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Astronomy

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A system of referents that may be used to locate objects in the

The sky is the ____________

a)

celestial globe

b)

celestial coordinates

c)

celestial sphere.

d)

celestial maps.

2.

Our Sun is______

a)

one of several stars in the solar system

b)

the brightest star in the night sky

c)

an average star, considering mass and age

d)

a protostar.

3.

A star's brightness at a given standard distance varies

a)

apparent magnitude

b)

apparent longitude

c)

absolute magnitude

d)

absolute latitude

4.

The total amount of energy emitted by a star's surface.

Each second is spent in space

a)

stellar radiation

b)

luminosity

c)

convection

d)

dispersion

5.

Which of the following color of starlight is emitted by the hottest star?

a)

Blue-white

b)

Red

c)

Orange-red

d)

Yellow

6.

The color of a star is related to its

a)

composition

b)

apparent magnitude

c)

absolute magnitude

d)

surface temperature

7.

The graph of temperature and brightness used to identify stars was

designed by

a)

Russell

b)

Hubble

c)

Hubble and Russell

d)

Hertzsprung and Russell

8.

A Cepheid variable star's period-brightness connection

permits astronomers to calculate

a)

distance

b)

age of stars

c)

luminosity

d)

size

9.

Where does our Sun belong based on the Hertzsprung-Russell classification of stars?

a)

Main sequence

b)

Red giant

c)

White dwarf

d)

Cepheid variable

10.

A star's lifespan is determined by its

a)

composition

b)

mass

c)

temperature

d)

location

11.

The stages in the life of a star are

a)

protostar, main sequence, white dwarf, and red giant.

b)

protostar, main sequence, red giant, and red dwarf

c)

protostar, main sequence, red giant, and white dwarf

d)

protostar, main sequence, red giant, and nebulae

12.

The outer shell of a less massive star ages as it grows older.

Occasionally thrown into space, producing a

a)

white dwarf

b)

black hole

c)

Cepheid variable

d)

planetary nebula

13.

The collapse of a massive star

a)

results in a tremendous explosion called a supernova

b)

forms a white dwarf

c)

forms planetary nebulae

d)

results in a tremendous explosion called a pulsar

14.

A rapidly rotating neutron star with a strong magnetic field is a

a)

neutron star

b)

pulsar

c)

supernova

d)

black hole

15.

The product of the collapse of a massive star with a core three times the mass of our Sun is a

a)

neutron star

b)

pulsar

c)

red giant

d)

black hole

16.

The basic unit of the universe is a

a)

star

b)

solar system

c)

galaxy

d)

constellation

17.

A galaxy is held together by

a)

stellar dust

b)

gravitational attraction

c)

electronic attractions

d)

pulsating stars

18.

The diameter of the Milky Way is about

a)

500 light-years

b)

50,000 light-years

c)

100,000 light-years

d)

200 million light-years

19.

Approximately how old is the universe?

a)

5 billion years

b)

10 billion years

c)

14 billion years

d)

25 billion years

20.

Stars twinkle and planets do not twinkle because

a)

planets shine by reflected light, and stars produce their own light

b)

all stars are pulsing light sources

c)

stars appear as point sources of light, and planets are disk sources

d)

All of the above are correct

21.

How much of the celestial meridian can you see from any given point on the surface of Earth?

a)

One-fourth

b)

One-half

c)

Three-fourths

d)

All of it

22.

Which of the following coordinate system of lines depends on where you are on the surface of Earth?

a)

Celestial meridian

b)

Celestial equator

c)

North celestial pole

d)

None of the above is correct

23.

The angle that you see Polaris, the North Star, above the horizon is about the same as your approximate location on

a)

the celestial meridian

b)

the celestial equator

c)

a northern longitude

d)

a northern latitude

24.

If you were at the north celestial pole looking down on Earth, how would it appear to be moving?

a)

Clockwise

b)

Counterclockwise

c)

One way, then the other as a pendulum

d)

It would not appear to move from this location

25.

Your answer to question 24 means that Earth turns

a)

from the west toward the east

b)

from the east toward the west

c)

at the same rate it is moving in its orbit

d)

not at all.

26.

Your answer to question 25 means that the Moon, Sun, and stars that are not circumpolar appear to rise in the

a)

west, move in an arc, then set in the east

b)

north, move in an arc, then set in the south

c)

east, move in an arc, then set in the west

d)

south, move in an arc, then set in the north

27.

How many degrees of arc above the horizon is a star located halfway between directly over your head and the horizon?

a)

45°

b)

90°

c)

135°

d)

180°

28.

In which part of a newborn star does the nuclear fusion take place?

a)

Convection zone

b)

Radiation zone

c)

Core

d)

All of the above are correct

29.

Which of the following stars would have the longer life spans?

a)

The less massive

b)

Between the more massive and the less massive

c)

The more massive

d)

All have the same life span

30.

A brilliant blue star in the main sequence is almost certainly

a)

very massive

b)

less massive

c)

between the more massive and the less massive

d)

None of the above is correct

31.

The brightest stars on the list are the

a)

first magnitude

b)

second magnitude

c)

fifth magnitude

d)

sixth magnitude

32.

The basic property of a main sequence star that determines most of its other properties, including its location on the H-R diagram, is

a)

brightness

b)

color

c)

temperature

d)

mass

33.

All of the elements that are more massive than the element iron were formed in a

a)

nova

b)

white dwarf

c)

supernova

d)

black hole

34.

If the core remaining after a supernova has a mass between 1.5 and 3 solar masses, it collapses to form a

a)

white dwarf

b)

neutron star

c)

red giant

d)

black hole

35.

The relationship between the different shapes of galaxies is that

a)

spherical galaxies form first, which flatten out to elliptical galaxies, then spin off spirals until they break up in irregular shapes.

b)

irregular shapes form first, which collapse to spiral galaxies, then condense to spherical shapes.

c)

there is no relationship as the different shapes probably resulted from different rates of swirling gas clouds.

d)

None of the above is correct.

36.

Microwave radiation from space, measurements of the expansion of the universe, the age of the oldest stars in the Milky Way galaxy, and ratios of radioactive decay products all indicate that the universe is about how old?

a)

6,000 years

b)

4.5 billion years

c)

13.7 billion years

d)

100,000 billion years

37.

Whether the universe will continue to expand or will collapse back into another big bang seems to depend on what property of the universe?

a)

The density of matter in the universe

b)

The age of galaxies compared to the age of their stars

c)

The availability of gases and dust between the galaxies

d)

The number of black holes

38.

Distance in outer space is measured in terms of

a)

kilometers

b)

megameters

c)

light-years

d)

miles

39.

You are studying physical science in Tennessee. Where are you located with respect to the celestial equator?

a)

North of the celestial equator

b)

South of the celestial equator

c)

On the celestial equator

d)

East of the celestial equator

40.

The Crab Nebula is what remains of a

a)

pulsar

b)

supernova

c)

black hole

d)

constellation

41.

The interior of an average star is proposed to contain all of the following except a

a)

conduction zone

b)

core

c)

radiation zone

d)

convection zone

42.

Approximately 1.4 × 1017 kg of matter is converted to energy each year by the Sun. How much matter is converted to energy in 20 years?

a)

4.2 × 1025 kg

b)

1.3 × 1034 kg

c)

2.8 × 1021 kg

d)

2.8 × 1018 kg

43.

Red giant stars are

a)

bright, low-temperature giants

b)

dim, low-temperature giants

c)

bright, high-temperature giants

d)

dim, high-temperature giants

44.

Stars that are faint, very dense, white hot, and close to the end of their lifetime are

a)

red giant stars

b)

novas

c)

white dwarf stars

d)

Cepheid variable stars

45.

Which of the following elements forms in a supernova explosion of a dying star?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Nickel

46.

The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater a redshift in its spectral lines. This is known as

a)

Doppler’s law

b)

Cepheid’s law

c)

Hubble’s law

d)

Kepler’s law

47.

Evidence that points to the existence of black holes was provided by

a)

Mauna Lao Observatory

b)

Hubble Space Telescope

c)

radio astronomy

d)

LGM

48.

The name of our galaxy is the

a)

solar system

b)

main sequence

c)

Milky Way

d)

Polaris

49.

What is the obstacle to finding extraterrestrial life?

a)

Money

b)

Number of stars

c)

Distance and time

d)

Language

50.

Outer space is mostly

a)

galaxies

b)

stars

c)

planets

d)

empty space

51.

Initial evidence that supports the big bang theory of the creation of the universe came from

a)

experiments conducted by shuttle astronauts

b)

unmanned space probes

c)

redshift calculations by Edwin Hubble

d)

data from the Hubble Space Telescope

52.

The mass of the Sun is how much larger than all of the other planets, moons, asteroids, and other bodies in the solar system?

a)

100 times larger

b)

200 times larger

c)

500 times larger

d)

700 times larger

53.

The distance from Earth to the Sun is called a (an)

a)

light-year

b)

solar year

c)

astronomical unit

d)

astronomical year

54.

How far is Mars from the Sun?

a)

1.5 AU

b)

1.0 AU

c)

0.7 AU

d)

0.4 AU

55.

How far is Venus from the Sun?

a)

1.5 AU

b)

1.0 AU

c)

0.7 AU

d)

0.4 AU

56.

What are the five largest moons in our solar system?

a)

Ganymede, Titan, Callisto, IO & Europa

b)

Ganymede, Titan, Callisto, IO & Triton

c)

Ganymede, Titan, Callisto, IO & Luna

d)

Ganymede, Titania, Callisto, IO & Luna

57.

The four Galilean moons in Jupiter

a)

Ganymede, Callisto, IO & Europa

b)

Ganymede, Callisto, IO & Titan

c)

Ganymede, Titan, IO & Europa

d)

Ganymede, Callisto, IO & Titania

58.

What type of planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars?

a)

Early planets

b)

Terrestrial planets

c)

Small planets

d)

Jovian planets

59.

Which of the following is most likely found on Jupiter?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Argon

c)

Nickel

d)

Carbon dioxide

60.

What is the outermost planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Jupiter

c)

Neptune

d)

Mars

61.

The planet that was named after the mythical Roman messenger of speed is

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mercury

c)

Saturn

d)

Mars

62.

A day on which planet is longer than a year on that planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Neptune

d)

Jupiter

63.

The day on which planet is about the same time period as a day

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

64.

Mars has distinct surface feature-related regions. Which of the following is not such a region?

a)

Volcanic

b)

Systems of canyons

c)

Plateaus near the poles

d)

Ocean floors

65.

How many moons orbit Mars?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Four

d)

None

66.

What is the largest planet in our solar system?

a)

Mars

b)

Jupiter

c)

Saturn

d)

Earth

67.

Callisto, Europa, Gannymede, and Io are

a)

Galilean moons

b)

volcanoes on Jupiter

c)

red spots

d)

comets that struck Jupiter

68.

The density of Jupiter is

a)

50 percent greater than that of Earth

b)

50 percent that of the density of Earth

c)

25 percent that of the density of Earth

d)

500 times the density of Earth

69.

The only moon in the solar system with a substantial atmosphere is

a)

IO

b)

Luna

c)

Phobos

d)

Titan

70.

Saturn’s rings are thought to be

a)

composed of thousands of particles of various sizes

b)

the remains of a collision with Jupiter

c)

preventing the atmosphere on Saturn from escaping

d)

made up of captured asteroids

71.

The planet with the lowest average density, which is less than that of liquid water, is

a)

Uranus

b)

Neptune

c)

Saturn

d)

None of the above is correct

72.

The planet that is not a giant is

a)

Saturn

b)

Mercury

c)

Jupiter

d)

Uranus

73.

What planets are considered “twins”?

a)

Saturn and Jupiter

b)

Mercury and Pluto

c)

Neptune and Uranus

d)

Earth and Mars

74.

Area of the solar system where long-period comets originate is the

a)

asteroid belt

b)

Oort cloud

c)

Kuiper Belt

d)

region between Jupiter and Neptune

75.

Short-period comets have orbital periods of

a)

less than 200 years

b)

more than 200 years

c)

variable duration but between 10 and 100 years

d)

variable duration but between 100 and 200 years

76.

Remnants of comets and asteroids found in space are called

a)

meteoroids

b)

meteors

c)

meteorites

d)

minor planets

77.

Meteorites are classified into the following groups except

a)

iron

b)

stony

c)

lead

d)

stony-iron

78.

The most widely accepted theory on the origin of the solar system is

a)

big bang

b)

conservation of matter

c)

protoplanet nebular

d)

collision of planets

79.

The belt of asteroids between Mars and Jupiter is probably

a)

the remains of a planet that exploded

b)

clumps of matter that condensed from the accretion disk but never got together as a planet

c)

the remains of two planets that collided

d)

the remains of a planet that collided with an asteroid or comet

80.

Which of the following planets would be mostly composed of hydrogen, helium, and methane and have a density of less than 2 g/cm3 ?

a)

Uranus

b)

Mercury

c)

Mars

d)

Venus

81.

Which of the following planets probably still has its original atmosphere?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

82.

Venus appears the brightest when it is in the

a)

Full phase

b)

Half phase

c)

Quarter phase

d)

crescent phase

83.

The small body with a composition and structure closest to the materials that condensed from the accretion disk is a (an)

a)

asteroid

b)

meteorite

c)

comet

d)

none of the above is correct

84.

A small body from space that falls on the surface of Earth is a

a)

meteoroid

b)

meteor

c)

meteor shower

d)

meteorite

85.

Planets in our solar system are classified according to all of the following characteristics except

a)

density

b)

size

c)

nature of the atmosphere

d)

inhabitants

86.

What separates the terrestrial planets from the giant planets?

a)

mars

b)

asteroid belts

c)

empty space

d)

the moon

87.

The planet that has the shortest “year” among the eight planets is

a)

Jupiter

b)

Neptune

c)

Mercury

d)

Earth

88.

What planet is called the morning star and the evening star, depending on its position with respect to the Sun?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Saturn

89.

Venus “shines” because it is

a)

composed of rocky materials

b)

covered with metallic iron and nickel

c)

powered by fusion reactions

d)

covered with clouds that reflect sunlight

90.

On Venus, the sun rises in the west. This is so because

a)

the Venus day is very long

b)

Venus rotates in the opposite direction of its revolution

c)

Venus is the second planet from the Sun

d)

Venus is covered with clouds and the Sun cannot be seen until later in its day

91.

The “sister” planet to Earth is

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Moon

92.

What feature on Mars was considered by some to be evidence of life on Mars?

a)

Ice caps

b)

Red color

c)

Channels or canals

d)

Radio signals

93.

Jupiter radiates twice as much energy as it receives from the Sun because of

a)

internal fusion reactions

b)

rapid gravitational expansion of the planet

c)

slow gravitational compression of the planet

d)

internal fission reactions

94.

The Great Red Spot is thought to be

a)

a low-pressure region with stagnant clouds

b)

a high-pressure region with high cold clouds

c)

hydrogen and helium storms

d)

ammonia and sulfur clouds

95.

The metallic hydrogen that surrounds the core of Jupiter is not

a)

a liquid

b)

under tremendous pressure

c)

a gas

d)

a conductor of electric currents

96.

A shooting star is a (an)

a)

meteoroid

b)

meteor

c)

meteorite

d)

asteroid

97.

The plane of Earth’s orbit is called the

a)

plane of Earth

b)

plane of the solar system

c)

plane of the ecliptic

d)

plane of the Sun

98.

The spinning of a planet on its axis, an imaginary line through its poles, is called

a)

24 hour day

b)

rotation

c)

revolution

d)

retrograde motion

99.

The consistent tilt and the orientation of its axis as Earth moves around its orbit is responsible for

a)

tides

b)

seasons

c)

volcanic eruptions

d)

earthquakes

100.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole points toward the Sun during the

a)

summer solstice

b)

spring solstice

c)

winter equinox

d)

winter solstice

101.

The referent meridian is the

a)

prime meridian

b)

principal meridian

c)

first meridian

d)

primary meridian

102.

The parallel at 66.5°S is called the

a)

Arctic Circle

b)

Antarctic Circle

c)

tropic of Cancer

d)

tropic of Capricorn

103.

The movement of the Sun across the celestial meridian is defined as

a)

midnight

b)

6 a.m

c)

6 p.m

d)

noon

104.

Clocks and watches are set to measure a uniform standard time based on

a)

mean solar time

b)

apparent solar day

c)

sidereal day

d)

apparent solar time

105.

How many standard time zones are there?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

20

d)

24

106.

The 180° meridian is called the

a)

tropic of Cancer

b)

prime meridian

c)

international date line

d)

Arctic Circle

107.

The time period from one new moon to the next new moon is called the

a)

sidereal month

b)

synodic month

c)

lunar month

d)

apparent month

108.

Maria are

a)

craters on the Moon

b)

mountains on the Moon

c)

ancient molten lava seas on the Moon

d)

dried-up oceans on the Moon

109.

Unmanned missions to the Moon did not find or identify

a)

active volcanoes

b)

water

c)

minerals

d)

lunar topography

110.

Rocks on the surface of the Moon are primarily

a)

sedimentary

b)

basaltic

c)

limestone

d)

metamorphic

111.

The approximate age of the Moon was determined by

a)

radioactive dating of moon rocks

b)

exploration by Apollo astronauts

c)

measurement of the depth of the surface dust

d)

laser measurement of the distance from Earth to the Moon

112.

What is the accepted theory about the origin of the Moon?

a)

It formed from particles revolving around Earth

b)

A very large object hit Earth, and the Moon was formed from ejected material

c)

Earth captured an incoming asteroid, and it became the Moon

d)

Earth and the Moon were created at the same time

113.

The Moon is positioned between Earth and the Sun. This phase is the

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

first quarter moon

d)

last quarter moon

114.

Tides that occur at the full and new moon phases are called

a)

new tides

b)

lunar tides

c)

spring tides

d)

tidal waves

115.

Friction between the tides and the ocean basin is

a)

wearing away the ocean basin

b)

moving Earth closer to the Moon

c)

increasing the rotation of Earth

d)

slowing the rotation of Earth

116.

Earth is undergoing a combination of how many different major motions?

a)

Zero

b)

One

c)

Three

d)

Seven

117.

In the Northern Hemisphere, city A is located a number of miles north of city B. At 12 noon in city B, the Sun appears directly overhead. At this very same time, the Sun over city A will appear

a)

to the north of overhead

b)

directly overhead

c)

to the south of overhead

d)

None of the above

118.

Earth as a whole receives the most solar energy during what month?

a)

January

b)

March

c)

July

d)

September

119.

During the course of a year and relative to the Sun, Earth’s axis points

a)

always toward the Sun

b)

toward the Sun half of the year and away from the Sun the other half

c)

always away from the Sun

d)

toward the Sun for half a day and away from the Sun the other half

120.

If you are located at 20°N latitude, when will the Sun appear directly overhead?

a)

Never

b)

Once a year

c)

twice a year

d)

Four times a week

121.

If you are located on the equator (0° latitude), when will the Sun appear directly overhead?

a)

Never

b)

Once a year

c)

Twice a year

d)

Four times a year

122.

If you are located at 40°N latitude, when will the Sun appear directly overhead?

a)

Never

b)

Once a year

c)

Twice a year

d)

Four times a year

123.

During the equinoxes

a)

a vertical stick in the equator will not cast a shadow at noon

b)

at noon the Sun is directly overhead at 0° latitude

c)

daylight and night are of equal length

d)

All of the above are correct

124.

Evidence that Earth is rotating is provided by

a)

varying length of night and day during a year

b)

seasonal climatic changes

c)

stellar parallax

d)

a pendulum

125.

In about 12,000 years, the star Vega will be the North Star, not Polaris, because of Earth’s

a)

uneven equinox

b)

tilted axis

c)

precession

d)

recession

126.

The significance of the tropic of Cancer (23.5°N latitude) is that

a)

the Sun appears directly overhead north of this latitude some time during a year

b)

the Sun appears directly overhead south of this latitude some time during a year

c)

the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months during the summer north of this latitude

d)

the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months during the summer south of this latitude

127.

The significance of the Arctic Circle (66.5°N latitude) is that

a)

the Sun appears directly overhead north of this latitude sometime during a year

b)

the Sun appears directly overhead south of this latitude sometime during a year

c)

the Sun appears above the horizon all day at least one day during the summer

d)

the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months during the summer

128.

In the time 1 p.m., the p.m. means

a)

“past morning.”

b)

“past midnight.”

c)

“before the meridian.”

d)

“after the meridian.”

129.

Clock time is based on

a)

sundial time

b)

an averaged apparent solar time

c)

the apparent local solar time

d)

the apparent local noon

130.

An apparent solar day is

a)

the interval between two consecutive local solar noons

b)

about 4 minutes longer than the sidereal day

c)

of variable length throughout the year

d)

All of the above are correct

131.

The time as read from a sundial is the same as the time read from a clock

a)

all the time

b)

only once a year

c)

twice a year

d)

four times a year

132.

You are traveling west by jet and cross three time zone boundaries. If your watch reads 3 p.m. when you arrive, you should reset it to

a)

12 noon

b)

6 p.m

c)

12 midnight

d)

6 a.m

133.

If it is Sunday when you cross the international date line while traveling westward, the next day is

a)

Wednesday

b)

Sunday

c)

Tuesday

d)

Saturday

134.

What has happened to the surface of the Moon during the last 3 billion years?

a)

Heavy meteorite bombardment, producing craters

b)

Widespread lava flooding from the interior

c)

Both widespread lava flooding and meteorite bombardment

d)

Not much

135.

If you see a full moon, an astronaut on the Moon looking back at Earth at the same time would see a

a)

full Earth

b)

new Earth

c)

first quarter Earth

d)

last quarter Earth

136.

A lunar eclipse can occur only during the moon phase of

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

first quarter

d)

last quarter

137.

A total solar eclipse can occur only during the moon phase of

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

first quarter

d)

last quarter

138.

A lunar eclipse does not occur every month because

a)

the plane of the Moon’s orbit is inclined to the ecliptic

b)

of precession

c)

Earth moves faster in its orbit when closest to the Sun

d)

Earth’s axis is tilted with respect to the Sun.

139.

The smallest range between high and low tides occurs during

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

quarter moon phases

d)

an eclipse

140.

Earth’s axis points toward

a)

constellation Aquarius

b)

constellation Leo

c)

the North Star

d)

Vega

141.

At the summer solstice, the Sun is

a)

low in the Northern Hemisphere sky

b)

high in the Northern Hemisphere sky

c)

directly over the tropic of Capricorn

d)

directly over the equator

142.

Earth is positioned between the Sun and the Moon in a nearly straight line. This positioning results in a (an

a)

lunar eclipse.

b)

solar eclipse

c)

annular eclipse

d)

new moon

143.

How many moons in Jupiter?

a)

79

b)

97

c)

76

d)

76

144.

The hottest planet in the solar system

a)

Venus

b)

Mercury

c)

Mars

d)

Uranus

145.

How far is Earth from the Sun?

a)

0.4 AU

b)

0.7 AU

c)

1.0 AU

d)

1.5 AU

146.

The moons in Neptune are..

a)

14

b)

15

c)

27

d)

28

147.

The famous gas planet...

a)

Neptune

b)

Uranus

c)

Saturn

d)

Jupiter

148.

Which of the following planets is not part of the group?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Neptune

d)

Mars

149.

The 4th largest moon in the solar system

a)

Titan

b)

Callisto

c)

IO

d)

Luna

150.

The most volcanically active body in the solar system.

a)

IO

b)

Callisto

c)

Europa

d)

Ganymede