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8th Grade Science Review

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 5hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Anything that has mass and takes up space

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Matter

d)

Mixture

2.

A substance made of only one kind of atom


a)

Matter

b)

Element

c)

Mixture

d)

Compound

3.

a representation of a phenomenon, a system, a process, or a solution to an engineering problem that helps people visualize or understand the concept


a)

Matter

b)

Model

c)

Mixture

d)

Element

4.

A molecule that consists of two atoms that are the same


a)

Diatomic Element

b)

Element

c)

Compound

d)

Mixture

5.

A substance containing atoms of two more  different elements connected together chemically

a)

Diatomic Atom

b)

Element

c)

Mixture

d)

Compound

6.

A mixture in which two or more pure substances are evenly mixed

a)

Homogenous Mixture

b)

Heterogeneous Mixture

7.

A mixture in which two or more pure substances are NOT evenly mixed


a)

Homogenous Mixture

b)

Heterogenous Mixture

8.

Another name for a homogenous mixture. Substances are dissolved into each other.


a)

Heterogenous mixture

b)

Compound

c)

Solution

d)

Matter

9.

What are two the two types of pure substances?

a)

elements

b)

compounds

c)

heterogenous mixtures

d)

homogenous mixtures

10.

What are two the two types of mixtures?

a)

elements

b)

compounds

c)

heterogenous

d)

homogenous

11.

A pure substances ________ be broken down into simpler matter using physical methods.

a)

sometimes

b)

can

c)

can not

12.

What is the simplest kind of pure substance?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogenous Mixtures

d)

Heterogenous Mixtures

13.

This is a water molecule. It is a ________.

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Heterogenous Mixture

d)

Homogenous Mixture

14.

Homogeneous mixtures are also called _______.

a)

Heterogenous mixtures

b)

Solutions

c)

Problem Solvers

d)

Water

15.

What type of substance is being modeled here?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

16.

What type of substance is being modeled here?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

17.

Which of these is an element?

a)

Salt (NaCl)

b)

Water (H20)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

18.

Which of these is a compound?

a)

Aluminium (Al)

b)

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

c)

Nitrogen (N)

d)

Sand

19.

What type of substance is pictured?

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

mixture

20.

Surface tension is the property of water in which...

a)

water molecules at the surface tend to stick together.

b)

water spills easily.

c)

water tends to be see-through.

21.

Describe COHESION.

a)

Water molecules attracted to other substances.

b)

Water molecules climbing upwards against the force of gravity.

c)

Water molecules dissolving many substances because of its polarity.

d)

Water molecules attracted to other water molecules.

22.
molecule in which opposite ends have opposite electric charges
a)
cohesion
b)
polar molecule
c)
hydrogen bond
d)
solution
23.
Which characteristic of water will allow a paperclip to remain floating on water when the paperclip is gently placed on top of the water?
a)
adhesion
b)
surface tension
c)
solvent properties
d)
nonpolar
24.

Water's ability to stick to glass is

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

surface tention

d)

capillary action

25.

Used to measure strength of acids and bases in a solution

a)

pH scale

b)

acids

c)

bases

d)

neutral

26.

The pH Scale spans from

____ to _____

(a)  

27.

Greater than 7 =

a)

Acid

b)

Base

28.

Turns Litmus paper red

a)

Acid

b)

Base

29.

Sour, sharp taste (lemons)

a)

Acids

b)

Bases

30.

Reactive with metals, corrosive and can burn skin, able to conduct electricity

a)

Acid

b)

Bases

31.

Turns litmus paper blue

a)

Acid

b)

Bases

32.

Has a pH of 7

a)

Neutral

b)

Acid

c)

Base

33.

What test can the students perform to correctly and safely identify acids and bases? They used litmus paper. The blue litmus turned red which indicates.......?

a)

Base

b)

Neutral

c)

alkaline

d)

acid

34.
A 500-gram block of solid cheese is melted in a pot. Which is most likely the mass of the cheese after it is melted?
a)
500 grams, because the cheese does not gain or lose mass just because it was melted
b)
499 grams, because some of the cheese evaporates as it melts
c)
502 grams, because the cheese absorbs heat as it melts
35.

How many atoms are in the products below?
4Fe +3O2 → 2Fe2O34Fe\ +3O_{2\ }\rightarrow\ 2Fe_2O_3  

a)

7

b)

10

c)

17

d)

20

36.
A 55-gram egg is placed in a pot. After the egg is boiled, which is most likely the mass of the egg?
a)
50 
b)
55 
37.
In a reaction A + B ----> C,  reactant A has 5g and product  C has 9g. How many grams does reactant B should have? 
a)
4g
b)
5g
c)
9g
d)
14g
38.
Is this equation balanced or unbalanced? 
H2 + O2 --> H2O
a)
balanced
b)
unbalanced
39.

When sodium and chlorine combine to form sodium chloride, sodium chloride is the:

a)

Originator

b)

Reactant

c)

Product

d)

Produce

40.
How many nitrogen atoms are in 
Fe(NO3)2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
41.
How many oxygen atoms are in 
Fe(NO3)2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
42.
How many iron atoms are in 
Fe(NO3)2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
43.

Used to measure strength of acids and bases in a solution

a)

pH scale

b)

acids

c)

bases

d)

neutral

44.

The pH Scale spans from

____ to _____

(a)  

45.

Greater than 7 =

a)

Acid

b)

Base

46.

Turns Litmus paper red

a)

Acid

b)

Base

47.

Sour, sharp taste (lemons)

a)

Acids

b)

Bases

48.

Reactive with metals, corrosive and can burn skin, able to conduct electricity

a)

Acid

b)

Bases

49.

Turns litmus paper blue

a)

Acid

b)

Bases

50.

Has a pH of 7

a)

Neutral

b)

Acid

c)

Base

51.

The pH scale is used to measure how acidic or basic something is. A pH value lower than 7 indicates a substance is _______, while a pH value higher than 7 is considered ________. Pure water is considered _______, with a pH of_______ .

Choose the option that identifies the missing terms, in order of appearance in the sentences.

a)

acidic; acidic; neutral; 12

b)

 acidic; basic; neutral; 7

c)

basic; acidic; basic; 1

d)

  1. neutral; basic; basic; 7

52.

A student uses litmus to test an unknown substance. The red litmus turns blue which indicates. the solution is .......?

a)

Base

b)

Neutral

c)

Acid

d)

positive hydrogen

53.

What test can the students perform to correctly and safely identify acids and bases? They used litmus paper. The blue litmus turned red which indicates.......?

a)

Base

b)

Neutral

c)

alkaline

d)

acid

54.
What is Newton's First Law
a)
F=ma
b)
Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
c)
An object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion. 
d)
Friction 
55.
Which type of force(s) will cause a change in an object's motion?
a)
gravity
b)
zero net force
c)
balanced forces
d)
unbalanced forces
56.
According to Newton’s first law of motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will
a)
remain in motion.
b)
eventually come to a stop.
c)
change its momentum.
d)
accelerate.
57.
What is Newton's First Law known as? The Law of
a)
Friction
b)
Mass
c)
Inertia
d)
Gravity
58.
What is inertia?
a)
the force that opposes motion
b)
the force of attraction between 2 objects
c)
an object's tendency to stay in motion or to stay at rest
d)
a change in an object's speed and/or direction
59.
Why does an 18-wheeler have more inertia than a bicycle?
a)
it has more mass
b)
it has more volume
c)
it is not as aerodynamic
60.

What is Newton's 2nd Law?

a)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

b)

An object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion.

c)

F = ma

d)

Friction

61.
A greater applied force is required to move an object with a greater mass than one with a smaller mass.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
The SI units for force are...
a)
Kilograms
b)
Newtons
c)
Meters per second
d)
Pounds
63.
Unit of mass
a)
m/s 2
b)
m/s
c)
newtons
d)
kg
64.
Newton's Third Law States...
a)
Objects in motion stay in motion and objects at rest stay at rest
b)
Force is equal to mass times acceleration
c)
For each action there is an equal and opposite reaction
65.
A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball. The reaction force is...
a)
The grip of the player's hands on the ball
b)
the air resistance of the ball
c)
the force of the ball against the bat
66.

When you hit a tennis ball with a racket...

a)

The ball exerts more force on the racket

b)

The ball and racket exert the same force on each other

c)

The racket exerts more force on the ball

d)

It depends on how hard you hit it

67.

What is acceleration?

a)

The rate at which velocity changes

b)

What causes an object to slow down

c)

What keeps an object steady

d)

What holds objects down on Earth

68.

What is velocity?

a)

The rate at which an object speeds up

b)

The speed of an object in a given direction

c)

Keeps an object steadily at rest

d)

Releases heat upon colliding

69.

A man is throwing a bowling ball and a basketball. Both, the bowling ball and basketball, have the same mass. Which ball will require more force to move?

a)

Basketball

b)

Bowling Ball

c)

Neither

d)

Both will require the same force

70.

True or False: Things with lower mass have greater acceleration?

a)

True

b)

False

71.

If I had 3 carts that were all pushed with same amount of force, what would be the order of greatest acceleration to least acceleration?

CART 1 = 5 KG

CART 2 = 15 KG

CART 3= 10KG

a)

CART 1, CART 2, CART 3

b)

CART 2, CART 3, CART 1

c)

CART 3, CART 2, CART 1

d)

CART 1, CART 3, CART 2

72.

What is the formula for acceleration?

a)

A = F X M

b)

A = F + M

c)

A = F/M

73.

What is the formula for Force?

a)

F = M X A

b)

F = M + A

c)

F = M/A

74.

What is the formula for Mass?

a)

M = F X A

b)

M = F +A

c)

M = F/A

75.

How do you solve for force?

a)

to solve for force, multiply mass and acceleration

b)

to solve for force, divide mass by acceleratiton

c)

to solve for force, divide acceleration by mass

d)

to solve for net force, add mass and acceleration

76.

When you get an a car accident your seatbelt is the force that stops your body from moving forward. This force stopping the forward motion is known as

a)

friction

b)

gravity

c)

inertia

d)

Newton's 2nd Law

77.

If an object does not move the forces are?

a)

Equal and move in opposite directions

b)

Are not equal and move in opposite directions

c)

Equal and move in the same direction

78.

Amelia pushes an object with a force of 25 newtons and the object does not move. That means that the opposite force is how many newtons?

a)

30 N

b)

20 N

c)

25 N

d)

10 N

79.

If you bounce a bouncing ball on the ground what is the action-reaction pair that causes the ball to bounce?

a)

The floor pushes up on the

ball as the ball pushes down on

the floor with an equal and

opposite amount of force.

b)

The gym floor pushes up on the ball as gravity pulls down on the ball with an equal amount of force.

c)

The floor pushes up on the ball with greater amount of force than gravity pulls down the ball

d)

The floor pushes up on the

ball with a greater amount of

force than the ball pushes down

on the floor.

80.

When a bird is flying, their wings are pushing DOWN against the air. In turn, the air pushes __________ against their wings allowing them to fly.

a)

DOWN

b)

UP

c)

FORWARD

d)

BACKWARD

81.

When a person is skateboarding, their leg is pushing BACKWARD against the ground. In turn, the ground pushes __________ against their foot allowing them to skateboard.

a)

DOWN

b)

UP

c)

FORWARD

d)

BACKWARD

82.

When a rocket engine burns, hot gas flows DOWNWARD out the bottom of the rocket. In turn, a thrusting force is produced ____________. This allows a rocket to launch or takeoff.

a)

DOWNWARD

b)

UPWARD

c)

BACKWARD

d)

FORWARD

83.

When a jellyfish is swimming, their body is pushing DOWN against the water. In turn, the water pushes __________ against their body allowing them to swim.

a)

DOWN

b)

UP

c)

FORWARD

d)

BACKWARD

84.

A rocket pushes burning gases DOWN which causes the rocket to launch UP. Which law is this?

a)

Newton's 1st Law - Law of Inertia

b)

Newton's 2nd Law - Law of Acceleration

c)

Newton's 3rd Law - Law of Force Pairs (Action, Reaction)

85.

It is much more difficult to move a dresser full of clothes than an empty dresser. Which law supports this?

a)

Newton's 1st Law - Law of Inertia

b)

Newton's 2nd Law - Law of Acceleration

c)

Newton's 3rd Law - Law of Force Pairs (Action, Reaction)

86.

When a horse stops suddenly, the rider on its back continues to move forward onto the ground. Which law is this?

a)

Newton's 1st Law - Law of Inertia

b)

Newton's 2nd Law - Law of Acceleration

c)

Newton's 3rd Law - Law of Force Pairs (Action, Reaction)

87.

A sports car speeds up much faster than a tow truck when a traffic light turns from red to green. Which law is this?

a)

Newton's 1st Law - Law of Inertia

b)

Newton's 2nd Law - Law of Acceleration

c)

Newton's 3rd Law - Law of Force Pairs (Action, Reaction)

88.

Which example best explains Newton's Third Law of Motion?

a)

When a glass slid across a table, it spilled water when it stopped suddenly.

b)

An engine used less work to move a lighter car than when it moved a heavier car.

c)

When you sit on a chair, your body exerts a downward force on the surface of the chair, while the chair exerts an equal and upward force on your body.

89.
When mass is 10 kg, acceleration is 2 m/s/s, what is force?
F = ma
a)
5 N
b)
20 N
c)
8 N
d)
12 N
90.
The larger the mass you have the _____ force you need to change its motion.
a)
more
b)
less
91.

A 50-kg crate is pushed with a horizontal acceleration of 20 m/s2. What net force is acting on the crate?

a)

2.5 N

b)

0.4 N

c)

1000 N

d)

30 N

92.

A 20-N net force acts on an object with a mass of 2.0 kg. What is the object's acceleration?

a)

10 m/s2

b)

0.1 m/s2

c)

40 m/s2

d)

22 m/s2

93.
What is the left part of a chemical equation called?
H2 + O → H2O
a)
Reactants
b)
Products 
c)
Yields 
d)
Chemical Equation 
94.

Which is the best example of a chemical change?

a)

butter melting

b)

egg cooking

c)

paper tearing

d)

water evaporating

95.
How many protons are in this element?
a)
79
b)
196
c)
117
d)
Cannot be determined
96.

How bright a star appears from Earth

a)

Apparent Magnitude

b)

Absolute magnitude

97.

How bright a star appears from Earth

a)

Apparent Magnitude

b)

Absolute magnitude

98.

How bright stars actually are

a)

apparent magnitude

b)

absolute magnitude

99.
What word best describes our sun?
a)
Average
b)
Supergiant
c)
Dwarf
d)
Red Giant
100.
What color of star is the hottest?
a)
Blue
b)
Red
c)
Yellow
d)
Orange
101.
What color of star is the coolest?
a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
White
102.
What is the name of the largest stars?
a)
Protostars
b)
Supergiants
c)
Red Giants
d)
Dwarf Stars
103.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
104.
What is the name of the gas/dust clouds that form stars?
a)
Nebulas
b)
Protostars 
c)
Supernova
d)
Neutron Star
105.
Most stars are made of which elements?
a)
Hydrogen only
b)
Hydrogen and Lithium
c)
Hydrogen and Sodium
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
106.
A small, hot star near the end of its life is a star called a
a)
white dwarf
b)
red dwarf
c)
supergiant
d)
protostar
107.

Our sun is currently in what star stage?

a)

Protostar

b)

Nebula

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Red Giant

108.
After the main sequence, a low mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
109.

Felix examined several photos of stars. To compare their temperatures, he looked at the colors of the stars. He organized the photos in order from coolest to hottest. Which of these answers shows the correct order?

a)

red, yellow, white, blue

b)

white, blue, yellow, red

c)

yellow, white, blue, red

d)

blue, yellow, white, red

110.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to classify stars?
a)
Color
b)
Temperature
c)
Size
d)
Shape
111.
True or False
The Sun is the biggest star in the sky.
a)
True
b)
False
112.
A black hole is an object so dense with so much gravity that even ________ cannot escape.
a)
gravity
b)
galaxies
c)
spaceships
d)
light
113.

What will be the next stage in our star the sun's life cycle?

a)

supernova

b)

white dwarf

c)

blackhole

d)

red giant

114.
All stars begin their life in a
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Nebula
c)
Protostar
d)
Black Dwarf
115.
The H-R diagram is a graph that shows the relationship between ______________ for stars. 
a)
temperature and color
b)
temperature and brightness
c)
brightness and color
d)
distance and brightness
116.
What color of star is the coolest?
a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
White
117.
What color of star is the hottest?
a)
Blue
b)
Red
c)
Yellow
d)
Orange
118.

Our solar system is located in which galaxy?

a)

Andromeda

b)

Milky Way

c)

Proxima X

d)

Triangulum

119.

What are 90% of stars classified as on the H-R diagram?

a)

Supergiants

b)

White Dwarfs

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Giants

120.

On the H-R diagram, it compares a star's brightness to its

a)

Temperature

b)

Composition

c)

Age

121.

In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the left?

a)

Stars get larger

b)

Stars get colder

c)

Stars get hotter

d)

Stars get sillier

122.

True or False: Red Giants are considered hotter than White Dwarfs.

a)

True

b)

False

123.
Which star has the lowest temperature?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
124.

Which spectral class does our star, the sun, belong to?

a)

M

b)

K

c)

G

d)

B

125.

What determines the color of a star?

a)

Its size

b)

Its temperature

c)

Its composition

d)

They are all the same color

126.

A cloud of gas and dust

a)

nebula

b)

protostar

c)

supernova

d)

white dwarf

127.

a collection of dust and

gas that forms stars or

results from dying stars

a)

nebula

b)

supernova

128.

the collapse of a massive

star's core resulting in an

explosion

a)

nebula

b)

supernova

129.

A supergiant begins its life cycle in the nebula as a high-mass star before becoming a supergiant. It then

explodes in a supernova due to its increase in mass and loss of pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

130.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular 
d)
Irrational
131.
What type of galaxy has no defined pattern or shape?
a)
Spiral 
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Constellation
132.
What are in galaxies?
a)
ice and rock
b)
dust, gas, and stars
c)
stars and ice
d)
water and dust
133.
What type of galaxy has no defined pattern or shape?
a)
Spiral 
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Constellation
134.
What are the the 3 types of galaxies?
a)
Spiral Galaxies, Regular Galaxies, and Lliptical Galaxies
b)
Spiral Galaxies, Irregular Galaxies, and Elliptical Galaxies
c)
 Milky Way, Elliptical Galaxies, and Spiral Galaxies
d)
Milky Way, Elliptical Galaxies, and Irregular Galaxies
135.
A galaxy is a large collection of stars, gas and dust. What is responsible for holding the stars, gas, and dust together in a galaxy?
a)
heat
b)
light
c)
gravity
d)
friction
136.

The color of a star indicated its

a)

speed

b)

volume

c)

distance

d)

temperature

137.

What feature is used to classify galaxies?

a)

size

b)

shape

c)

color

d)

brightness

138.

Scientist believe that the universe is expanding because of a phenomena known as

a)

black holes

b)

red shift

c)

blue shift

d)

radioactivity

139.

As part of the Big Bang Theory of the formation of the universe, scientists believe that over time, the universe is continually changing in what characteristic?

a)

From more dense to less dense

b)

From rotating to stationary

c)

From cooler to hotter

d)

From very large to very small

140.

All the stars we observe from Earth emit light that is shifted, to varying degrees, to longer wavelengths. This evidence is used to support the Big Bang Theory because it shows that stars we observe -

a)

are all older than our Sun.

b)

are made up of helium gas.

c)

use nuclear fusion to make light.

d)

are moving away from us.

141.

Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) is the term used to describe the residual microwave radiation observed everywhere in the universe that seems to have no single source. The observation of CMBR is used as evidence of the Big Bang Theory because it is believed to be -

a)

the result of collisions between neighboring galaxies.

b)

particles of dust that have absorbed radioactivity.

c)

radiation left over from the rapid expansion of matter.

d)

light energy emitted from the source of the Big Bang.

142.
Look at the picture. Which stars have an
 Absolute Magnitude of -8?
a)
Betelgeuse
b)
the Sun
c)
White Dwarfs
d)
Antares
143.

The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shown is divided into four sections. Which section of the diagram includes the coolest, brightest stars?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

144.

A Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram is shown. A star that has a luminosity of 10-2 and a temperature of 20,000 K is most likely a –

a)

Main sequence

b)

White dwarf

c)

Blue giant

d)

Red giant

145.

Alpha Centauri appears as a bright object visible in the Milky Way galaxy. Alpha Centauri is actually a system of three objects. Each object produces light and rotates on its own axis. The system is an average of 4 light-years from Earth. Based on this information, the three objects that make up the Alpha Centauri system are all —

a)

asteroids

b)

comets

c)

planets

d)

stars

146.

Which statement best explains why the sun appears brighter to people on Earth than any other star?

a)

Sunlight reaches Earth’s atmosphere at an angle that causes the sun’s light rays to intensify.

b)

Unique chemical reactions in the sun’s core produce a high-energy wavelength of light.

c)

The sun burns at a higher temperature than any other star.

d)

The sun is closer to Earth than any other star.

147.

Atmospheric conditions of a certain place at a certain time (rain, cloud cover, humidity, and wind)

SHORT TERM

a)

weather

b)

climate

c)

hydrosphere

d)

atmosphere

148.

The LONG TERM weather patterns of a particular region (tropical, dry, temperate, continental, polar, wet)

a)

weather

b)

climate

c)

hydrosphere

d)

atmosphere

149.

The 3 main influences on weather are

a)

climate, atmosphere, and sun

b)

atmosphere, sun, and weather

c)

atmosphere, hydrosphere, and sun

d)

hydrosphere, sun, and climate

150.

True or False: Equator receives the most direct sunlight; intense heat

a)

True

b)

False

151.
____________ air sinks/falls because it is ____________dense.
a)
Cold, More
b)
Warm, Less
c)
Cold, Less
d)
Warm, More
152.
____________ air rises because it is ____________dense.
a)
Cool, Less
b)
Warm, Less
c)
Cold, More
d)
Warm, More
153.

Uneven heating of the Earth's surface by the Sun causes which of these?

a)

wind patterns

b)

cloud formation

c)

volcanic activity

d)

nutrient cycling

154.

The vertical elevation of an object above a surface, such as sea level or how tall a mountain is

a)

latitude

b)

altitude

c)

longitude

155.

The distance in degrees north or south of the equator

a)

latitude

b)

altitude

c)

longitude

156.
High humidity means what?
a)
There is a lot of water vapor in the air
b)
The temperature is cool
c)
There is a cold front approaching
d)
There is a high-pressure system
157.
What is the most common reference point that is used when talking about the elevation of natural landforms?
a)
Sea level
b)
River level
c)
Land level
d)
Lake level
158.
What is the source of energy for all weather on Earth?
a)
wind 
b)
sun
c)
air pressure
d)
rain
159.
The Gulf stream carries _____________ water from the east coast of The United States to the West coast of Europe.
a)
Cold
b)
Warm 
c)
Freezing
d)
Fresh
160.
Hot air rises because...
a)
it is less dense
b)
it is heavier
c)
it is more dense
d)
it contains Helium
161.
What type of weather usually goes with this symbol?
a)
Clear, sunny skies
b)
Cloudy skies
c)
Hot temperature
d)
Thunderstorms
162.
Which of the following will heat the fastest? 
a)
water
b)
land
c)
both heat at equal rates
163.
a)
Low Clouds
b)
Low Temperatures
c)
Light Wind
d)
Low Air Pressure
164.
High Pressure is associated with this type of weather...
a)
Cloudy/Overcast Weather
b)
Cold Weather
c)
Warm Weather
d)

Clear Skies and Happy Weather

165.
Low Pressure is associated with this type of weather...
a)
Cloudy/Overcast Weather
b)
Cold Weather
c)
Warm Weather
d)
Fair Weather
166.
Ocean currents travel in a non stop circular pattern because of the Sun's radiant energy. This energy is moved around in ocean currents through...
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
d)
Election
167.
As a result of the Coriolis effect in the northern hemisphere, winds are deflected:
a)
At a 45° angle from the original direction.
b)
At a 90° angle from the original direction.
c)
To the right of the original direction.
d)
To the left of the original direction.
168.
Uneven heating of Earth's surface by the sun causes which of these?
a)
wind patterns
b)
cloud formation
c)
volcanic activity
d)
nutrient cycling
169.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
170.
What is the Coriolis Effect and how does it effect global winds?
a)
Curving of winds due to rotation of earth curves wind counterclockwise in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere
b)
Movement of ocean currents caused by earth rotation' counterclockwise in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in Southern Hemisphere
c)
curve of global winds caused by global rotation clockwise in Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in Southern Hemisphere
171.
How do differences in air pressure affect the movement of air?
a)
Air always moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.
b)
Air always moves from areas of low altitudes to high altitudes.
c)
Air always moves from areas of low pressure to areas of high pressure.
d)
Air always moves from east to west.
172.
When water is heated in the ocean by the sun and turns into water vapor
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
transpiration
d)
runoff
173.
In which layer of the atmosphere does weather occur?
a)
Mesosphere
b)
Thermosphere
c)
Stratosphere
d)
Troposphere
174.
Describe how the ozone layer protects the earth.
a)
Absorbs solar radiation, Protects Earth from UV Rays,  and emits heat
b)
Ozone in the lower atmosphere is a pollutant
175.
Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer? 
a)
Mesosphere
b)
Stratosphere
c)
Ionosphere
d)
Exosphere
176.
As altitude increases, air pressure...
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
177.
The thin layer of gases surrounding Earth is called:
a)
hydrosphere
b)
geosphere
c)
atmosphere
d)
cryosphere
178.

Lowest layer of the atmosphere

a)

lifting

b)

troposphere

c)

wind funnel

d)

nitrogen

179.

The highest layer of the atmosphere is

a)

troposhphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

exosphere

180.

Airplanes fly in the

a)

troposhphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

exosphere

181.

As you get farther away from the Earth, the layers of the atmosphere get

a)

colder

b)

warmer

182.
The layers of the atmosphere in order from bottom to top are
a)
troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere
b)
troposphere, mesosphere, atmosphere, thermosphere
c)
mesosphere, thermosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, exosphere
d)
thermosphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, troposphere, exosphere
183.

Latitude affects the climate of an area.

a)

True

b)

False

184.

How does latitude affect the climate of an area?

a)

The higher the latitude, the warmer the temperature.

b)

The higher the latitude, the lower the temperature.

c)

The higher the latitude, the more precipitation.

d)

The higher the latitude the less precipitation.

185.

Elevation (Altitude) affects the climate of an area.

a)

True

b)

False

186.

How does elevation affect the climate of an area?

a)

As elevation increases, air temperature increases.

b)

As elevation increases, air temperature decreases.

c)

As elevation increases, precipitation increases.

d)

As elevation increases, precipitation decreases.

187.

Ocean currents affect the climate of an area.

a)

True

b)

False

188.

How do ocean currents affect the climate of an area? Choose all that apply.

a)

Cold ocean currents have a cooling effect on nearby land.

b)

Cold ocean currents have a warming effect on nearby land.

c)

Warm ocean currents make nearby land warmer.

d)

Warm ocean currents make nearby land colder.

189.

Distance from a large body of water does not affect the climate of an area.

a)

True

b)

False

190.

How does distance from a large body of water affect the climate?

a)

Cities near the ocean have less precipitation.

b)

Cities near the ocean have more precipitation.

c)

Cities near the ocean have a smaller temperature range.

d)

Cities near the ocean have a large temperature range.

191.
The warming of the atmosphere by the trapping of heat being radiated to space is called
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
the greenhouse effect
d)
radiation
192.
The second layer of the atmosphere up from Earth, where the ozone layer is that protects us from harmful UV rays, is the
a)
thermosphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
193.
Melting of glaciers and polar ice caps....
a)
will result in cooler temperatures in the Arctic
b)
will result in sea-levels rising
c)
Will have no effect on ecosystems
d)
None of the above
194.
Which type of front is pictured?
a)
Cold front
b)
Warm front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary front
195.
What symbol is this?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
196.
How are fronts formed?
a)
When two air masses meet
b)
when two winds meet
c)
when two clouds meet
197.
Which type of front is associated with purple humps and triangles facing the same direction?
a)
Cold
b)
Warm
c)
Stationary
d)
Occluded
198.

What type of front is shown?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

199.
When a cold front or a warm front stays in place for several days without invading another front, it is called a ______. 
a)
stationary front 
b)
 cold front 
c)
occluded front
d)
warm front 
200.
This is the symbol for which type of front?
a)
cold front
b)
warm front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
201.

A _____________ weather front occurs when a cold air mass moves forward, pushing the warm air mass up.

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

202.

Why does warm air rise above cold air?

a)

Warm air is less dense

b)

Warm air is more dense

c)

Cold air is stronger than warm air

203.

Which type of air mass is cold and dry?

a)

Continental polar

b)

Continental tropical

c)

Maritime polar

d)

Maritime tropical

204.

Which type of air mass is warm and humid?

a)

Continental polar

b)

Continental tropical

c)

Maritime polar

d)

Maritime tropical

205.

This is the symbol for a _____________ weather front.

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

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