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Final Quizziz 2023

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which letter represents the most recent common ancestor of sponges and mushrooms?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

2.

Which trait(s) do conifers have?

a)

vascular tissue only

b)

vascular tissue and seeds

c)

vascular tissue, seeds and flowers

d)

seeds only

3.

According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the chimpanzee?

a)

salmon

b)

salamander

c)

lizard

d)

hamster

4.

Which trait should go where A is on the cladogram?

a)

eyes

b)

feet

c)

lips

d)

hat

5.
Which two orgainsms have hair? 
a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)
Rabbits & Birds
6.

Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?

a)

p2

b)

2pq

c)

q2

d)

p2 + 2pq

7.
What do you call all of the genes in a population?
a)
Gene pool
b)
Relative Frequency
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Allele pool
8.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
9.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
10.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
11.
When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,  what is NOT happening to the species?
a)
Survival
b)
Reproduction
c)
Death
d)
Evolution
12.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

13.

Group of organisms all of the same species, living in the same place at the same time.

a)

gene pool

b)

population

c)

species

d)

evolution

14.
A change in the genetic composition of a population as a result of descending from a small number of colonizing individuals is called:
a)

founder effect

b)

bottleneck

c)

genetic drift

d)

photosynthesis

15.

A balanced polymorphism exist through disruptive selection in seed cracker finches from Cameroon in which small and large billed birds specialized in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population?

a)

Sexual selection

b)

Stabilizing selection

c)

Directional selection

d)

Disruptive selection

16.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
17.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
18.
What provides direct energy for the virus?
a)
food
b)
its host
c)
the sun
d)
a parasite
19.

Choose the correct order of lytic cycle steps

a)

attachment, injection, assembly, synthesis, lysis

b)

attachment, injection, synthesis, assembly, lysis

c)

attachment, injection, assembly, lysis, synthesis

d)

attachment, lysis, assembly, synthesis, injection

20.

Viruses are non-living because

a)

they cannot reproduce on their own

b)

they do not evolve

c)

they have no DNA

d)

they cannot be destroyed

21.

mRNA vaccines work by

a)

introducing inactivated virus into the body to start an immune response.

b)

having your own cells make a protein from the virus' material so your immune cells will recognize the virus.

c)

changing the DNA of your cells to protect you from infection from the virus.

d)

using a carrier virus to start an immune response.

22.

Vaccines can be used to prevent viral infection by:

a)

creating an immune response in the host

b)

destroying any viruses that enter the host

c)

creating a blocking protein on the cell

d)

preventing replication of the virus

23.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
24.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
25.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
26.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
27.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
28.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

29.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

30.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

31.
What are the gaps between the newly synthesized DNA on the lagging strand called?
a)
Okazaki fragments
b)
Polymer gaps
c)
Helicase fragments
d)
Acidic gaps
32.
The central dogma of biology states that information flows in one direction from 
a)
nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes to proteins to DNA
c)
genes to nuclei to ribosomes
d)
DNA to RNA to proteins
33.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
34.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
35.
Which of the following is the site of transcription?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
36.
Which of the following is the site of translation?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
37.

The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this message?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

38.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

39.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

40.

A _______ is an alternative form a gene.

a)

chromosome

b)

sister chromatid

c)

allele

d)

telomere

41.

a trait that is masked unless 2 copies are present is ________________________

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

weak

d)

hidden

42.

alleles for a trait that are the different

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Quasizygous

d)

Juxtazygous

43.

What genotype is homozygous dominant?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

44.

What genotype is heterozygous?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

45.
What is the genotype for this organism?
(E= 3 eyes, e= 1 eye)
a)
EE
b)
Ee
c)
ee
d)
EE or Ee
46.

The diagram shows the sex chromosomes of a woman and of a man. Their genotypes for a recessive sex-linked condition are also shown.


What are the chances that their daughter will show the sex-linked condition?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

47.

A black male and white female produced this grey offspring:

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

48.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
49.

What percentage of the offspring would be BLUE (g)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

50.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

51.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
52.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

53.

In a cladogram, what occurs at a node?

a)

A derived trait appears.

b)

Evolution is stopped.

c)

An ancestor dies.

d)

The cladogram ends.

54.

When nature provides genetic variation, but humans select the variations which they find useful.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

directional selection

55.

Similarities in arrangement (developed the same and look alike, but different functions).

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryology

56.

Similarities in the earliest stages of growth and development.

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryology

57.

Body structures that have no present-day function.

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryology

58.

Look at the image. Which phase of Mitosis do you see?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

59.

Look at the image. Which phase of Mitosis do you see?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

60.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

61.

How many cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

62.

Humans have a diploid number of 46 chromosomes in our body cells. How many chromosomes will our gametes have if they are considered HAPLOID?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

92

d)

10

63.

CROSSING OVER TAKES PLACE DURING

a)

PROPHASE II

b)

PROPHASE I

c)

INTERPHASE

d)

METAPHASE I

64.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
65.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
66.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
67.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

68.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
69.

What are the 2 products of photosynthesis? The products are the things made in the process of photosynthesis.

a)

water, sunlight

b)

glucose, carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen, glucose

d)

sunlight, oxygen

70.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
71.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to 
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
72.
What organelle of the cell produces energy?
a)
Mitochondria 
b)
Golgi Body 
c)
Vesicle 
d)
Vacuole 
73.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6

74.
The two main stages of photosynthesis are the
a)
light reactions and respiration
b)
dark reactions and the Calvin cycle 
c)
light reactions and the Calvin cycle
d)
dark reactions and fermentation
75.

Explain the how the process of photosynthesis and cellular respiration cycle matter

a)

The outputs of photosynthesis are the inputs for cellular respiration

b)

The inputs of photosynthesis are the inputs of cellular respiration

c)

The inputs of cellular respiration are the inputs of photosynthesis

d)

The outputs of cellular respiration are the outputs of photosynthesis

76.

What are the net outputs of glycolysis?

a)

2 ATP, 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH

b)

3 ATP, 3 pyruvate, 2 NADH

c)

2 ATP, 8 pyruvate, 1 NADH, 1 FADH2

d)

4 ATP, 1 pyruvate, 3 NADH

77.
What are the inputs of the Electron Transport Chain?
a)
NADH, FAD+, O2, ATP
b)
NAD+, FAD+, H2O, ATP
c)
NADH, FADH2, O2, ADP
d)
NADH, FADH2, H2O, ADP
78.
Where do the light-dependent reactions occur? 
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma
c)
mesophyll
d)
mitochondria
79.
In the Calvin Cycle, which enzyme helps keep the cycle going?
a)
Hydrolase
b)
Rubisco
c)
Pepsisco
d)
Re-starterase
80.
What supplies the electron that is lost in PS II?
a)
oxygen
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
rubisco
81.

Selection that favors individuals with both extremes of trait.

a)

disruptive selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

directional selection

82.

During the process of natural selection, what determines which organism survives and reproduces?

a)

number of adaptations

b)

variety of adaptations

c)

evolutionary fitness

d)

population size

83.

Charles Darwin's ideas concerning the causes of evolution were probably formulated in his mind:

a)

while he was still a student at Cambridge University

b)

before he began his voyage of exploration around the world on H.M.S. Beagle

c)

during his voyage on H.M.S. Beagle, especially after he reached the Galápagos Islands

d)

during the late 1880's

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