Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam - Networking

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A self-contained network that spans a small area, such as a single building, floor, or room.
a)
LAN (Local Area Network)
b)
client
c)
AD DS (Active Directory Domain Services)
d)
AD (Active Directory)
2.
•Receives incoming data from one of its ports and redirects it to another port or multiple ports
a)
switch
b)
LAN (Local Area Network)
c)
client
d)
AD DS (Active Directory Domain Services)
3.
•All devices connect to one central device (usually a switch)
a)
Star Topology
b)
switch
c)
LAN (Local Area Network)
d)
client
4.
where each device connects to multiple other devices
a)
Mesh Topology
b)
Star Topology
c)
switch
d)
LAN (Local Area Network)
5.
A network port used to attach a device to a network
a)
NIC (Network Interface Card)
b)
Mesh Topology
c)
Star Topology
d)
switch
6.
A central conduit that connects the segments (pieces) of a network
a)
backbone
b)
NIC (Network Interface Card)
c)
Mesh Topology
d)
Star Topology
7.
nodes are connected in a ring, with one node connecting only to its two neighboring nodes
a)
Ring Topology
b)
backbone
c)
NIC (Network Interface Card)
d)
Mesh Topology
8.
A device that manages traffic between two or more networks
a)
Router
b)
Ring Topology
c)
backbone
d)
NIC (Network Interface Card)
9.
A small network that can comprise up to 10 nodes.
a)
SOHO (Small office/home office)
b)
Router
c)
Ring Topology
d)
backbone
10.
any computer on a network that hosts a resource such as an application or data
a)
Host
b)
SOHO (Small office/home office)
c)
Router
d)
Ring Topology
11.
is any computer or device on a network that can be addressed on the local network.
a)
Node
b)
Host
c)
SOHO (Small office/home office)
d)
Router
12.
A group of LANs that spread over a wide geographical area
a)
WAN (Wide Area Network)
b)
Node
c)
Host
d)
SOHO (Small office/home office)
13.
A group of connected LANs in the same geographical area also called a CAN (Campus Area Network)
a)
MAN (metropolitan area network)
b)
WAN (Wide Area Network)
c)
Node
d)
Host
14.
•A network of personal devices such as your smartphone and your computer
a)
PAN (Personal Area Network)
b)
MAN (metropolitan area network)
c)
WAN (Wide Area Network)
d)
Node
15.
The resources a network makes available to its users, including applications and the data provided by these applications.
a)
network services
b)
PAN (Personal Area Network)
c)
MAN (metropolitan area network)
d)
WAN (Wide Area Network)
16.
An application that has two components. The client software requests data from the server software on the same or another computer.
a)
client-server applications
b)
network services
c)
PAN (Personal Area Network)
d)
MAN (metropolitan area network)
17.
The dominant set of protocols for communication on a network
a)
TCP/IP
b)
client-server applications
c)
network services
d)
PAN (Personal Area Network)
18.
the protocol used for transmitting web servesover the Internet
a)
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
b)
TCP/IP
c)
client-server applications
d)
network services
19.
A method of encrypting data to provide security for communications over networks such as the Internet. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a later version on SSL
a)
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
b)
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
c)
TCP/IP
d)
client-server applications
20.
Gives a secure transmission
a)
HTTPS (HTTP Secure)
b)
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
c)
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
d)
TCP/IP
21.
A communications protocol that enables sending email from a client to a server or between servers.
a)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
b)
HTTPS (HTTP Secure)
c)
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
d)
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
22.
A protocol used from retrieving email from a mailbox on the mail server.
a)
POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
b)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
c)
HTTPS (HTTP Secure)
d)
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
23.
client application manages the email while its stored on the server
a)
IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol, version 4)
b)
POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
c)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
d)
HTTPS (HTTP Secure)
24.
A protocol used to move files and folders over a network or the Internet.
a)
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
b)
IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol, version 4)
c)
POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
d)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
25.
An encrypted and secure file transfer protocol
a)
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)
b)
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
c)
IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol, version 4)
d)
POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
26.
allow an administrator or other user to remote in or control a computer remotely
a)
Telnet
b)
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)
c)
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
d)
IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol, version 4)
27.
creates a secure channel or tunnel between two computers
a)
SSH (Secure Shell)
b)
Telnet
c)
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)
d)
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
28.
An application that is installed and executed on a server, and is presented to a user working at a client computer.
a)
remote application
b)
SSH (Secure Shell)
c)
Telnet
d)
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)
29.
A feature of Windows Server 2008 and later editions of Windows Server that allows technicians to manage remote applications.
a)
Remote Desktop Services
b)
remote application
c)
SSH (Secure Shell)
d)
Telnet
30.
Provides a secure, encrypted transmissions that allow a technician to remote in, to access a remote computer from the technician's local computer
a)
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
b)
Remote Desktop Services
c)
remote application
d)
SSH (Secure Shell)
31.
How the parts of a whole work together
a)
Topology
b)
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
c)
Remote Desktop Services
d)
remote application
32.
refers to a network's hardware and how computers, other devices, and cables fit together to form the physical network
a)
physical topology
b)
Topology
c)
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
d)
Remote Desktop Services
33.
has to do with software and describes how access to the network is controlled
a)
logical topology
b)
physical topology
c)
Topology
d)
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
34.
control access to the entire network
a)
NOSes (network operating systems)
b)
logical topology
c)
physical topology
d)
Topology
35.
the operating system of each computer on the network is responsible for controlling access to its resources without centralized control
a)
P2P (Peer to Peer) network model
b)
NOSes (network operating systems)
c)
logical topology
d)
physical topology
36.
The property of a network that allows you to add nodes or increase its size easily.
a)
Scalable
b)
P2P (Peer to Peer) network model
c)
NOSes (network operating systems)
d)
logical topology
37.
A network where resources are managed by the NOS via a centralized directory database
a)
client- server model
b)
Scalable
c)
P2P (Peer to Peer) network model
d)
NOSes (network operating systems)
38.
In context of Windows Server NOSes, a group of users, servers, and other resources that share account and security policies
a)
domain
b)
client- server model
c)
Scalable
d)
P2P (Peer to Peer) network model
39.
The centralized directory database that contains user account information and security for the entire group of computers on a network.
a)
AD (Active Directory)
b)
domain
c)
client- server model
d)
Scalable
40.
The Active Directory service that manages the process that allows a user to sign on to a network from any computer on the network and get access to the resources that Active Directory allows.
a)
AD DS (Active Directory Domain Services)
b)
AD (Active Directory)
c)
domain
d)
client- server model
41.
A computer or application that makes a request from another computer or application
a)
client
b)
AD DS (Active Directory Domain Services)
c)
AD (Active Directory)
d)
domain
42.

Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT)

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?

a)

statistical time division multiplexing

b)

dense wavelength division multiplexing

c)

coarse wavelength division multiplexing

d)

spaced wavelength division multiplexing

44.

Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT)is?

a)

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal

b)

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source

c)

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source

d)

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius

45.

Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit?

a)

joules

b)

volt

c)

decibels

d)

farads

46.

Which statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?

a)

A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device

b)

A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room

c)

A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes

d)

Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs

47.

Bidirectional transceivers utilize what technology to separate the data in each direction?

a)

wavelength division multiplexing

b)

time division multiplexing

c)

frequency division multiplexing

d)

statistical time division multiplexing

48.

Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal?

a)

full-duplex

b)

duplex

c)

half-duplex

d)

simplex

49.

Which statement correctly describes "jitter"?

a)

Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order

b)

Jitter is the loss of 50% or more packets in a given data stream, causing a connection to falter

c)

Jitter is the fluctuation of a signal's strength as it travels away from its source

d)

Jitter is the transmission of signal onto unintended pairs in a copper cable

50.

The amount of data that could theoretically be transmitted during a given period of time.

a)

bandwidth

b)

throughput

51.

The measure of how much data is actually transmitted during a given period of time.

a)

bandwidth

b)

throughput

52.

The loss of a signla's strength as it travels away from its source

a)

Attenuation

b)

Jitter

c)

Throughput

d)

Bandwidth

53.

Crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal

a)

Crosstalk

b)

NEXT (near end crosstalk)

c)

Alien crosstalk

d)

FEXT (far end crosstalk)

54.

A type of multiplexing that assigns time slots to nodes, but then adjusts these slots

a)

STDM (Statistical time division multiplexing)

b)

TDM (time division multiplexing)

c)

RTT (Round trip time)

d)

RFI (radio frequency interference)

55.

Routers operate at which layer of the OSI model?

a)

physical

b)

transport

c)

network

d)

MAC sublayer of the data link layer

e)

session

56.

Bits are packaged into frames at which layer of the OSI model?

a)

data link

b)

transport

c)

physical

d)

presentation

e)

application

57.

Which of the following are benefits of using a layered network model?


A . it specifies how changes to one layer must be propagated through the other layers

B . it facilitates troubleshooting

C . it focuses on details rather than general functions of networking

D . it breaks the complex process of networking into more manageable chunks

E . it allows layers developed by different vendors to interoperate.

a)

A and B only

b)

B, D, and E

c)

A and C only

d)

none of the above

e)

all of the above

58.

The layers of the OSI model, from the top down, are:

a)

application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

b)

session, presentation, data transport, MAC, network, physical

c)

physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application

d)

presentation, application, session, network, transport, data link, physical

e)

application, encryption, network, transport, logical link control, physical

59.

Which of the following operate at the presentation layer?

A . MIDI

B . FTP

C . SMTP

D . TFTP

E . JPEG

a)

A and B

b)

A, C, and E

c)

C and E

d)

A and E

e)

none of the above

60.

Which of the following are transport layer protocols?

a)

TCP and UDP

b)

IP

c)

FTAM

d)

IP and TFTP

e)

TFTP

61.

Which of the following are considered to be the upper layer protocols?

a)

presentation and session

b)

application and presentation

c)

application, presentation, and session

d)

application, presentation, session, and transport

e)

application

62.

Flow control takes place at which layer?

a)

physical

b)

transport

c)

network

d)

MAC sublayer of the data link layer

e)

session

63.

Encryption takes place at which layer?

a)

application

b)

presentation

c)

session

d)

transport

e)

data link

64.

True or False: The network layer uses physical addresses to route data to destination hosts.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Error detection and recovery takes place at which layer?

a)

transport

b)

presentation

c)

data link

d)

application

e)

network

66.

Which layer establishes, maintains, and terminates communications between applications located on different devices?

a)

application

b)

presentation

c)

session

d)

network

e)

data link

67.

IP is implemented at which OSI model layer?

a)

transport

b)

session

c)

data link

d)

network

e)

logical link control

68.

Which layer handles the formatting of application data so that it will be readable by the destination system?

a)

application

b)

presentation

c)

session

d)

transport

e)

data link

69.

Which of the following are presentation layer standards?

(choose the best answer)

A. MIDI

B. TIFF

C. JPEG

D. MPEG

E. GIF

a)

C and D

b)

B, C, and E

c)

B, C, D, and E

d)

A only

e)

all of the above

70.

Packets are found at which layer?

a)

data link

b)

transport

c)

network

d)

session

e)

physical

71.

Which layer translates between physical (MAC) and logical addresses?

a)

network

b)

data link

c)

transport

d)

physical

e)

session

72.

What does OSI stand for?

a)

International Standards Organization

b)

Open Systems Interconnect

c)

Operating Standard Information

d)

Operating System Interconnection

e)

Open Systems Interface

73.

Repeaters and hubs operate at which layer?

a)

network

b)

data link

c)

transport

d)

physical

e)

session

74.

Bit synchronization is handled at which layer?

a)

data link

b)

session

c)

transport

d)

presentation

e)

physical

75.

True or False: most logical addresses are preset in network interface cards at the factory

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?

a)

physical

b)

data link

c)

transport

d)

network

e)

session

77.

What are the sublayers of the data link layer?

a)

MAC and IPX

b)

hardware and frame

c)

MAC and LLC

d)

WAN and LAN

e)

TFTP and telnet

78.

Which layer translates between physical and logical addresses?

a)

the MAC sublayer of the data link layer

b)

transport

c)

physical

d)

application

e)

network

79.

Which layer is responsible for packet sequencing, acknowledgments, and requests for retransmission?

a)

The MAC sublayer of the data link layer

b)

transport

c)

physical

d)

application

e)

network

Similar Resources on Wayground

KS3 EOU Hardware Test

79 questions

KS3 EOU Hardware Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 11th Grade

Lớp 12_Kiểm tra cuối học kì I

80 questions

Lớp 12_Kiểm tra cuối học kì I

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

First Quarter Summative Test - October 23, 2023

80 questions

First Quarter Summative Test - October 23, 2023

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

TKJ_

80 questions

TKJ_

quiz

Worksheet

•

1st - 10th Grade

Unit 1 Troubleshooting Methodology and Hardware Basics

80 questions

Unit 1 Troubleshooting Methodology and Hardware Basics

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

5.0 - Standard Camp Final

75 questions

5.0 - Standard Camp Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 12th Grade

EMPOWERMENT ICT - LONG QUIZ

80 questions

EMPOWERMENT ICT - LONG QUIZ

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

ULANGAN INFORMATIKA

83 questions

ULANGAN INFORMATIKA

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade