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End of the Year Challenge!

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the TWO major motions of Earth as it travels through space?

a)

Rotation and Tilting

b)

Revolution and Orbit

c)

Orbit and Seasons

d)

Revolution and Rotation

e)

Seasons and Rotation

2.

What motion of the Earth causes us to experience day and night?

a)

Orbit

b)

Seasons

c)

Rotation

d)

Revolution

e)

Solstice

3.

Which of the models below best describe the relationship between the sun-moon-earth?

a)

The Earth and the Moon revolve around the Sun in the same orbit

b)

Both the Moon and the Sun revolve around the Earth

c)

The Moon revolves around the Earth. The Earth revolves around the Sun.

d)

The Earth and the Sun revolve around the Moon in the same orbit

e)

The Earth, the Sun and the Moon are in the same orbit

4.

Which of the models below best describe the relationship between the sun-moon-earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5.

Which position is the Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

6.

Which position is the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

Which position is the Spring Equinox in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

8.

Which event occurs is position D in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Summer Solstice

b)

Fall Equinox

c)

Spring Equinox

d)

Winter Solstice

9.

What is the force that keeps objects on the ground?

a)

inertia

b)

gravity

c)

mass

d)

weight

e)

speed

10.

The strength of the force of gravity between two objects depends on which two factors?

a)

weight and distance

b)

speed and distance

c)

mass and weight

d)

mass and distance

e)

mass and inertia

11.

The different shapes of the moon you see from Earth are called ________________.

a)

lunar

b)

eclipse

c)

phases

d)

solar

e)

inertia

12.

What is the arrangement of Earth, moon, and sun during a lunar eclipse?

a)

The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.

b)

The Moon is next to but not between the Earth and the Sun.

c)

The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun.

d)

The Sun is between the Moon and the Earth.

13.

What is the arrangement of Earth, moon, and sun during a lunar eclipse?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.

What is the arrangement of Earth, moon, and sun during a solar eclipse?

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.

Which of the following planets is the largest?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Earth

d)

Uranus

e)

Neptune

16.

Which of the following planets takes the longest to revolve around the sun?

a)

Mercury

b)

Jupiter

c)

Earth

d)

Uranus

e)

Neptune

17.

Which of the following describes a New Moon?

a)

The side of the moon facing Earth is dark.

b)

Half of the side of the moon facing Earth is lighted.

c)

All of the side of the moon facing Earth is lighted.

d)

More than half of the lit portion of the Moon can be seen and the shape increases ("waxes") in size from one day to the next.

18.

Which of the following is a New Moon?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

Which of the following is a Full Moon?

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.

Which of the following is an inner planet?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Mercury

d)

Uranus

e)

Neptune

21.

Which of the following is an outer planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

e)

Uranus

22.

Which sedimentary rock layer is the OLDEST?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

E

d)

G

23.

Which sedimentary rock layer is the YOUNGEST?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

F

d)

G

24.

Using the “fossils clues” in layers A and B, select the kind of environment that existed when these rock layers were formed.

a)

desert

b)

arctic

c)

rainforest

d)

tundra

e)

ocean

25.

Why do you think there are no fossils in layers C and E?

a)

The hard parts that would form fossils were eaten by dinosaurs.

b)

The hard parts that would form fossils were destroyed by a lava flow.

c)

The hard parts that would form fossils were destroyed by farmers.

d)

No animals or plants lived during those time periods.

e)

The dinosaurs became extinct.

26.

Why do you think there are no fossils in layer X?

a)

The hard parts that would form fossils were destroyed by a lava flow

b)

The hard parts that would form fossils were destroyed by farmers

c)

No animals or plants lived during those time periods

d)

The dinosaurs became extinct

e)

The shells dissolved in the ocean

27.

Which is the principle that states that each horizontal layer is older than the layer above it and younger than the layer below it?

a)

law of superposition

b)

law of extrusion

c)

law of intrusion

d)

law of superintendent

28.

What three things provide evidence that organisms have changed over time?

a)

Fossils

b)

Patterns of early development

c)

Similar body structures

d)

Lettuce

29.

This type of fossil that provides evidence of the activities of ancient organisms. What kind of fossil is shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

30.

This type of fossil consisting of an extremely thin coating of carbon on rock. What kind of fossil is shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

31.

If two organisms look very similar during early stages of development, this is evidence that the organisms

a)

are not related

b)

evolved from different ancestors

c)

have exactly the same DNA

d)

evolved from a common ancestor

32.

This fossil is formed when minerals replace all or part of an organism. What kind of fossil is shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

33.

This fossil is formed when minerals replace all or part of an organism. What kind of fossil is shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

34.

This fossil is formed when minerals replace all or part of an organism. What kind of fossil is shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

35.

This fossil formed when an organism was buried in sediment dissolves, leaving a hollow area. Then a copy of the organism’s shape is formed when minerals seep into the hollow area. What kinds of fossils are shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

36.

This spider was found in a piece of amber with little or no change. What kind of fossil is shown in the photo?

a)

mold and cast

b)

petrified fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

trace fossil

e)

preserved remains

37.

What is one way that the remains of organisms can be preserved?

a)

Amber

b)

Carbon Film

c)

Petrified Fossil

d)

Mold and Cast

e)

Trace Fossil

38.

Which finch is best adapted to eat nuts?

a)
b)
c)
d)
39.

A bald eagle’s hooked beak allows it to tear into a fish. This helps it survive and reproduce. This type of trait is called a(n)

a)

species

b)

adaptation

c)

variation

d)

fossil

40.

A grizzly bear has a thick fur coat. This helps it survive and reproduce. This type of trait is called a(n)

a)

species

b)

adaptation

c)

variation

d)

fossil

41.

These dogs are all the same species, but they have many shapes, sizes and colors. These are examples of _________.

a)

species

b)

adaptation

c)

variation

d)

fossil

42.

In this example there were more white mice than black mice. Since the birds were better able to see the white mice more of them were eaten. In the next generation, there were more black mice. This process is called _________.

a)

scientific theory

b)

natural selection

c)

variation

d)

unconformity

43.

How would scientist classify these animals?

a)

Non-Swimmers and swimmers

b)

Legged and non-legged

c)

Poisonous and non-poisonous

d)

Invertebrates and vertebrates

e)

No Lungs and lungs

44.

Which of these is an invertebrate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
45.

Which choice that lists the levels of organization in an ecosystem from the smallest unit of organization to the largest?

a)

population, organism, community, ecosystem

b)

organism, population, ecosystem, community

c)

organism, community, population, ecosystem

d)

organism, population, community, ecosystem

46.

In the image of the prairie dog habitat, there are three coyotes. The three coyotes are a(n) ____________.

a)

organism

b)

population

c)

community

d)

ecosystem

47.

A niche is ________.

a)

an organism’s particular role in its habitat

b)

the struggle between organisms to survive

c)

one species in a particular area

d)

the nonliving part of an organism’s habitat

48.

These wading birds live in the same habitat but do not compete for food. Which statement may be true about the birds?

a)

The birds have the same niche and eat the same food.

b)

The birds have different niches and eat the same food.

c)

The birds have different niches and eat different food .

d)

The birds have the same niche and eat different food .

49.

Which statement best describes what would happen to the hare (prey) population when the lynx (predator) population increases?

a)

The hare population would decrease because there would be more lynx to eat the hares.

b)

The hare population would decrease because hares would have more lynx to eat.

c)

The hare population would increase because there would be more lynx to eat the hares.

d)

The hare population would increase because hares would have more lynx to eat.

50.

Symbiosis is a close relationship between two species that benefits at least one of the species. Which of these is NOT an example symbiosis?

a)

mutualism

b)

predation

c)

parasitism

d)

commensalism

51.

Which of the following is an example of mutualism?

a)
b)
c)
d)
52.

Which of the following is an example of parasitism?

a)
b)
c)
d)
53.

Which of the following is an example of commensalism?

a)
b)
c)
d)
54.

The living parts of an ecosystem are called biotic factors. The nonliving parts of an ecosystem are called abiotic factors. Which choice has one biotic factor and one abiotic factor?

a)

A bird sitting on a branch

b)

An apple being eaten by a worm

c)

A fish swimming in water

d)

Two lion cubs

e)

Clouds in the air

55.

A mosquito sucks the blood from its host. This is an example of ______________.

a)

mutualism

b)

predation

c)

parasitism

d)

commensalism

56.

Biotic or Abiotic?

a)

Biotic

b)

Abiotic

c)

A combination of both

57.

Biotic or Abiotic?

a)

Biotic

b)

Abiotic

c)

A combination of both

58.

Which statement best describes what would happen to the rat (prey) population when the snake (predator) population increases?

a)

The rat population would decrease because there would be more snakes to eat the rats .

b)

The rat population would decrease because rats would have more snakes to eat.

c)

The rat population would increase because there would be more snakes to eat the rats.

d)

The rat population would increase because rats would have more snake to eat.

59.

Sometimes it is easier to observe signs of organisms rather than the organisms themselves. For example each cliff swallow nest is usually home to four birds (two parents and two offspring.) Using indirect observations estimate the population of cliff swallow birds.

a)

4 birds

b)

6 birds

c)

7 birds

d)

24 birds

60.

In which year did the population reach its highest point? What was the size of the population that year?

a)

1997, 5 squirrels

b)

1997, 500 squirrels

c)

1994, 2 squirrels

d)

1994, 225 squirrels

e)

1997, 550 squirrels

61.

A consumer is an organism that obtains energy by feeding on other organisms. Which choice shows a list of consumers?

a)

producer, consumer, decomposer

b)

producer, consumer, scavenger

c)

herbivore, omnivore, carnivore

d)

herbivore, consumer, decomposer

62.

What is the difference between a decomposer and a scavenger?

a)

A decomposer is an organism that breaks down waste and dead organisms and returns the raw materials to the ecosystem while a scavenger is carnivore that eats dead animals.

b)

A decomposer is carnivore that eats dead animals while a scavenger is an organism that breaks down waste and dead organisms and returns the raw materials to the ecosystem.

c)

Both decomposers and scavengers are carnivores that eat dead animals.

d)

Both decomposers and scavengers are organisms that break down waste and dead organisms and return the raw materials to the ecosystem.

63.

Which of these organisms does NOT use the sun’s energy to turn water and carbon dioxide into food?

a)

algae

b)

apple tree

c)

carrot

d)

mushroom

64.

Which of these is an apex predator?

a)

Barn Owl

b)

Canadian Goose

c)

Cottontail Rabbit

d)

Eastern Bluebird

e)

Honeybee

65.

Which of these organisms is a first-level consumer?

a)

Grass

b)

Cardinal

c)

Snake

d)

Eagle

66.

Which organism in the food web above is sometimes a first-level consumer and sometimes a second-level consumer?

a)

Grasshopper

b)

Mouse

c)

Rabbit

d)

Coyote

e)

Hawk

67.

Which is a benefit of drilling for oil in Antarctica?

a)

Transporting the oil

b)

Risk of oil spills

c)

Many new jobs

d)

Potential harm to sea animals

68.

Which is a benefit of drilling for oil in Antarctica?

a)

Transporting the oil

b)

Risk of oil spills

c)

Many new jobs

d)

Potential harm to sea animals

69.

A nonrenewable resource is a natural resource that is not replaced in a useful time frame. Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?

a)

sunlight

b)

wind

c)

fresh water

d)

trees

e)

coal

70.

Most water pollution is the result of ______.

a)

air pollution

b)

animal waste

c)

human activity

d)

water cycle

71.

A company makes cups from plants. These cups can be then be broken down and recycled by bacteria and other decomposers. A substance that can be broken down and recycled by bacteria and other decomposers is said to be __________.

a)

recyclable

b)

biodegradable

c)

antibacterial

d)

plantable

e)

none of these

72.

The burning of solid waste can be used to make electricity, but causes air pollution. Which type of waste disposal is the burning of solid waste?

a)

open dump

b)

sanitary landfill

c)

firehouse

d)

leachate

e)

none of these

73.

The burning of solid waste can be used to make electricity, but causes air pollution. Which type of waste disposal is the burning of solid waste?

a)

open dump

b)

sanitary landfill

c)

firehouse

d)

leachate

e)

incinerator

74.

Which soil conservation technique adds nutrients to help crops grow better __________.

a)

leaving fields fallow

b)

applying fertilizer

c)

crop rotation

d)

nutrient depletion

e)

all of these

75.

People use land in many ways. Which ways do people use the land?

a)

agriculture

b)

development

c)

mining

d)

all of these

e)

none of these

76.

A renewable resource is a natural resource is either always available or is naturally replaced in a relatively short time. Which of the following is a renewable resource?

a)

sunlight

b)

wind

c)

trees

d)

oil

77.

A nonrenewable resource is a natural resource that is not replaced in a useful time frame. Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?

a)

sunlight

b)

wind

c)

fresh water

d)

trees

e)

oil

78.

Pollution can be the contamination of Earth's ________.

a)

Water

b)

Air

c)

Land

d)

All of these

79.

What human activities cause pollution?

a)

burning of gasoline

b)

fertilizers in farming

c)

dumping of chemicals in a river

d)

all of these

e)

honking a car horn outside of a school

80.

Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?

a)

sunlight

b)

wind

c)

fresh water

d)

trees

e)

oil

81.

Which type of waste disposal is the burning of solid waste?

a)

open dump

b)

sanitary landfill

c)

firehouse

d)

leachate

e)

incinerator

82.

Which is a resource that is not replaced in a useful time frame?

a)

A nonrenewable resource

b)

A renewable resources

c)

A natural resource

d)

All of these

83.

New farmland can be created by ________.

a)

clearing forests

b)

covering up a landfill

c)

mining

d)

development

84.

Development is the construction of buildings, roads, bridges, dams, and other structures. Which of the following is the result of development?

a)

Decrease in farmland

b)

Increase in wilderness areas

c)

Decrease in wildlife habitats

d)

Increase in cropland

85.

Development is the construction of buildings, roads, bridges, dams, and other structures. Which of the following is the result of development?

a)

Increase in farmland

b)

Decrease in wilderness areas

c)

Increase in wildlife habitats

d)

Decrease in cropland

86.

Which layer of fertile soil contains dead leaves and grass?

a)

litter

b)

topsoil

c)

subsoil

d)

bedrock

87.

The rock that makes up Earth’s crust is called?

a)

litter

b)

topsoil

c)

subsoil

d)

bedrock

88.

The process by which water, wind, or ice moves particles of rocks or soil is _______.

a)

erosion

b)

desertification

c)

nutrient depletion

d)

land reclamation

89.

The advancement of desert-like conditions into areas that previously were fertile is ___________.

a)

erosion

b)

desertification

c)

nutrient depletion

d)

land reclamation

90.

Which methods are used for handling solid waste?

a)

burning

b)

burying

c)

recycling

d)

farming

91.

The process of reclaiming raw materials and reusing them to create new products is called ________.

a)

burning

b)

burying

c)

recycling

d)

farming

92.

A place where solid waste is buried is called a(n) _______

a)

sanitary landfill

b)

incinerator

c)

recycling plant

d)

sanitary plant

93.

The best way to prevent pollution is to __________.

a)

burn garbage

b)

reuse material

c)

recycling waste

d)

reduce usage

94.

Which of these is NOT considered a hazardous chemical?

a)

gasoline

b)

paint remover

c)

bug spray

d)

laundry bleach

e)

citronella candles

95.

Water stored in layers of soil and rock beneath Earth’s surface is called _________.

a)

groundwater

b)

water surface

c)

rock water

d)

water layers

96.

Particles of rock and sand in running water are called _____.

a)

sewage

b)

pollutants

c)

agriculture

d)

sediments

97.

Heredity is

a)

genes that are dominant.

b)

the passing of physical characteristics from parents to offspring

c)

the DNA in an individual

d)

the height of a person

98.

When a dominant trait is matched up with a recessive trait the dominant trait will _________.

a)

be masked or covered up by the recessive trait

b)

blend with the recessive trait to make a mixture of the two

c)

mask or cover up the recessive trait

d)

disappear

99.

The likelihood that an event will occur is called ___________.

a)

trait

b)

dominant

c)

probability

d)

recessive trait

100.

In people, brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes. An offspring receives one dominant allele and one recessive allele from its parents. What is the genotype of the offspring?

a)

BB

b)

bb

c)

Bb

d)

BE

101.

The traits that are visible in an individual are called

a)

genotypes

b)

phenotypes

c)

traits

d)

recessive traits

102.

The genotype of an individual who is a purebred dominant brown eyed person would have the genotype of

a)

bb

b)

Bb

c)

BB

d)

Be

103.

The only way a recessive trait will appear in an individual is

a)

both parents have to be homozygous dominant

b)

if the child receives one recessive allele for that trait from each parent

c)

the child receives one dominant allele and one recessive allele from its parents

d)

by mutation

104.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
105.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
106.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
107.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
108.

What are the parents for this Punnett Square?

a)

BB x bb

b)

Bb x bb

c)

Bb x Bb

d)

bb x bb

109.

Add the parents to this Punnett Square?

a)

Bb x Bb

b)

Bb x BB

c)

BB x Bb

d)

BB x bb

110.

What is the type of genotype?

FF

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

111.

What is the type of genotype?

GG

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

112.

What is the type of genotype?

Nn

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

113.

What is the type of genotype?

nn

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

114.

What is the type of genotype?

RB

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

115.

If B = Brown Fur and b = Tan Fur,

what is the phenotype?

Bb

a)

Brown Fur

b)

Tan Fur

c)

Light Brown Fur

d)

Dark Tan Fur

116.

If you cross a heterozygous black coat (Bb) with a homozygous recessive brown coat (bb), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a black coat?

(a)  

117.

Heredity is

a)

genes that are dominant.

b)

the passing of physical characteristics from parents to offspring

c)

the DNA in an individual

d)

the height of a person

118.

When a dominant trait is matched up with a recessive trait the dominant trait will _________.

a)

be masked or covered up by the recessive trait

b)

blend with the recessive trait to make a mixture of the two

c)

mask or cover up the recessive trait

d)

disappear

119.

The likelihood that an event will occur is called ___________.

a)

trait

b)

dominant

c)

probability

d)

recessive trait

120.

In people, brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes. An offspring receives one dominant allele and one recessive allele from its parents. What is the genotype of the offspring?

a)

BB

b)

bb

c)

Bb

d)

BE

121.

The traits that are visible in an individual are called

a)

genotypes

b)

phenotypes

c)

traits

d)

recessive traits

122.

The genotype of an individual who is a purebred dominant brown eyed person would have the genotype of

a)

bb

b)

Bb

c)

BB

d)

Be

123.

The only way a recessive trait will appear in an individual is

a)

both parents have to be homozygous dominant

b)

if the child receives one recessive allele for that trait from each parent

c)

the child receives one dominant allele and one recessive allele from its parents

d)

by mutation

124.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
125.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
126.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
127.

Complete the Punnett Square.

a)
b)
c)
d)
128.

What are the parents for this Punnett Square?

a)

BB x bb

b)

Bb x bb

c)

Bb x Bb

d)

bb x bb

129.

Add the parents to this Punnett Square?

a)

Bb x Bb

b)

Bb x BB

c)

BB x Bb

d)

BB x bb

130.

Add the parents to the Punnett Square.

a)

Gg x gg

b)

Gg x Gg

c)

GG x gg

d)

GG x Gg

131.

Add the parents to the Punnett Square.

a)

rr x Rr

b)

rr x rr

c)

RR x rr

d)

RR x Rr

132.

Add the parents to the Punnett Square.

a)

Yy x Yy

b)

Yy x yy

c)

yy x yy

d)

YY x yy

133.

What is the type of genotype?

FF

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

134.

What is the type of genotype?

GG

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

135.

What is the type of genotype?

NN

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

136.

What is the type of genotype?

Nn

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

137.

What is the type of genotype?

Gg

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

138.

What is the type of genotype?

Ff

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

139.

What is the type of genotype?

nn

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

140.

What is the type of genotype?

gg

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

141.

What is the type of genotype?

ff

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

142.

What is the type of genotype?

RB

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

143.

What is the type of genotype?

RY

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

144.

What is the type of genotype?

FY

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominant

145.

If B = Brown Fur and b = Tan Fur,

what is the phenotype?

Bb

a)

Brown Fur

b)

Tan Fur

c)

Light Brown Fur

d)

Dark Tan Fur

146.

If B = Brown Fur and b = Tan Fur,

what is the phenotype?

BB

a)

Brown Fur

b)

Tan Fur

c)

Light Brown Fur

d)

Dark Tan Fur

147.

If you cross a heterozygous black coat (Bb) with a homozygous recessive brown coat (bb), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a black coat?

(a)  

148.

If you cross a heterozygous black coat (Bb) with a homozygous recessive brown coat (bb), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a brown coat?

(a)  

149.

If you cross a heterozygous black coat (Bb) with a homozygous recessive brown coat (bb), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a black coat?

(a)  

150.

If you cross a homozygous dominant green flower (GG) with a homozygous recessive white flower (gg), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a green flower?

(a)  

151.

If you cross a homozygous dominant green flower (GG) with a homozygous recessive white flower (gg), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a white flower?

(a)  

152.

If you cross a homozygous dominant green flower (GG) with a homozygous recessive white flower (gg), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a white flower?

(a)  

153.

If you cross a homozygous dominant green flower (GG) with a homozygous recessive white flower (gg), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a green flower?

(a)  

154.

If you cross a homozygous dominant red flower (RR) with a heterozygous red flower (Rr), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a red flower?

(a)  

155.

If you cross a homozygous dominant red flower (RR) with a heterozygous red flower (Rr), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a white flower?

(a)  

156.

If you cross a homozygous dominant red flower (RR) with a heterozygous red flower (Rr), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a red flower?

(a)  

157.

If you cross a homozygous dominant red flower (RR) with a heterozygous red flower (Rr), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have a white flower?

(a)  

158.

If you cross two heterozygous yellow peas (Yy), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have yellow peas?

(a)  

159.

If you cross two heterozygous yellow peas (Yy), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have green peas?

(a)  

160.

If you cross two heterozygous yellow peas (Yy), what is the probability (%) that the offspring will have yellow peas?

(a)  

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