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SCIENCE 9 PAT Prep

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 3hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The first four planets from the Sun are called the inner planets. The four planets that are furthest from the Sun are called outer planets. Which of the tables shown lists some of the key characteristics that distinguish outer planets from inner planets in our solar system?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.

The first four planets from the Sun are called the inner planets. The four planets that are furthest from the Sun are called outer planets. Which of the tables shown lists some of the key characteristics that distinguish outer planets from inner planets in our solar system?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

Which primary property of a star does the above spectral analysis determine?

a)

Age

b)

Size

c)

Temperature

d)

Composition

4.

Sally is facing south on March 21 and is trying to find the coordinates of the Sun as it sets. Which of the following coordinates most likely describe the location of the Sun?

a)

Altitude 85° and azimuth 90°

b)

Altitude 5° and azimuth 270°

c)

Altitude 5° and azimuth 90°

d)

Altitude 85° and azimuth 270°

5.

Which of the following factors is the main reason an astronaut’s muscle mass and bone density decrease while in space?

a)

Astronauts do not need to support body weight in space

b)

Astronauts are restricted to a confined living area in space.

c)

It is not possible for astronauts to exercise vigorously in space.

d)

It is difficult for astronauts to consume a balanced diet in space.

6.

Which of the following statements best compares telescopes based in space to telescopes based on Earth?

a)

Space-based telescopes are generally larger.

b)

Space-based telescopes capture clearer images.

c)

Earth-based telescopes, in general, cost more to build.

d)

Earth-based telescopes explore further into deep space.

7.

Radio telescopes receive radio waves from distant objects. If radio waves travel through space at the speed of light (300 000 km/s), then how long do radio waves emitted by the Sun take to reach Mars?

a)

12.5 min

b)

10.0 min

c)

8.3 min

d)

5.5 min

8.

Which of the following measurements could be calculated using the process of triangulation?

a)

The brightness of a celestial body

b)

The temperature of a celestial body

c)

The distance between two celestial bodies

d)

The speed at which a celestial body is traveling

9.

Constellations consist of patterns of stars in the sky. The constellations we recognize today were identified by many ancient civilizations. Which of the following statements best explains why planets are never featured in

constellations?

a)

Planets look bigger than stars.

b)

Planets are more difficult to see than stars.

c)

Planets have a chemical composition different from that of stars.

d)

Planets do not maintain fixed positions relative to other planets or stars.

10.

A geosynchronous orbit occurs when an object orbits Earth at the same rotational rate as Earth. A geosynchronous orbit allows a single satellite to

a)

capture information about global weather patterns

b)

capture images of the planet from many perspectives

c)

send signals continuously to a specified area on Earth

d)

send messages to multiple receivers anywhere on Earth

11.

A long-stay Mars mission with astronauts has been calculated to last approximately 905 Earth days. NASA has broken down the duration of the mission as follows: Research into which of the following areas would be least helpful to support astronauts during a successful long-stay Mars mission?

a)

Spacesuits

b)

Telescopes

c)

Water reclamation

d)

Growing food In space

12.

A teacher challenged a group of students to identify an unknown white solid. The students recorded the following results in their investigation. Which of the tests listed above provides evidence of a chemical property of the unknown solid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.

A type of reaction that produces a change like the one shown in the graph above is

a)

corrosion

b)

exothermic

c)

combustion

d)

endothermic

14.

In an experiment, 12.0 g of solid carbon, C(s), reacted with oxygen gas, O2(g), to form 44.0 g of carbon dioxide gas, CO2(g).

If all 12.0 g of carbon reacted, how many grams of oxygen reacted with the carbon?

a)

12 g

b)

32 g

c)

44 g

d)

56 g

15.

Copper has been used to produce metal coins because it is

• non-reactive with most acids

• not readily reactive with oxygen • malleable

Which of the elements on the periodic table above would be another appropriate metal to use for producing metal coins based on its similar properties to copper?

a)

iron

b)

silver

c)

mercury

d)

potassium

16.

Which group of elements on the periodic table has the least reactive elements?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 17

d)

Group 18

17.

Which of the following rows identifies the three elements present in washing soda, Na2CO3(s)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.

Which of the following diagrams best represents molecules of water?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

Which pair of compounds below can be classified as ionic compounds?

a)

C6H6(l) and BeF2(s)

b)

C6H6(l) and NO2(g)

c)

LiCl(s) and BeF2(s)

d)

LiCl(s) and NO2(g)

20.

In a science class, students saw a copper precipitate, Cu(s), appear in a solution of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4(aq), after a piece of zinc, Zn(s), was added to the solution.

Which of the following chemical equations represents the reaction described above?

a)

CuSO4(aq) + ZnSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn(s)

b)

Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) → Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq)

c)

Zn(s) + ZnSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + CuSO4(aq)

d)

Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)

21.

Which of the following actions best describes how to safely deal with a material with the above WHMIS symbol after working with it?

a)

Place it in a biohazardous-waste bin for collection.

b)

Dilute it with water before pouring it down the drain.

c)

Combine it with a sand–gravel mixture before disposing of it.

d)

Place it in a lead-lined container for radioactive-waste collection.

22.

Which of the following changes to the cell shown above would result in voltage being produced?

a)

Reversing the leads on the voltmeter

b)

Using a greater volume of sulfuric acid

c)

Replacing 5% sulfuric acid with 20% sulfuric acid

d)

Changing one of the electrodes to a zinc electrode

23.

The energy transformation that occurs in the circuit above when the switch is closed is

a)

chemical energy → electrical energy → light and thermal energy

b)

light energy → electrical energy → chemical and thermal energy

c)

thermal energy → chemical energy → electrical and light energy

d)

chemical energy → thermal energy → electrical and light energy

24.

When a switch, a variable resistor, a light bulb, and a motor are connected the circuit will operate as follows:see diagram.

• The switch will control both the motor and the light bulb.

• The user will be able to control the brightness of the light bulb.

Which of the following matches the electrical components to their corresponding locations in the circuit described above?

a)

(W) =variable resistor (X)= Light Bulb (Y)= Switch (Z)= Motor

b)

(W)= variable resistor -(X)= Motor (Y)= Switch -(Z)= Light Bulb

c)

(W)= Switch (X)= Light Bulb (Y)= Variable Resistor (Z)= Motor

d)

(W)= Switch-(X)= Motor(Y)= Variable Resistor (Z)= Light Bulb

25.

Jake needs to repair a car stereo system. The system contains a stereo and a fuse that are connected in series and two speakers that are connected in parallel.

Which of the following diagrams represents the car stereo system described above?

a)
b)
c)
d)
26.

A Grade 9 student used an ammeter to measure the current of a circuit consisting of a bulb, an ammeter, and a variety of voltages. Based on the information on the graph and table if a 10.5 V battery were used, then the expected ammeter reading would be

a)

4.6 mA

b)

5.1 mA

c)

5.6 mA

d)

6.6 mA

27.

A student is testing the conductivity of 4 different substances. He uses a 2.5 V battery and records the current in the circuit in each of the 4 substances. The chart below indicates the current measured.

Which substance is most likely an insulator?

a)

Substance Q

b)

Substance R

c)

Substance S

d)

Substance T

28.

Calculate power for the device given above. Hint (P =I x V) I= amperage

a)

16 W

b)

25 W

c)

100 w

d)

400 W

29.

The most efficient system shown has an efficiency of (a)   %.

30.

Which of the following actions will not reduce waste of energy in a home?

a)

Replacing single-pane windows with double-pane windows

b)

Installing a programmable thermostat to control a furnace

c)

Wrapping an insulating blanket around a hot water tank

d)

Installing an air conditioner to reduce temperatures

31.

Which of the following two methods of power generation provide the least consistent energy?

a)

Wind and solar power

b)

Hydro and wind power

c)

Nuclear and solar power

d)

Hydro and nuclear power

32.

The advantages and disadvantages of a particular energy source are shown in the following table. The energy source being described in the table above is most likely

a)

solar

b)

biomass

c)

geothermal

d)

natural gas

33.

The process by which toxins are concentrated as they move up the food chain is called?

a)

pollution

b)

biomagnification

c)

web magnification

d)

biomass stratification

34.

Which of the following conclusions can be made from the graph?

a)

Vinegar is more basic than lye

b)

Ammonia is more acidic than apple juice

c)

Baking soda is more basic than human blood

d)

Tomato juice is more acidic than lemon juice

35.

Which of the following statements describes one characteristic shared by ALL biodegradable substances?

a)

They can be broken down by inorganic compounds

b)

They can be broken down by simple organisms

c)

They decompose faster at low temperatures

d)

They decompose faster in dry conditions

36.

According to the graph, an increase in the concentration of road salt in pond water from zero to 0.10ppm results in a decrease in the number of

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 1 and 3

d)

Organism 2 and 3

37.

Water in a particular lake has a pH of 5.2. Calcium carbonate is added to the lake water. The purpose of treating the lake water with calcium carbonate is to

a)

decrease the basic nature of the lake water

b)

decrease the acidic nature of the lake water

c)

bring the pH of the lake water closer to 7.0

d)

bring the pH of the lake water closer to zero

38.

Which of the following roles is played by carbohydrates in human nutrition?

a)

Act as an energy source

b)

Assist enzyme function

c)

Storage form of unused chemical energy

d)

Structural component of cells in the body

39.

Bromothymol blue will appear yellow when mixed with

a)

lemon juice

b)

baking soda

c)

drain cleaner

d)

distilled water

40.

Which of the following describes what can happen to the oxygen concentration and the variety of organisms at the point in the river where the warm water is returned?

a)

Oxygen concentration will increase, variety of organisms will increase

b)

Oxygen concentration will increase, variety of organisms will dncrease

c)

Oxygen concentration will decrease, variety of organisms will decrease

d)

Oxygen concentration will decrease, variety of organisms will increase

41.

The presence of a species of large trout in a particular lake indicates a

a)

high dissolved oxygen concentration

b)

low dissolved oxygen concentration

c)

high water temperature

d)

low water temperature

42.

Which volume of solution B must be used to neutralize solution A?

a)

15 ml

b)

25 ml

c)

35 ml

d)

45 ml

43.

The chemicals that are most likely responsible for increases in algae growth in lakes are

a)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

nitrates and carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen and phosphates

d)

nitrates and phosphates

44.

Which of the following statements best explains the high levels of pesticide in the whooping crane?

a)

The whooping crane's skin absorbed the pesticide

b)

The whooping crane swam in contaminated lake water

c)

The whooping crane fed on pesticide-treated grass near the lake

d)

The whooping crane's primary food source was the fish from the lake

45.

Design _________________ should be selected as the design for the new landfill, because the ___________________ layer prevents chemical leaching

a)

X, gravel

b)

X, clay

c)

Y, sand and gravel

d)

Y, compacted sand

46.

Considering the information, a study of the mayfly can be useful to scientists since it is a

a)

species influenced by biomagnification

b)

species influenced by predation

c)

tolerant invertebrate species

d)

biological indicator species

47.

This level of dissolved oxygen indicates that 8mL of oxygen is found in

a)

1,000,000 mL of water

b)

10,000 mL of water

c)

1,000 mL of water

d)

100 mL of water

48.

When listed in order from the species that is first in the food chain to the species that is last in the food chain, the species are

a)

2, 3, 4, 1

b)

3, 1, 2, 4

c)

3, 1, 4, 2

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

49.

"Organisms that have moved to a location that does not naturally support them."

a)

Invasive species

b)

Destructive species

c)

Unwelcomed species

d)

Infected species

50.

The ecological role an organism performs in their specific environment is considered the organism's...

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Biome

d)

Niche

51.

a relationship between two species in which both species compete for limited resources such that both species are negatively affected by the relationship

a)

Symbiosis

b)

interspecific competition

c)

species richness

d)

species-area effect

52.

A relationship in which two different organisms live in close association with each other

a)

interspecific competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Symbiosis

d)

Commensalism

53.

the differentiation of niches that enables similar species to coexist in a community

a)

character displacement

b)

climax community

c)

resource partitioning

d)

pioneer species

54.
What effect does biodiversity have on a community?
a)
It makes destruction by insects impossible. 
b)
It makes primary succession more likely.   
c)
 It enables species to survive in a desert.
d)
It enables the community to withstand changes.
55.
The ecological niches of three bird species are shown in the diagram. What is the advantage of each bird species having a different niche?
a)
As more birds feed higher in the tree, available energy increases.
b)
More abiotic resources are available for each bird.
c)
Predators are less likely to feed on birds in a variety of locations.
d)
There is less competition for food.
56.

A sperm and an egg join together in a process called

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

fission

57.

___________ reproduction has the advantage of increasing genetic variation.

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Fission

d)

Budding

58.

Sex cells are produced by _____________.

a)

photosynthesis

b)

zygotes

c)

meiosis

d)

mitosis

59.

The organism produced during reproduction is called a(n) _____________.

a)

child

b)

growth

c)

offspring

d)

baby

60.

A specialized cell that can withstand harsh weather conditions is called a(n) __________________.

a)

spore

b)

gamete

c)

zygote

d)

allele

61.

Organisms produced by asexual reproduction are genetically different from the parent organism.

a)

False

b)

True

62.

Budding is a form of sexual reproduction.

a)

False

b)

True

63.

When an ovum is first fertilized it is known as

a)

a nucleus

b)

an embryo

c)

a zygote

d)

a fetus

64.

Which is the correct order?

a)

embryo, foetus, zygote

b)

foetus, zygote, embryo

c)

embryo, zygote, foetus

d)

zygote, embryo, foetus

65.

Which of the following consist of a hollow ball of cells

a)

Gastrula

b)

Morula

c)

Blastocyst

66.

State the no of chromosomes in a human zygote.

a)

12

b)

23

c)

46

d)

92

67.

Which type of cells divide using mitosis?

a)

gametes

b)

egg cells

c)

somatic cells

d)

sperm cells

68.

Body cells are also known as

a)

somatic cells

b)

gametes

c)

haploid cells

d)

sex cells

69.

female sex cell

a)

zygote

b)

egg

c)

sperm

d)

meiosis

70.

Chromosomes are made from protein and what other molecule?

a)

Ammonia

b)

ATP

c)

DNA

d)

Carbon Dioxide

71.

Sexual Reproduction

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

72.

MEiosis creates ____ cells with ____ chromosomes each

a)

2, 46

b)

4, 46

c)

4, 23

d)

2, 23

73.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

74.

Variation in the cells/organisms produced...

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

75.

An exact copy of a cell/organism is produced...

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

76.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
77.

A specialized cell that can withstand harsh weather conditions is called a(n) __________________.

a)

spore

b)

gamete

c)

zygote

d)

allele

78.

Sex cells have ____________ of the DNA found in body cells.

a)

all (2n)

b)

none

c)

half (n)

d)

a little bit (0.5n)

79.

When an ovum is first fertilized it is known as

a)

a nucleus

b)

an embryo

c)

a zygote

d)

a fetus

80.

What does this HHPS picture mean?

a)

Corrosive

b)

Explosive

c)

Flammable

d)

Poison

81.

What does WHMIS stand for?

a)

Workforce Housing Materials Information System

b)

Work Height Managing Information Symbols

c)

Wokrplace Hazardous Material Information System

d)

Workplace Material System

82.

What WHMIS 2015 safety symbol is this?

a)

Flammable

b)

Oxidizing Agent

c)

No Open Flame

d)

Explosion

83.

The following symbol is for ...

a)

Biohazardous materials

b)

Compressed gas

c)

Corrosion

d)

Dangerously reactive material

84.

The following symbol is for ...

a)

materials causing immediate and serious toxic effects

b)

oxidizing material

c)

corrosive material

d)

environment hazard

85.

The following symbol is for ...

a)

materials causing immediate and serious toxic effects

b)

oxidizing material

c)

corrosive material

d)

environment hazard

86.
What does this GHS symbol means?
a)
Radioactive
b)
Carcinogenicity/ Aspiration Hazard
c)
Acute Toxicity
d)
Explosive
87.

What does this WHMIS stand for?

a)

Compressed Gas

b)

Flammable and Combustible Material

c)

Oxidizing Material

d)

Poisonous and Infectious Materials: Immediate and Serious Effects

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