iron, oxygen, hydrogen
c)
iron, silver, aluminium
d)
iron, sulphur, copper
87.
Brittle
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
88.
Good conductor of heat
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
89.
Which of the following is a metal?
a)
chlorine
b)
sodium
c)
Oxygen
90.
What is NOT a property of metals
a)
brittle
b)
ductile
c)
malleable
d)
conductor
91.
What property of metals means that heat and electricity can move easily through?
a)
luster
b)
conductor
c)
malleable
d)
ductile
92.
the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA
a)
adenine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
nucleotide
93.
nitrogen base that pairs with guanine
a)
adenine
b)
cytosine
c)
nucloetide
d)
deoxyribose
94.
The shape of DNA.
a)
double helix
b)
nucleotide
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
single stranded
95.
Nitrogen base that pairs with adenine
a)
cytosine
b)
DNA polymerase
c)
deoxyribose
d)
thymine
96.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
97.
If we think of DNA as a ladder, which parts are the steps of the ladder?
a)
the nitrogenous base pairs
b)
the phosphate-sugar backbone
c)
the genes
d)
the phospholipid bilayer
98.
If we think of DNA as a ladder, which parts are the sides of the ladder?
a)
the nitrogenous base pairs
b)
the phosphate-sugar backbone
c)
the genes
d)
the phospholipid bilayer
99.
Autosomes are
a)
chromosomes found in autotrophs, only
b)
chromosomes that automatically correct all errors in the DNA
c)
chromosomes that determine traits other than sex
d)
chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual
100.

Coat color in a dog breed is determined by incomplete dominance where three colors are produced (Brown, tan and white), and the brown coat allele (B) has incomplete dominance over the white coat allele (b). Which offspring ratio would be expected from a cross between a brown dog and a white dog?

a)

A. 2 BB: 2 Bb

b)

B. 4 Bb

c)

C. 1 BB: 2 Bb: 1 bb

d)

D. 2 BB: 2 bb

101.

How many pairs of chromosomes does each person have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

1,046,023

102.

The trait that will always be expressed if at least one copy of an allele is present.

a)

Recessive

b)

Dominant

c)

DNA

103.

The trait that will be expressed only if two copies of the allele are present.

a)

Recessive

b)

Dominant

c)

DNA

104.

What is it called when a gene carries two different types of alleles?

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Monozygous

d)

Trizygous

105.

What is it called when a gene carries two of the same alleles?

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Monozygous

d)

Mamazygous

106.

Which of the following is heterozygous?

a)

FF

b)

Gg

c)

tt

d)

RR

107.

Which of the following is homozygous recessive?

a)

rr

b)

TT

c)

AA

d)

Ff

108.

Which of the following is heterozygous?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

22

109.

Brown eye color is dominant. Blue eye color is recessive. Select the combination of letters below that would represent a person being a purebred for brown eyes. In other words, which option represents a person having both alleles for brown eyes? (hint: think of capitalization of letters and what is used for dominant vs. recessive).

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

aA

110.

Brown eye color is dominant. Blue eye color is recessive. Select the person that is a purebred for blue eyes.

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aA

d)

aa

111.

What is the definition of the phenotype?

a)

The physical traits of an organism

b)

The genetic makeup of an organism

c)

The letters eg, Aa

d)

How the genotype is expressed.

112.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
113.

Why does Scar have a scar but his brother Mufasa does not?

a)

Mufasa did not inherit it

b)

The scar gene skipped a generation

c)

The scar is an environmental trait

d)

Mufasa is not his brother

114.
The genotype is the ______________.
a)
physical appearance
b)
Genetic makeup
c)
Alleles gained from one parent
115.
How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
it varies
116.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human female with the genetic disorder known as Turner syndrome. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the mutation is a result of

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

117.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human male. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the abnormality in this karyotype is:

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

118.
Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.
a)
female
b)
male
119.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

No chromosomal abnormalities

d)

Trisomy 18

120.

In a pedigree chart, men are represented by

a)

Circles

b)

Diamonds

c)

Squares

121.

In a pedigree chart, women are represented by

a)

Circles

b)

Diamonds

c)

Squares

122.

In a pedigree, individuals that are unaffected are represented as shapes that are

a)

Not shaded

b)

Fully shaded

c)

Half shaded

123.

In a pedigree, individuals that are affected are represented as shapes that are

a)

Not shaded

b)

Fully shaded

c)

Half shaded

124.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
125.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
126.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
127.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
128.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
129.
If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indication that the trait is....
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
c)
incompletely dominant
d)
co-dominant
130.

Objective #13

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait. What is the genotype of the father (square) in generation 1?

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

aa

d)

A?

131.

In this pedigree, the shading represents people in the family with dark hair while the unshaded represents blondes. Is dark hair controlled by a dominant or recessive allele?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

132.
How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?
a)
Cousins
b)
Dad and Daughter
c)
Uncle and Niece
d)
Grandpa and Granddaughter

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