wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Practice Regents Questions

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 6hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When the velocity of a stream suddenly decreases, the sediment being transported undergoes an increase in

a)

particle density

b)

deposition

c)

erosion

d)

mass movement

2.

If the climate warms, causing the glacier to melt away, the region that the glacier formerly occupied will be a

a)

V-shaped valley with jagged bedrock

b)

flat plain with bedrock that has been metamorphosed

c)

deep ocean trench with bedrock that has been melted and cooled

d)

U-shaped valley with polished bedrock

3.

In hot, wet climates, bedrock rapidly

weathers into soil because water

a)

is part of most chemical compounds

b)

dissolves many minerals

c)

cools the surroundings when it

evaporates

d)

expands when it freezes

4.

Particles of soil often differ greatly from

the underlying bedrock in color, mineral

composition, and organic content. Which

conclusion about these soil particles is best

made from this evidence?

a)

They are uniformly large-grained.

b)

They are residual sediments.

c)

They are transported sediments.

d)

They are soluble in water.

5.

The map below represents a view of a

flowing stream. The letters identify locations

in the stream near the interface between

land and water. At which two locations is

erosion due to flowing water likely to be

greatest?

a)

A and B

b)

A and D

c)

B and D

d)

B and C

6.

The four particles shown in the table below are of equal volume and are dropped into a column filled with water. Which particle would usually settle most rapidly?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

Which motion occurs at a rate of approximately one degree per day?

a)

the Moon revolving around Earth

b)

the Moon rotating on its axis

c)

Earth revolving around the Sun

d)

Earth rotating on its axis

8.

Which object in space emits light because it releases energy produced by nuclear fusion?

a)

Earth’s Moon

b)

Venus

c)

Halley’s comet

d)

Polaris

9.

Since Denver’s longitude is 105° W and Utica’s longitude is 75° W, sunrise in Denver occurs

a)

2 hours earlier

b)

3 hours earlier

c)

2 hours later

d)

3 hours later

10.

During the month of January, at which location in New York State is the Sun lowest in the sky at solar noon?

a)

Massena

b)

Utica

c)

Niagara Falls

d)

New York City

11.

When snow cover on the land melts, the water will most likely become surface runoff if the land surface is

a)

frozen

b)

porous

c)

grass covered

d)

unconsolidated gravel

12.

Which area is the most common source region for cold, dry air masses that move over New York State?

a)

North Atlantic Ocean

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

central Canada

d)

central Mexico

13.

Planets that are closest to the Sun are identified as

a)

low-density jovian planets

b)

low-density terrestrial planets

c)

high-density jovian planets

d)

high-density terrestrial planets

14.

The universe is approximately 13.8 billion years old. Compared to the age of the solar system, the age of the universe is approximately

a)

the same age as the solar system

b)

2x older than the solar system

c)

3x older than our solar system

d)

4x older than our solar system

15.

The deflection of Earth’s planetary winds is an 6 Arrows in the diagram below show three methods example of

a)

the coriolis effect

b)

the doppler effect

c)

convection

d)

gravitational pull

16.

Which process of the water cycle occurs when water absorbs 2260 Joules of heat energy per gram?

a)

melting of ice

b)

condensation of water

c)

evaporating of water

d)

freezing of water

17.

What is the relative humidity of the air when the air temperature is 4°C and the dew point is -􏰀4°C ?

a)

42%

b)

46%

c)

51%

d)

56%

18.

The diagram below represents the light spectra given off by the same element as observed under two different conditions. Spectrum A was observed when that element was heated in a laboratory. Spectrum B shows the same element as seen in the light from a distant star.

The light spectrum observed from this distant star shows a

a)

red shift, which indicates that the star is moving away from Earth

b)

red shift, which indicates that the star is moving toward the Earth

c)

blue shift, which indicates that the star is moving away from Earth

d)

blue shift, which indicates that the star is moving toward Earth

19.

The diagrams below represent the constellations seen by an observer in New York State while looking toward the southern horizon at midnight on July 9 and January 8.

Which motion is mainly responsible for the difference in the constellations visible at midnight on these two dates?

a)

The Sun orbits Earth

b)

Earth orbits the Sun

c)

The stars in the constellations orbit Earth

d)

Earth orbits the stars in the constellations

20.

Which graph best shows the general relationship between air pressure and altitude?

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.

Most clouds form in the atmosphere when moist

air

a)

rises, expands and cools to the dewpoint

b)

rises, expands, and warms to the dewpoint

c)

sinks, compresses and cools to the dewpoint

d)

sinks, compresses and warms to the dew point

22.

Equal areas of which surface would absorb the greatest amount of insolation on a sunny day?

a)

light-colored, smooth surface

b)

light-colored, rough surface

c)

dark-colored, smooth surface

d)

dark-colored, rough surface

23.

During which geologic period did plants and animals first appear in land environments?

a)

cambrian

b)

ordovician

c)

silurian

d)

devonian

24.
Which type of rock results from melting and cooling of magma?
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Extrusive
25.
Which type of rock forms from extreme heat and pressure?
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Organic
d)
Metamorphic
26.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
27.
What is the MAIN way rocks are classified?
a)
Their color and shapes
b)
How they form
c)
Mineral bands
d)
Where they form
28.
True/False: Igneous rocks can only turn into metamorphic rocks.
a)
True
b)
False
29.
The process in which dissolved minerals crystallize and glue sediment together.
a)
compaction
b)
deposition
c)
organic rock
d)
cementation
30.
When sediments are pressed together tightly, this is called ____________.
a)
Compaction
b)
Cementation
c)
Weathering
d)
Erosion
31.
This rock is made from tiny pieces of other rocks that settled to the bottom of a valley millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
32.

In what type of rock are most fossils found?

a)

Igneous

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

33.

What is the name of the contact metamorphic rock found at A?

a)

Slate

b)

Sandstone

c)

Quartzite

d)

Marble

34.

What is the oldest rock in the image?

a)

Shale

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Quartzite

d)

Sandstone

35.

The mass extinction of dinosaurs took place at the END of which period?

a)

Quaternary

b)

Silurian

c)

Cretaceous

d)

Paleogene

36.

An index fossil is a fossil of a species found...

a)

over a large area in a long period of time

b)

over a large area in a short amount of time

c)

over a small area quickly

d)

over a small area in a long period of time

37.
A Foucault pendulum appears to change its directions of swing because Earth
a)
is tilted on its axis
b)
is spinning on its axis
c)
has a curved surface
d)
has a density of 5.5 g/cm3
38.
The modern heliocentric model of planetary motion states that the planets travel around
a)
the Sun in slightly elliptical orbits
b)
the Sun in circular orbits
c)
Earth is slightly elliptical orbits
d)
Earth in circular orbits
39.
Which soil characteristic allows greater amounts of water retention?
a)
large-size particles
b)
small-size particles
c)
high-density particles
d)
low-density particles
40.
Which processes of the water cycle return watervapor directly to the atmosphere?
a)
evpaoration and transpiration
b)
infiltration and capillarity
c)
freezing and precipitation
d)
water retention and runoff
41.
Evidence supports the idea that increases in carbon dioxide and methane in Earth’s atmosphere are major contributors to global warming. This is based primarily on the fact that carbon dioxide and methane are excellent absorbers of
a)
gamma rays
b)
visible light
c)
infrared radiation
d)
microwaves
42.
Which agent of erosion most likely formed the drumlins and finger lakes in New York State?
a)
running water
b)
moving ice
c)
wave action
d)
mass movement
43.
What caused the interior of Earth to separate into layers?
a)
a decrease in the rate of rotation of Earth
b)
the gravitational pull on materials of varying densities
c)
variations in heating by the Sun due to Earth’s tilt
d)
collisions with meteors and comets
44.
Which motion causes the constellation Orion to be visible at midnight from New York State in winter but not in summer?
a)
rotation of Earth
b)
rotation of Orion
c)
revolution of Earth
d)
revolution of Orion
45.
Cloud formation is likely to occur in rising airbecause rising air
a)
expands and cools
b)
expands and warms
c)
contracts and warms
d)
contracts and cools
46.
An INTRUSIVE igneous rock with large crystals is formed:
a)
When magma cools quickly. 
b)
At the bottom of the ocean. 
c)
When magma cools slowly, allowing time for crystals to grow. 
d)
At the top of a mountain. 
47.
The major greenhouse gas(es)
a)
carbon dioxide and water vapor
b)
aerosols/CFC's
c)
manure
d)
sulfur dioxide
48.
Which statement best explains why stars viewed from the Northern Hemisphere appear to revolve around Polaris?
a)
Polaris rotates on its axis
b)
Earth rotates on its axis.
c)
 Polaris revolves around Earth.
d)
Earth revolves around Polaris.
49.
The deflection of prevailing winds and ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere is called
a)
eccentricity
b)
refraction 
c)
 the Coriolis effect
d)
 the Doppler effect
50.
Earth’s rate of revolution is approximately
a)
1° per day
b)
15° per day
c)
23.5° per day
d)
360° per day
51.
The map shows a stream. Letters A, B, C, and D represent locations on the stream surface. Arrows represent the direction of stream flow.  Which two locations have the greatest stream velocities?
a)
A and B
b)
B and C
c)
C and D
d)
D and A
52.
Where do deltas form?
a)
in desert areas
b)
on the banks of rivers
c)
at river mouths
d)
in valleys formed by glaciers
53.
A major piece of evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory and the expansion of the universe is the observation of wavelengths of stars in distant galaxies show a
a)
red shift and are moving away
b)
red shift and moving towards
c)
blue shift and moving away
d)
blue shift and moving towards
54.
Earth’s magnetic field has reversed itself several
times during the past. This pattern of magnetic
reversal is best preserved in
a)
metamorphic bedrock in mountain ranges
b)
bedrock with fossils containing radioactive
carbon-14
c)
layers of sedimentary bedrock of the Grand
Canyon
d)
igneous bedrock of the oceanic crust
55.
The same side of the Moon always faces Earth because the Moon’s period of revolution
a)
is longer than the Moon’s period of rotation
b)
equals the Moon’s period of rotation
c)
is longer than Earth’s period of rotation
d)
equals Earth’s period of rotation
56.
The mantle of Earth is made partly of magma. When magma rises and sinks, this is called ______________. 
a)
a conduction current
b)
a hot spot
c)
a volcanic eruption
d)
a convection current
57.
In which type of climate would weathering happen the fastest to a rock?
a)
wet and warm
b)
dry and cold
c)
wet and cold
d)
dry and warm
58.

The diagram represents a model of Earth’s surface and internal structure. Letters A, B, C, and D represent four different layers. Some depths below Earth’s surface are shown. Which Earth layer is inferred to be composed of solid nickel and iron?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.
In which area of Earth’s interior is the pressure most likely to be 1.2 million atmospheres?
a)
Asthenosphere
b)
Stiffer Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Outer Core
60.
At which depth below Earth’s surface is the interface between Earth’s outer core and stiffer mantle located?
a)
700 km
b)
2900 km
c)
2000 km
d)
5100 km
61.
Scientists have classified Earth’s interior into the known layers based primarily on evidence gained by studying
a)
deep drill cores
b)
volcanic eruptions
c)
gravity measurements
d)
earthquake seismic waves
62.
According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, as the depth within the Earth's interior increases, the
a)
density, temperature, and pressure increase
b)
density, temperature, and pressure decrease
c)
density and temperature increase, but pressure decreases
d)
density increases, but temperature and pressure decrease
63.
Compared to oceanic crust, continental crust is generally
a)
older and thinner
b)
older and thicker
c)
younger and thinner
d)
younger and thicker
64.
According to the plate tectonics theory, the Peru-Chile Trench and the Andes Mountains formed along the west coast of South American because the South American Plate
a)
collided with the Nazca Plate
b)
collided with the North American Plate
c)
slid away from the Nazca Plate
d)
slid away from the North American Plate
65.
When two tectonic plates collide, oceanic crust usually subducts beneath continental crust because oceanic crust is primarliy composed of igneous rock that has
a)
low density and is mafic
b)
low density and is felsic
c)
high density and is mafic
d)
high density and is felsic
66.

The cross-section shows the direction of movement of an oceanic plate over a mantle hot spot, resulting in the formation of a chain of volcanoes labeled A, B, C, and D. The geologic age of volcano C is shown. What are the most likely geologic ages of volcanoes B and D?

a)

B is 5 million years old and D is 12 million years old

b)

B is 12 million years old and D is 6 million years old

c)

B is 9 million years old and D is 9 million years old

d)

B is 10 million years old and D is 4 million years old

67.
The movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by
a)
tidal motions in the hydrosphere
b)
density differences in the troposphere
c)
convection currents in the asthenosphere
d)
solidification in the lithosphere
68.
Which features are commonly formed at the plate boundaries where continental crust converges with oceanic crust?
a)
large volcanic mountain ranges parallel to the coast at the center of the continents
b)
A deep ocean trench and a continental volcanic mountain range near the coast
c)
An underwater volcanic mountain range and rift valley on the ocean ridge near the coast
d)
Long chains of mid-ocean volcanic islands perpendicular to the coast
69.

The map to the right shows the continents of Africa and South America, the ocean between them, and the ocean ridge and transform faults. Locations A and D are on the continents. Locations B and C are on the ocean floor. The oldest basaltic crust is most likely located at point

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.
Which statement correctly compares seismic P-waves with seismic S-waves?
a)
P-waves travel faster than S-waves and pass through Earth’s liquid zones.
b)
P-waves travel faster than S-waves and do not pass through Earth’s liquid zones.
c)
P-waves travel slower than S-waves and pass through Earth’s liquid zones.
d)
P-waves travel slower than S-waves and do not pass through Earth’s liquid zones.
71.

In which layer of Earth’s interior is the inferred temperature 6,000º C?

a)

crust

b)

outer core

c)

inner core

d)

mantle

72.

The composition of Earth’s core is thought to be the same as the composition of many

a)

meteorites

b)

volcanic ashes

c)

granites

d)

basalts

73.
To an observer on Earth, the Sun appears brighter than the star Rigel because the Sun is 
a)
hotter than Rigel
b)
more luminous than Rigel
c)
closer than Rigel
d)
larger than Rigel
74.
El Cuy is a South American city located at 40 degrees south latitude. During which month would the coldest day most likely occur at this location?
a)
May
b)
November
c)
July
d)
January
75.
A paved blacktop parking lot was built on what was once a soil-covered field. The area will now experience increased runoff when rain occurs because the parking lot has
a)
less capillarity
b)
greater infiltration
c)
greater porosity
d)
less permeability
76.
Which will most likely form when movement along a plate boundary forces a landmass to be pulled apart? 
a)
volcanic island arc
b)
continental mountains
c)
continental rift
d)
oceanic trench 
77.
Which natural phenomenon occurs as a result of Earth rotating on its axis?
a)
movement of tectonic plates
b)
deep ocean currents
c)
seasonal changes
d)
day and night 
78.
What feature is labeled B in Figure 9-1?
a)
trench
b)
ocean ridge
c)
Volcanic Island Arc
d)
Continental Volcanic Arc
79.
Use the latitude/longitude map below to answer the next few questions.

What is the location of point B?
a)
60° W, 120° N
b)
60° N, 120°E
c)
60° N, 120° W
d)
60° S, 120° N
80.
When looking at the hill on the right, which side of the hill is steeper? The right hand side or the left hand side?
a)
Right
b)
Left
81.
Which statement best explains why stars viewed from the Northern Hemisphere appear to revolve around Polaris?
a)
Polaris rotates on its axis
b)
Earth rotates on its axis.
c)
 Polaris revolves around Earth.
d)
Earth revolves around Polaris.
82.
The hydrosphere covers approximately what percentage of Earth’s lithosphere?
a)
100%
b)
70%
c)
50% 
d)
25% 
83.
Which planet has a density that is less than the density of liquid water?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Mars 
d)
Saturn 
84.
Which diagram best represents the relative wavelengths of visible light, ultraviolet energy, and infrared energy?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
85.
What would most likely reduce the amount of runoff at location B?
a)
infiltration occurring faster than precipitation
b)
greater condensation than evaporation
c)
saturated soil below the land surface
d)
a frozen land surface
86.
What is the largest type of sediment that could be transported at location B?
a)
silt
b)
sand
c)
pebbles
d)
cobbles
87.
In sea-floor spreading the newest rock is found
a)
mid-ocean ridge
b)
trench
c)
abyssal plain
88.
What type of plate boundary created the Himalaya mountains?
a)
Continent-Continent Divergent
b)
Continent-Ocean Convergent
c)
Ocean-Ocean Convergent
d)
Continent-Continent Convergent
89.
What kind of tide is being experience here?
a)
Neap high tide
b)
Neap low tide
c)
Spring high tide
d)
Spring low tide
90.
Which location is most likely experiencing the greatest wind speeds? 
a)
Location A
b)
Location B
c)
Location C
d)
Location D
91.
A major piece of evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory and the expansion of the universe is the observation of wavelengths of stars in distant galaxies show a
a)
red shift and are moving away
b)
red shift and moving towards
c)
blue shift and moving away
d)
blue shift and moving towards
92.

A solar eclipse might be observed from Earth when the Moon is at which position?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

93.

Which phase of the Moon will be observed in New York State when the Moon is at position 8?

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

How many days are required for the Moon to complete a cycle of phases from the new Moon position represented in the diagram to the new Moon the following month?

a)

2.2 d

b)

27.3 d

c)

29.5 d

d)

365.26 d

95.

The symbols above represent star masses and distances. Which diagram shows two stars that have the greatest gravitational force between them?

a)
b)
c)
d)
96.

On which day of the year does the Sun reach the greatest altitude at solar noon in New York City?

a)

June 21

b)

September 23

c)

April 21

d)

December 21

97.

Which sequence of Moon phases could be observed from Earth during a 2-week period?

a)
b)
c)
d)
98.

Which planet has an orbital eccentricity most like the orbital eccentricity of the Moon?

a)

Saturn

b)

Mars

c)

Mercury

d)

Neptune

99.

Which evidence best supports the theory that the universe began with a massive explosion?

a)

cosmic background radiation in space

b)

parallelism of Earth's axis

c)

radioactive dating of Earth's bedrock

d)

life cycle of stars

100.

Which star has a surface temperature most similar to the surface temperature of Alpha Centauri?

a)

Polaris

b)

Procyon B

c)

Betelgeuse

d)

Sirius

101.

Which process combines lighter elements into heavier elements and produces energy within the Sun and other stars?

a)

fusion

b)

insolation

c)

conduction

d)

radioactive decay

102.

Which statement describes the general relationship between the temperature and the luminosity of main sequence stars?

a)

As temperature decreases, luminosity increases.

b)

As temperature decreases, luminosity remains the same.

c)

As temperature increases, luminosity increases.

d)

As temperature increases, luminosity remains the same.

103.

Which planet's day (period of rotation) is longer than its year (period of revolution)?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Jupiter

d)

Saturn

104.

Which phase of the moon could be observed from Earth when the moon is at location 4?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Waning Crescent

105.

Which phase of the moon could be observed from Earth when the moon is at location 7?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Third Quarter

c)

New Moon

d)

First Quarter

106.

The diagram above represents Earth in space on the rst day of a season. Which season is beginning in New York State on the day represented in the diagram?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

107.

Which sequence correctly lists the relative sizes from smallest to largest?

a)

our solar system, universe, Milky Way Galaxy

b)

our solar system, Milky Way Galaxy, universe

c)

Milky Way Galaxy, our solar system, universe

d)

Milky Way Galaxy, universe, our solar system

108.

A student in New York State looked toward

the eastern horizon to observe sunrise at three different times during the year. The student drew the following diagram that shows the positions of sunrise, A, B, and C, during this one-year period. Which list correctly pairs the location of sunrise to the time of the year?

a)

A-June 21

B-March 21

C-December 21

b)

A-March 21

B-June 21

C-December 21

c)

A-December 21

B-March 21

C-June 21

d)

A-June 21

B-December 21

C-March 21

109.

Spring ocean tides occur when the difference in height between high tide and low tide is greatest. At which two positions of the Moon will spring tides occur on Earth?

a)

1 and 5

b)

2 and 6

c)

3 and 7

d)

4 and 8

110.

1) Which one measures degrees above or below the equator?

a)

longitude

b)

latitude

111.

3) The lines on which set of views best represent Earth's latitude system?

a)
b)
c)
d)
112.

4) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of the sunken ship?

a)

20.5° S , 70° W

b)

20.5° S. 70° E

c)

20.5° N, 70° W

d)

20.5° N, 70° E

113.

6) What is the location of Lisianski Island?

a)

26° N, 174° E

b)

26° N, 174°W

c)

26°S, 174°E

d)

26°S, 174° W

114.

8) Which diagram is most similar to the latitude-longitude system used on Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
115.

7) New York State's highest peak, Mt. Marcy, is located at approximately

a)

74°05' N, 44°05 'W

b)

73° 55' N, 44°10' W

c)

44°10' N, 74°05' W

d)

44°05' N, 73°55' W

116.

9) What is the time in New York City when it is noon in Denver? (The shading represents time zones.)

a)

10 am

b)

noon

c)

2 pm

d)

3 pm

117.

10) Which point on the diagram correctly locates 15° S and 30° W?

a)

Z

b)

Y

c)

X

d)

W

118.

Stars that show red shift are. . .

a)

moving away from Earth

b)

moving toward Earth

c)

remaining stationary

119.

In what star stage is the Sun currently in?

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Supergiant

c)

Giant

d)

Dwarf

120.
What part of the moon do we see from Earth?
a)
all of it
b)
the same side
c)
none of it
d)
only one quarter
121.
Which moon phase is when you can't see the moon at all?
a)
Waning crescent
b)
Full moon
c)
Waxing gibbous
d)
New moon
122.
The Earth takes about __________________ hours to complete one rotation of its axis.  
a)
12
b)
24
c)
14
d)
28
123.
At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?
a)
Northern hemisphere
b)
Southern hemisphere
124.
What planet is closest to the Sun?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Neptune
d)
Mars
125.

According to this chart, select which statement below is correct

a)

The Sun is a Main Sequence star with a temperature of 1 and a luminosity of 6000

b)

Betelgeuse is a blue supergiant with a temperature of 30000K

c)

Polaris is 100,000 times brighter than our Sun

d)

The main sequence is the largest group of stars in our universe

126.

Which statement is true about Jovian planets?

a)

Jovian planets have longer periods of rotation than Terrestrial planets do

b)

Jovian planets are made mostly of gas and have a high density

c)

Jovian planets have shorter periods of revolution than Terrestrial planets do

d)

Jovian planets are larger in diameter but small in density than Terrestrial planets are

127.

All energy in this diagram is arranged by

a)

speed

b)

wavelength

c)

color

d)

accuracy

128.

A solar eclipse might be observed from Earth when the Moon is at which position?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

129.

Which list correctly matches each instrument with the weather variable it measures

a)

wind vane—wind speed

thermometer—temperature

precipitation gauge—relative humidity

b)

wind vane—wind direction

thermometer—dewpoint

psychrometer—air pressure

c)

barometer—relative humidity

anemometer—cloud cover

precipitation gauge—probability of precipitation

d)

barometer—air pressure

anemometer—wind speed

psychrometer—relative humidity

130.

Which weather change is most likely indicated by rapid falling air pressure

a)

humidity is decreasing

b)

temperature is decreasing

c)

skies are clearing

d)

a storm is approaching

131.

Base your answer on the weather map below, which shows the locations of a high-pressure center (H) and a low-pressure center (L) over a portion of North America. The isolines indicate surface air pressures.

The arrows on which map show the most likely path in which these two pressure centers will move over the next few days?

a)
b)
c)
d)
132.

Which map shows the most likely location of clouds associated with these pressure centers?

a)
b)
c)
d)
133.

Which map best represents the surface wind pattern associated with high-pressure and low-pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)
b)
c)
d)
134.

An air mass entering Alaska from the northern Pacific Ocean would most likely be labeled on a weather map as

a)

cP

b)

cT

c)

mP

d)

mT

135.

Jet stream winds over the United States generally move from

a)

east to west

b)

west to east

c)

north to south

d)

south to north

136.

Base your answer on on the station models below, which show various weather conditions recorded at the same time on the same day at four different cities.

Which city had the lowest relative humidity?

a)

Chicago

b)

Detroit

c)

Buffalo

d)

Utica

137.

What is the dewpoint temperature when the relative humidity is 30% and the air temperature is 20°C?

a)

-28oC

b)

2oC

c)

6oC

d)

9oC

138.

Base your answer on the map below, which shows sea-level air pressure, in millibars, for a portion of the eastern coast of North America. Points A, B, C, and D are sea-level locations on Earth's surface.

Which location most likely recorded the highest wind speed?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

139.

Which list shows atmospheric layers in the correct order upward from the Earth's surface?

a)

thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere

b)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

c)

stratosphere, mesosphere, troposphere, thermosphere

d)

thermosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere

140.

Which cross section best represents a cold front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
141.

A surface will most effectively reflect insolation if it is

a)

A) rough and light-colored

b)

B) smooth and light-colored

c)

C) rough and dark-colored

d)

D) smooth and dark-colored

142.

Which factor keeps the greatest percentage of insolation from reaching the Earth's surface on cloudy days?

a)

A) absorption by cloud droplets

b)

B) reflection by cloud droplets

c)

C) absorption by clear-air gas moleculess

d)

D) reflection by clear-air gas molecule

143.

Which diagram best shows the apparent path of the Sun observed at New York City on March 21?

a)
b)
c)
d)
144.

At which location are the Sun's noontime rays perpendicular (most direct) to Earth's surface at the Tropic of Cancer? (23.5° N)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

145.

The table above provides information about four minerals, A through D. Mineral A is most likely...

a)

Galena

b)

Garnet

c)

Olivine

d)

Halite

146.

Which mineral can scratch A, B, and C, but cannot scratch D?

a)

Talc

b)

Fluorite

c)

Quartz

d)

Selenite Gypsum

147.

Quartz and halite have different crystal shapes primarily because

a)

Light reflects from crystal surfaces

b)

Energy is released during crystallization

c)

Of impurities that produce surface variations

d)

The internal arrangement of atom

148.

Which rock is composed of the mineral halite that formed when seawater evaporated?

a)

limestone

b)

rock gypsum

c)

dolostone

d)

rock salt

149.

Which sample best shows the physical properties normally associated with the slow cooling of magma?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

150.

Which two rocks have the most similar composition?

a)

marble and rhyolite

b)

limestone and basalt

c)

quartzite and rock salt

d)

granite and phyllite

151.

Which type of rock is most likely to contain fossils?

a)

granite

b)

shale

c)

gneiss

d)

metaconglomerate

152.

The rock shown above has a foliated texture and contains the minerals amphibole, quartz, and feldspar arranged in coarse-grained bands. Which rock is shown?

a)

slate

b)

dunite

c)

gneiss

d)

quartzite

153.

Which texture best describes an igneous rock that formed deep underground?

a)

glassy

b)

fine grained

c)

vesicular

d)

coarse grained

154.

Which sedimentary rock may have both a chemical origin and an organic origin?

a)

limestone

b)

shale

c)

rock gypsum

d)

schist

155.
What is the range of pressure in Earth’s interior
where rock with a density range of 9.9 to
12.2 g/cm3 is found?
a)
0.2 to 1.4 million atmospheres
b)
0.8 to 2.3 million atmospheres
c)
1.4 to 3.1 million atmospheres
d)
2.3 to 3.5 million atmospheres
156.
In which landscape region are New York State’s
Finger Lakes primarily located?
a)
Adirondack Mountains
b)
Allegheny Plateau
c)
Atlantic Coastal Plain
d)
Erie-Ontario Lowlands
157.
Which two features are commonly found at
divergent plate boundaries?
a)
mid-ocean ridges and rift valleys
b)
wide valleys and deltas
c)
ocean trenches and subduction zones
d)
hot spots and island arcs
158.
New York State bedrock of which age contains
salt, gypsum, and hematite?
a)
Cambrian
b)
Devonian
c)
Mississippian
d)
Silurian
159.
Which organisms were alive when New York
State was last covered by a continental ice sheet?
a)
Eurypterus and Cooksonia
b)
Aneurophyton and Naples Tree
c)
mastodont and Beluga whale
d)
Coelophysis and Elliptocephala
160.
Which 2 layers of the Earth form the lithosphere?
a)
Crust and Core
b)
Crust and lower mantle
c)
Crust and upper mantle
d)
Crust and middle mantle
161.
____ is sediment left directly on the grounds surface by retreating glaciers.
a)
Erosion
b)
Sediment
c)
Moraine
d)
Till
162.
Wind speed can be measured using
a)
an anemometer
b)
a thermometer
c)
a barometer
d)
a spectrometer
163.
The layer of our atmosphere in which weather occurs is the
a)
troposphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
exosphere
164.
The temperature at which air is saturated and condensation forms is the:
a)
dew point
b)
rain point
c)
wind point
d)
relative humidity
165.
What is the function of the ozone layer?
a)
to allow UV rays to get to Earth
b)
to block UV rays from getting to Earth
c)
To keep oxygen in
d)
to allow meteors to get to Earth
166.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an index fossil. 
a)
lived for short period of time
b)
found only in one spot on Earth
c)
geographically widespread
167.
Which conditions will result in high wind?
a)
large differences in air pressure
b)
heavy rains over several days
c)
increase in evaporation rates
d)
presence of cirrus clous
168.
Which feature will most likely form when the partially buried ice block melts ?
a)
Delta
b)
Moraine
c)
Drumlin
d)
Kettle Lake
169.
Which has the largest wavelengths
a)
Radio waves
b)
Micro waves
c)
Ultra violet waves
d)
X-rays
170.
The major greenhouse gas(es)
a)
carbon dioxide and water vapor
b)
aerosols/CFC's
c)
manure
d)
sulfur dioxide
171.
A seismic station is located 8000 kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake. How long did it take the first P-wave to travel from the epicenter to the seismic station?
a)
9 minutes 20 seconds
b)
11 minutes 20 seconds
c)
20 minutes 40 seconds
d)
4 minutes 20 seconds
172.

31.What are two major factors that control the

development of soil in a given location?

a)

vegetative cover and slope

b)

tectonic activity and elevation

c)

erosion and transpiration

d)

bedrock composition and climate

173.

33. Which two rocks contain the mineral quartz?

a)

gabbro and schist

b)

dunite and sandstone

c)

granite and gneiss

d)

pumice and scoria

174.

35. Which mineral is commonly used as the "lead'" in pencils?

a)

pyrite

b)

graphite

c)

galena

d)

fluorite

175.

36.  Based on the graph, the first low tide on December 26 occurred at approximately

a)

6 a.m.

b)

11 a.m.

c)

6 p.m.

d)

11 p.m.

176.

37. These Long Island tides show a pattern that is

a)

cyclic and predictable

b)

cyclic and unpredictable

c)

noncyclic and predictable

d)

noncyclic and unpredictable

177.

38. During which season in the Northern Hemisphere is Earth at aphelion?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

fall

178.

Dry areas caused by sinking air and diverging surface winds are located at which two latitudes?

a)

0º and 30º N

b)

30º N and 30º S

c)

0º and 60º S

d)

60º N and 60º S

179.
The longest portion of the Genesee River in New York State flows through which landscape region?
a)
Erie-Ontario Lowlands
b)
Tug Hill Plateau
c)
Allegheny Plateau
d)
St. Lawrence Lowlands
180.
At which latitude is the Sun directly overhead on certain days of the year?
a)
23.5° N
b)
66.5° N
c)
42° N
d)
90° N
181.
In which two temperature zones of the atmosphere does the temperature increase with increasing altitude?
a)
troposphere and stratosphere
b)
troposphere and mesosphere
c)
stratosphere and thermosphere
d)
mesosphere and thermosphere
182.
The red shift of light from distant galaxies provides evidence that these galaxies are
a)
decreasing in size
b)
increasing in size
c)
decreasing in distance from Earth
d)
increasing in distance from Earth
183.

Liquid water can store more heat energy than an equal amount of any other naturally occurring substance because liquid water

a)

covers 71% of Earth's surface

b)

has its greatest density at 4º C

c)

has the higher specific heat

d)

can be changed into a solid or a gas

184.

Adjacent water and landmasses are heated by the morning Sun on a clear, calm day. After a few hours, a surface wind develops. Which map best represents this wind's direction?

a)
b)
c)
d)
185.

If it took the S-wave 4 minutes to travel (travel time on y-axis), how far was the epicenter distance (x-axis)?

a)

1 x 103 km

b)

2 x 103 km

c)

3 x 103 km

d)

4 x 103 km

186.

The p-waves of an earthquake arrived at a seismic station at 08:55:50 and the s-waves arrived at 09:03:40. What is the distance to the epicenter from this seismic station?

a)

4700 km

b)

6100 km

c)

2200 km

d)

750 km

187.
Which city is closest to the epicenter?  
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
188.

Humus, which is formed by the decay of plant and animal matter, is important for the formation of most

a)

soils

b)

minerals

c)

delicious dip for pita chips

d)

surface bedrock

189.

Which agent of erosion is most likely responsible for the deposition of sandbars along ocean shorelines?

a)

glaciers

b)

mass movement

c)

wave action

d)

wind action

190.

Solution, suspension, and bed load are the three components of...

a)

stream load

b)

gravity

c)

erosion

d)

water

191.
The steeper the slope, the ________ the stream.
a)
Slower
b)
Broader
c)
Faster
d)
Curvier
192.
The entire area drained by a river and its tributaries is called a 
a)
Delta
b)
Watershed
c)
Valley
d)
Floodplain
193.
Which layer of the soil profile would be affected the most by weathering and erosion?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
194.

Elevated land areas called __________ separate one watershed from another.

a)

mountains

b)

divides

c)

water splits

d)

water falls

195.

A bend or curve in a stream caused by moving water is called ___________.

a)

meander

b)

river

c)

oxbow

d)

point bar

196.

This wide U-shaped valley is shown in the picture. It was most likely formed by -

a)

Floods eroded the sediment away.

b)

Glaciers eroded the sediment as it melted and moved.

c)

Wind blew large rocks that smashed against the canyon walls.

d)

A hurricane carried away sediment

197.
The surface temperature of which sample increased at the slowest rate?
a)
water
b)
basaltic sand
c)
copper pennies
d)
iron fragments
198.
What is the density of this material?
a)
1.0 g/cm3
b)
5.0 g/cm3
c)
10.0 g/cm3
d)
20.0 g/cm3
199.

Which of these is an example of erosion?

a)

Light shining on a mountain

b)

Wind blowing away sediment.

c)

Rain breaking down rock.

d)

All of the above.

200.

What city will experience decreasing temperatures in the next day?

a)

Denver

b)

El Paso

c)

Memphis

d)

Los Angeles

201.

What city is most likely going to see temperatures rise?

a)

San Jose

b)

El Paso

c)

Jacksonville

d)

Chicago

202.

Low Pressures are associated with what type of weather

a)

fair weather

b)

cold weather

c)

warm weather

d)

rainy weather

203.

A piece of wood floats on water. A rock sinks in water.

List these three substances in order from least dense to most dense.

a)

Rock - Water - Wood

b)

Wood - Water - Rock

c)

Water- Rock - Wood

d)

Water - Wood - Rock

e)

Rock - Wood - Water

204.
Why do some substances float on water?
a)
they are warmer than water
b)
they are cooler than water
c)
they are more dense than water
d)
they are less dense than water
205.

Which of the following is NOT a Metric unit of measurement?

a)

meters

b)

grams

c)

miles

d)

liters

206.

3. A student recorded the times of three successive high tides at one location as: 9:12 a.m.

9:38 p.m.

10:04 a.m.

What is the approximate time of the next high tide?

a)

A) 10:12 p.m

b)

B) 10:30 p.m.

c)

C) 10:38 p.m.

d)

D) 11:04 p.m.

207.

A pebble has a mass of 35 grams and a volume of 14 cubic centimeters. What is its density?

a)

A) 0.4 g/cm³

b)

B) 2.5 g/cm³

c)

C) 490 g/cm³

d)

D) 4.0 g/cm³

208.

4. The sphere was dropped into water in a graduated cylinder as shown.

What is the volume of the sphere?

a)

A. 15 mL

b)

B. 25 mL

c)

40 mL

d)

65 mL

209.

Which statement about a major hurricane is an inference?

a)

The windspeed is a measured at 200 km/hr.

b)

The central air pressure is recorded at 946.0 mb.

c)

A rain gauge records three inches of rain in less than an hour.

d)

Damage from the storm is expected to be extensive.

Similar Resources on Wayground

Seasons/Moon Review

208 questions

Seasons/Moon Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

8th - Force and Motion

212 questions

8th - Force and Motion

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Science - ISS

211 questions

Science - ISS

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade