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Worksheets

Praxis Practice

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 5hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does IEP stand for?
a)
Interesting Education Program
b)
Individualized Education Plan
c)
Interesting and Exciting Program
d)
Individual Educational Plan
2.
extreme inattention, impulsively, and hyperactivity are symptoms of 
a)
traumatic brain injury 
b)
deaf blindness
c)
giftedness
d)
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
3.
a developmental disability significantly affecting verbal and non-verbal communication and social interaction
a)
autism spectrum disorder
b)
giftedness
c)
identified learning disability
d)
visual impairment 
4.
the plan for accommodating a student's learning disability 
a)
behaviour intervention plan 
b)
PHIPA
c)
functional behavior assessment
d)
individual education plan
5.
Why do students with disabilities need an IEP?
a)
To give their teachers something to do
b)
So that there is an ISSP allocation
c)
Gives teachers the ability to modify school work
d)
It's the law
6.
What is the purpose of an IEP?
a)
To support a student's individual needs
b)
To make a student stand out
c)
So that teachers can legally meet about students 
d)
To support the needs of everyone
7.
Who is legally responsible for ensuring the goals in a student's IEP are met?
a)
The ISSP teacher 
b)
All teachers who teach the student 
c)
The classroom teacher 
d)
The ISRC team 
8.
Who comes to an IEP meeting?
a)
Case manager
b)
Parent(s), student, teachers, administrator
c)
Advocate
d)
The PE teacher
9.
A student's Individual Education Plan is reviewed...
a)
Every three years
b)
Annually
c)
Every five years
d)
BiWeekly
10.
boys outnumber girls 3 to 1 when it comes to learning disabilities
a)
True
b)
False
11.
IDEA
a)
INTERESTING  DUAL EDUCATION ACT
b)
INTERNATIONAL EDUCATION ACT
c)
INDIVIDUALS WITH DISABILITIES EDUCATION  ACT
d)
NONE OF THESE
12.
COMPUTERS, LAPTOPS, IPADS, MOTORIZED WHEELCHAIRS(CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER)
a)
HARDWARE
b)
SOFTWARE
c)
ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY
d)
ALL OF THESE
13.
MAINSTREAMING
a)
PLACING A SPECIAL NEEDS CHILD WITH TYPICAL PEERS FOR ONGOING ACTIVITIES
b)
GIVING THE SPECIAL NEEDS CHILD TOTAL FREEDOM
c)
100% INCLUSION
d)
NONE OF THESE
14.
INCLUSION
a)
SENDING SPECIAL NEEDS STUDENTS TO LOOSELY STRUCTURED ACTIVITIES WITHOUT SUPPORT
b)
ALLOWING SPECIAL NEEDS STUDENTS TO VISIT GENERAL EDUCATION CLASSES 
c)
TOTAL INTEGRATION OF SPECIAL NEEDS KIDS INTO GENERAL EDUCATION CLASSES WITH SUPPORT
d)
NONE OF THESE
15.
WHO HAS ACCESS TO A STUDENT'S IEP  RECORDS?
a)
EVERYONE
b)
LEGAL GUARDIAN
c)
MOTHER 
d)
MOTHER AND FATHER
16.

NCLB was replaced by ESSA. ESSA stands for?

a)

Every Student Succeeds Act

b)

Educating Student School Act

c)

Education Students Socially Act

d)

English Second School Act

17.

A student identified SLD has what type of disability?

a)

Special Language Deficit

b)

Specific Language Disability

c)

Specific Learning Deficit

d)

Specific Learning Disability

18.

Established in 1990, what is ADA?

a)

Association of Disabled Adults

b)

Autism Developmental Act

c)

Aspergers Disability Awareness

d)

Americans with Disabilities Act

19.

Every child is entitle to FAPE, but what is it?

a)

Fair And Public Education

b)

Forum on Academic Peer Education

c)

Free Appropriate Public Education

d)

Focus on Appropriate Pupil Education

20.

Someone is in need of a BIP, but what is it?

a)

Behavioral Individualized Plan

b)

Basic Instruction Plan

c)

Benchmarks for Individualized Plan

d)

Behavioral Intervention Plan

21.
The law regarding special education services that each state must follow is IDEA.  What does this stand for?
a)
Individuals with Disabilities Act
b)
Individuals Dealing with Education Assignments
c)
Individuals with Disorders Act
d)
Individuals with Disorders Education
22.

LRE is the term we use to assess each student carefully to determine the appropriate placement for services. This is an acronym for what?

a)

Limited Restrictive Education

b)

Least Restrictive Environment

c)

Little Restrictive Education

d)

Limited Education Restriction

23.

Students who have asthma, seizures, ADD, ADHD, and so much more can qualify as OHI. But what does this stand for?

a)

Orthopedic Health Impairment

b)

Other Health Issues

c)

Orthopedic Hearing Impairment

d)

Other Health Impairment

24.

AAC is an acronym for......

a)

Augmentative and Alternative Communication

b)

Alternative Alert Communication

c)

Accelerated Augmentative Communication

25.

ESY is......

a)

Extended Services Yearly

b)

Extended School Year

c)

Every Student Yearns

26.

LEA is required at every IEP meeting. The LEA is......

a)

Local Educational Agency

b)

Local Education Address

c)

Local English Agency

27.

Many students who have been identified as ED need to have a FBA completed. What does it stand for?

a)

Free Behavioral Assignment

b)

Free Biology Assessment

c)

Functional Biology Assignment

d)

Functional Behavioral Assessment

28.

Similar to HIPPA, FERPA protects individuals information in school. FERPA is......

a)

family educational rights & privacy act

b)

full educational readiness privacy act

c)

full educational rights & privacy act

29.

Which of the following is an example of a Specific Learning Disability

a)

Mental Retardation

b)

Dyslexia

c)

ADHD

d)

Autistic Spectrum Disorders

30.

Which of the following is an example of an intellectual disability

a)

Dyslexia

b)

ADHD

c)

Mental Retardation

d)

Autistic Spectrum Disorders

31.

Which of the following is an example of an intellectual disability

a)

Dyslexia

b)

ADHD

c)

Mental Retardation

d)

Autistic Spectrum Disorders

32.

Which of the following may occur in Expressive Language Disorder

a)

Limited amount of Speech

b)

Difficulty Learning new words

c)

Difficulty finding the right word

d)

All of the above

33.

Select the correct answer

Total absence of sight is when:

a)

Visual acuity less than 3/60 or 10/200 with best possible correction

b)

Limitation of the field vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree upto 10 degree

c)

both a & b

d)

none of the above

34.

---------- is a a type of visual impairment in which a person can see objects of far away but not of near.

(a)  

35.

Select the correct type of visual impairment by looking at the picture.

a)

Amblyopia

b)

Coloboma

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Astigmatism

36.

What should be the approach to teach visually impaired children?

a)

Teaching through activities

b)

Emphasis on concrete experiences

c)

Clear and concise instructions

d)

All of the above

37.

Which skills are necessary for visually impaired children to develop first?

a)

Tactile skills

b)

Auditory Skills

c)

both a & b

d)

None of the above

38.

What kind of class should be developed for visually impaired children?

a)

Large and Spacious

b)

Better Illuminated

c)

Large desktops

d)

All of the above

39.

What is the name of the Ministry for empowerment of persons with disabilities?

a)

Ministry of Women and Child Development

b)

Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

c)

Ministry of Welfare

d)

Ministry of Home Affairs

40.

Who is the Union Cabinet Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment?

a)

Kiren Rijiju

b)

Dharmendra Pradhan

c)

Dr.Virendra Kumar

d)

Mansukh L.Mandaviya

41.

Select the correct answer

Total absence of sight is when:

a)

Visual acuity less than 3/60 or 10/200 with best possible correction

b)

Limitation of the field vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree upto 10 degree

c)

both a & b

d)

none of the above

42.

What form of impairments affect a person's vison and education?

a)

Blindness

b)

Visual impairments

c)

Myopic

d)

None of the above

43.

What is complete blindness?

a)

Legal blindness

b)

Partially blind

c)

Blind at one eye

d)

None of the above

44.

What is clouding in the Lens of the eye?

a)

Short sightedess

b)

Long sightedness

c)

Cataracts

d)

None of the above

45.

What is low vision?A. Can read with glassesB. Can read by being closeC. Partially blindD. None of the above A. Can read with glasses B. Can read by being close C. Partially blind D. None of the above

a)

Can read by being close

b)

Partially blind

c)

None of them

d)

Can read with glasses

46.

Name of the eye test chart is called?

a)

None of them

b)

Alphabetical chart

c)

Snellen chart

d)

Visual chart

47.

Ear infection or acute otitis media is an infection of the middle ear.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

48.

A visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with correction or a visual field that is no greater than 20 degrees is:

a)

Functionally Blind

b)

Deaf-Blind

c)

Legally Blind

d)

Low Vision

49.

It is recommended that children with nistagmus are:

a)

allowed to adopt the position needed to find the point where they can fix their gaze, even if they curve their back in extreme

b)

corrected in their posture in a way that they maintain enough distance to perceive the stimuli but with some effort, and in a frontal direction, so the two eyes can work equally

c)

corrected in their posture in a way that they can get closer to the visual stimuli but without curving their back

50.

A person who can perceive at 6 meters a stimuli that people without visual impairments can perceive at 12 meters, has a visual acuity of:

a)

2

b)

2,6

c)

0,5

51.

Campimetry techniques are used to measure

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Visual field

c)

The two are correct

52.

An educational description when the primary channel of learning is through tactile and auditory means is:

a)

Deaf-Blind

b)

Low Vision

c)

Legally Blind

d)

Functionally Blind

53.

A visual impairment that interferes with the ability to perform daily activities and in which the primary channel of learning is through the use of prescription and nonprescription devices is:

a)

Deaf-Blind

b)

Low Vision

c)

Functionally Blind

d)

Legally Blind

54.

True or False: Intellectual capabilities are similar to those of their sighted peers

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What is a visual impairment?

a)

a problem with or damage to one or more parts of the ear.

b)

an impairment in vision which can be corrected

c)

an impairment in vision even with correction that adversely affects a child's education and daily living activities

d)

an impairment in vision even with correction that does not affect child's education

56.

What is the definition for low vision?

a)

visual acuity is 20/70 or poorer in the better-seeing eye and cannot be corrected or improved with regular eyeglasses.

b)

visual acuity is 20/100 or poorer in the better-seeing eye and cannot be corrected or improved with regular eyeglasses.

c)

visual acuity is 20/150 or poorer in the better-seeing eye and cannot be corrected or improved with regular eyeglasses.

d)

visual acuity is 20/200 or poorer in the better-seeing eye and cannot be corrected or improved with regular eyeglasses.

57.

Which eye condition is described: a condition of increased pressure within the eyeball, causing gradual loss of sight.

a)

Cataract

b)

Stargardt's

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Cortical Visual Impairment

58.

Which acuity is considered near total blindness?

a)

20/30 to 20/60

b)

20/70 to 20/160

c)

20/200 to 20/400

d)

less than 20/1,000

59.

Instructional Strategies for students with VI include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Classroom organization

b)

Room familiarization

c)

Encouraging independence

d)

Speaking very loudly when you talk to them

60.

Visual impairment directly influences development and learning in each of the following areas EXCEPT:

a)

Range and variety of experiences

b)

Ability to move around

c)

Interactive with environment

d)

Cognitive ability

61.

Visual impairment directly influences development and learning in each of the following areas EXCEPT:

a)

Range and variety of experiences

b)

Ability to move around

c)

Interactive with environment

d)

Cognitive ability

62.

If a student uses tactile or auditory resources as their primary channel of learning, he or she is...

a)

totally blind.

b)

functionally blind.

c)

deaf-blind.

d)

low-vision.

63.

The iris is responsible for...

a)

filtering light that enters the eye.

b)

defining color.

c)

defining shape and motion.

d)

carrying electronic signals to the brain.

64.

What is chromatopsia?

a)

hearing impairment

b)

causes colorblindness

c)

visual impairment

65.

The deficiency of vitamin........... can result in blindness

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

66.

The process by which the vertebrate eye changes optical power to maintain a clear image or focus on an object as its distance varies is termed.........................................

a)

appropriation

b)

accommodation

c)

acclimatization

d)

adaptation

67.

Cataract affects................................

a)

cor nea

b)

retina

c)

lens

d)

optic nerve

68.

Hiddendigit test forms the basis for test for........

a)

near vision

b)

farvision

c)

astigmatism

d)

colour blindness

69.

The vision impairment in glaucoma occurs due to damage to..............

a)

iris

b)

lens

c)

optic nerve

d)

occulomotor nerve

70.

The surgery done to treat glaucoma is.....................

a)

keratoplasty

b)

iridotomy

c)

occuloplasty

d)

gonioscopy

71.

What type of classroom environment should you have for a visually impaired student?

a)

Well Organized

b)

Messy classroom

c)

Unlabeled materials

72.

What qualities does a visual impairment student show?

a)

The student closes or covers his or her eyes

b)

The student blinks more than usual

c)

The student complains of blurry vision

d)

All of the above

73.

You should never explain visuals to a student that is visually impaired?

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Students that are visually impaired may need extra time to complete tasks

a)

True

b)

False

75.

In most cases, deaf/blindness develops later in life. This is known as acquired deaf/blindness.​

a)

True

b)

False

76.

A student that has a slight visual impairment can still drive?

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Visual acuity refers to

a)

the capacity to recognize details

b)

the portion of space we can see without moving the eyes

c)

The two are correct

78.

Campimetry techniques are used to measure

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Visual field

c)

The two are correct

79.

A person who can perceive at 6 meters a stimuli that people without visual impairments can perceive at 12 meters, has a visual acuity of:

a)

2

b)

2,6

c)

0,5

80.

The impairment of the peripheral part of the visual field, allowing only 8 degrees of central vision can be classified as

a)

Severe visual deficiency (OMS classification), central scotoma

b)

Blindness (OMS classification), central scotoma

c)

Blindness (OMS classification), tubular vision

81.

It is recommended that children with nistagmus are:

a)

allowed to adopt the position needed to find the point where they can fix their gaze, even if they curve their back in extreme

b)

corrected in their posture in a way that they maintain enough distance to perceive the stimuli but with some effort, and in a frontal direction, so the two eyes can work equally

c)

corrected in their posture in a way that they can get closer to the visual stimuli but without curving their back

82.

It is recommended that children who have tubular vision are seated close to the blackboard

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

It does not matter

83.

Braille input devices is suggested for...

a)

Visual impairment, from blindness to colour vision deficiency

b)

Hearing and speech impairments

c)

Cognitive Problems and learning disabilities

d)

Mobility impairments, limited hand mobility, Parkinson disease

84.

Visual effects is suggested for...

a)

Visual impairment, from blindness to colour vision deficiency

b)

Hearing and speech impairments

c)

Cognitive Problems and learning disabilities

d)

Mobility impairments, limited hand mobility, Parkinson disease

85.

Special software is suggested for...

a)

Visual impairment, from blindness to colour vision deficiency

b)

Hearing and speech impairments

c)

Cognitive Problems and learning disabilities

d)

Mobility impairments, limited hand mobility, Parkinson disease

86.
A student with blindness provided me with documentation of needed accommodations.
Do I have to find audio alternatives for all the readings in my course? 
a)
Yes
b)
No
87.

Which tool can be used for accessibility?

a)

Hologram generator

b)

Input box

c)

Bold

d)

Screen magnifier

88.

Which 3 methods are the best solutions for logging on to a computer with visual impairment?

a)

Voice

b)

Raised letters on keys

c)

Finger print bio metrics

d)

Support workers

e)

Large print keyboards

89.

A benefit of text-to-speech is:

a)

It can be applied to any text

b)

It can be translated into different languages

c)

It can look at images and identify what they are

d)

It is free to use

90.

An educational description when the primary channel of learning is through tactile and auditory means is:

a)

Deaf-Blind

b)

Low Vision

c)

Legally Blind

d)

Functionally Blind

91.

In 1929, the first guide _______ school was incorporated.

a)

Horse

b)

Cat

c)

Fish

d)

Dog

92.

Instructional Strategies for students with VI include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Classroom organization

b)

Room familiarization

c)

Encouraging independence

d)

Speaking very loudly when you talk to them

93.

Which one of these is NOT a law about individuals with disabilities?

a)

IDEA

b)

Section 504

c)

ADA

d)

NCLB

94.

"A person with autism" is an example of:

a)

making the least dangerous assumption

b)

using person first language

c)

viewing the person as having autism

d)

using language about a person's disability

95.

This court case recognized the educational rights of students with disabilities

a)

Ohio v. Clark

b)

PARC v. Pennsylvania and Mills v. Board of Ed of DC

c)

Brown v. Board of Education

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines

96.

This is NOT an identified disability under IDEA

a)

Developmental Delay

b)

Emotional Disturbance

c)

Autism

d)

ADHD

97.

Least Restrictive Environment (LRE) requires what?

a)

To the maximum extent possible, children with disabilities are educated with children who are non-disabled

b)

Students with disabilities should only be educated in special pull-out classrooms

c)

It is okay to place students with disabilities in an alternate placement whenever they are a danger to others

d)

Students with disabilities do not require a least restrictive environment

98.

Child Find under IDEA requires

a)

States to find all missing children

b)

Federal government to identify children with disabilities

c)

Students to find themselves

d)

States to identify children with disabilities

99.

All of these are required members of an IEP team EXCEPT

a)

Parent of the student

b)

Regular Education Teacher

c)

Medical Doctor

d)

Special Education Teacher

e)

Local Education Agency Representative (e.g. principal)

100.

Section 504 only applies to students with certain disabilities

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Select accommodations listed below

a)

Extended time to complete assignments/tests

b)

Testing in a separate room to limit distractions

c)

Changing the level of difficulty of material taught

d)

Reading a test aloud

102.

If a student does not qualify for an IEP, they will automatically qualify for a 504 plan.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

The "stay put" provision requires

a)

During pendency of any change in placement schools may place the child in any other educational placement

b)

Students with disabilities can only stay in their current educational placement if they are not a danger to other students

c)

During pendency of any change in placement proceedings the child shall remain in the current educational placement

d)

The child's parents must prove that the child has the ability to control themselves in the current educational placement

104.

Accommodations are not reasonable if they result in unreasonable costs, administrative burdens, or health/safety risks

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Special education students can never be long-term suspended or expelled

a)

True

b)

False

106.

How many areas of Special Education are there under IDEA?

a)

11

b)

13

c)

15

d)

12

107.

Select ALL the team members that must be included in an IEP team meeting.

a)

Special Education Teacher

b)

Regular Education Teacher

c)

Related Service Providers (OT, PT, Speech)

d)

Parent

e)

LEA (Administrator)

108.

When does the special education timeline begin for initial referrals?

a)

When a parent agrees to a meeting

b)

When an administrator says a student needs testing

c)

When consent for testing is provided

d)

When a referral meeting is held

109.

Using Zoom/Video conferencing for special educational services in groups breaks the Special Education rule related to confidentiality

a)

True

b)

False

110.

When considering the three prongs of eligibility, which choice is NOT one of the questions to consider?

a)

Does the student meet the AAC criteria for the disability?

b)

Does the student require support in order to meet their academic goals?

c)

Does the disability adversely affect educational performance?

d)

Does the student require specially designed instruction to access and participate in the general education curriculum?

111.

Which of the following options are accommodations?

a)

Reducing the amount of work a student completes

b)

Answer masking

c)

Extended Time

d)

Providing a copy of lecture notes

112.
At what age does an individual become ineligible for IDEA provided special education services?
a)
A. 18
b)
B. 21
c)
C. 22
d)
D. 19
113.
What does LRE stand for?
a)
A. Local Resource Environment
b)
B. Least Restrictive Environment
c)
C. Least Restrictive Education
d)
D. Least Restrictive Expectation
114.

Which of the following can be considered a related service?

a)

Occupational Therapy

b)

Speech Therapy

c)

Counseling

d)

Nursing Services

115.

This structure is the outer coating of the front of the eye ball.

a)

Cornea

b)

Lens

c)

Retina

d)

Optic Nerve

116.

This structure is located behind the iris and bends light onto the retina.

a)

Retina

b)

Lens

c)

Optic Nerve

d)

Pupil

117.

This structure is the back of the eye and it sends images to the optic nerve.

a)

Cornea

b)

Lens

c)

Retina

d)

Pupil

118.

This structure sends images to the brain so we see the image correctly.

a)

Iris

b)

Optic Nerve

c)

Cornea

d)

Lens

119.

This structure is the black, center part of the eye. Light enters the eye here.

a)

Iris

b)

Optic Nerve

c)

Pupil

d)

Lens

120.

This structure is the colored part of the eye.

a)

Pupil

b)

Iris

c)

Retina

d)

Optic Nerve

121.

Light travels in a __________ line until it refracts off an object.

a)

Curved

b)

Straight

c)

Zig Zag

d)

purple

122.

The path light takes through the eye....

a)

Cornea, Retina, Optic Nerve, Iris, Pupil, Lens

b)

Cornea, Iris, Optic Nerve, Pupil, Lens, Retina

c)

Cornea, Iris, Pupil, Lens, Optic Nerve, Retina

d)

Cornea, Iris, Pupil, Lens, Retina, Optic Nerve,

123.

When an image hits the retina it is viewed...

a)

Right side up

b)

Upside down

c)

Blurry

d)

Not there

124.

Rods help us see...

a)

in color

b)

black, white, and grey

c)

only in yellow

d)

only in blue

125.

Cones help us see...

a)

color

b)

black, white, and grey

c)

only purple

d)

only with glasses on

126.

What is letter H pointing to?

a)

Lens

b)

Optic Nerve

c)

Iris

d)

Cornea

127.

What is letter I pointing to?

a)

Cornea

b)

Iris

c)

Optic Nerve

d)

Pupil

128.

What is letter F pointing to?

a)

Lens

b)

Iris

c)

Pupil

d)

Optic Nerve

129.

What is letter B pointing to?

a)

Optic Nerve

b)

Retina

c)

Iris

d)

Pupil

130.

The place where the optic nerve leaves the retina, where there are no light-sensitive cells is the ________________.

a)

lens

b)

cornea

c)

blind spot

d)

sclera

131.

___________________ is a clear fluid in the front part of the eye, that helps the cornea keep its rounded shape.

a)

cornea

b)

aqueous humor

c)

vitreous humor

d)

retina

132.

The tough, clear covering over the iris and pupil that helps protect the eye is the __________________.

a)

retina

b)

lens

c)

sclera

d)

cornea

133.

The ______________ is a muscle that controls how much light enters the eye.

a)

iris

b)

pupil

c)

cornea

d)

blind spot

134.

______________________ is the thick, clear jelly that helps give the eyeball its shape.

a)

aqueous humor

b)

vitreous humor

c)

blind spot

d)

optic nerve

135.

The layer of light-sensitive cells at the back of the eye that detects images focused by the cornea and the lens is called the ___________________.

a)

blind spot

b)

sclera

c)

retina

d)

optic nerve

136.

The bundle of fibers that carry information from the retina to the brain is called the ____________________.

a)

optic nerve

b)

blind spot

c)

vitreous humor

d)

aqueous humor

137.

It is a thin protective covering of epithelial cells. It protects the cornea against damage by friction. It can become infected causing conjuctivitis.

a)

Conjunctiva

b)

Sclera

c)

Cornea

d)

Lens

138.

Is an opaque, fibrous, protective outer structure. It is soft connective tissue, and the spherical shape of the eye is maintained by the pressure of the liquid inside. It provides attachment surfaces for eye muscles

a)

Retina

b)

Conjunctiva

c)

Cornea

d)

Sclera

139.

Has a network of blood vessels to supply nutrients to the cells and remove waste products. It is pigmented that makes the retina appear black, thus preventing reflection of light within the eyeball.

a)

Retina

b)

Choroid

c)

Sclera

d)

Fovea

140.

Has suspensory ligaments that hold the lens in place. It secretes the aqueous humour, and contains ciliary muscles that enable the lens to change shape, during accommodation (focusing on near and distant objects)

a)

Ciliary body

b)

Iris

c)

Lens

d)

Retina

141.

Is a pigmented muscular structure consisting of an inner ring of circular muscle and an outer layer of radial muscle. Its function is to help control the amount of light entering the eye so that:

- too much light does not enter the eye which would damage the retina


- enough light enters to allow a person to see

a)

Iris

b)

Pupil

c)

Lens

d)

Retina

142.

Is a hole in the middle of the iris where light is allowed to continue its passage. In bright light it is constricted and in dim light it is dilated

a)

Cornea

b)

Iris

c)

Pupil

d)

Fovea

143.

Is a transparent, flexible, curved structure. Its function is to focus incoming light rays onto the retina using its refractive properties

a)

Lens

b)

Cornea

c)

Fovea

d)

Ciliary body

144.

Is a layer of sensory neurones, the key structures being photoreceptors (rod and cone cells) which respond to light. Contains relay neurones and sensory neurones that pass impulses along the optic nerve to the part of the brain that controls vision

a)

Fovea

b)

Choroid

c)

Retina

d)

Fovea

145.

A part of the retina that is directly opposite the pupil and contains only cone cells (photoreceptors responsible for colour vision). It is responsible for good visual acuity (good resolution)

a)

Blind spot

b)

Fovea

c)

Choroid

d)

Vitreous humour

146.

Is where the bundle of sensory fibres form the optic nerve; it contains no light-sensitive receptors

a)

Brain

b)

Blind spot

c)

Spinal Cord

d)

Central nervous system (CNS)

147.

Is a transparent, jelly-like mass located behind the lens. It acts as a ‘suspension’ for the lens so that the delicate lens is not damaged. It helps to maintain the shape of the posterior chamber of the eyeball.

a)

Anterior Humour

b)

Posterior Humour

c)

Aqueous Humour

d)

Vitreous humour

148.

Helps to maintain the shape of the anterior chamber of the eyeball

a)

Aqueous Humour

b)

Posterior humour

c)

Vitreous Humour

d)

Anterior humour

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