Free Printable CSEC Physics MCQ

1.

The measurement of the external diameter of a measuring cylinder is MOST accurately done by using a

a)

metre rule

b)

tape measure

c)

length of string

d)

pair of vernier callipers

2.

Given that force = mass x acceleration, the unit of force could be written as

a)

kg-¹ m s²

b)

kg m^-1 s²

c)

kg m^-1 s^-2

d)

kg m s^-2

3.

0.0000462 N expressed in standard form is

a)

4.62 x 1^-5 N

b)

4.62 x 1^-4 N

c)

462 x 1^-4 N

d)

4.62 x 1⁵ N

4.

The mass of an astraunaut is 70 kg when standing of the moon.

When he returns to earth, his approximate weight will be

a)

70 kg

b)

70 N

c)

420 kg

d)

700 N

5.

The moment of force is defined as the

a)

moment in time when a force is first applied to a body

b)

length of time for which a force is applied

to a body

c)

product of the force and its perpendicular distance from the

turning point to the force

d)

ratio of the force and its perpendicular distance from the turning point

6.

The unit for momentum is

a)

kg s^-1

b)

kg m s^-1

c)

kg m s^-2

d)

N m

7.

Which of the following remains unchanged changed wished with an increase in

temperature

a)

mass

b)

density

c)

volume

d)

relative density

8.

A 4 kg mass is traveling with a constant speed of 5 m s^-1. It is brought to rest in 2 seconds. The average acting on the mass to bring it to rest

a)

1.6 N

b)

2.5 N

c)

10.0 N

d)

40.0 N

9.

Which of the following measures may be classified as scalar quantity.

i. Time

ii. Speed

iii. Displacement

a)

i and ii only

b)

i and iii only

c)

ii and iii only

d)

i, ii, and iii

10.

The graph shows how the displacement of a runner from a starting time varies with time. This runner is

a)

going slower and slower

b)

going at a steady speed

c)

going faster and faster

d)

not moving

11.

The vectors act at Point O and are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following pairs represents BOTH the magnitude and direction of their resultant

a)

magnitude direction

$a^2+b^2\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \overline{\overrightarrow{OC}}$

b)

magnitude direction

$a^{ }+b^{ }\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \overline{\overrightarrow{CO}}$

c)

magnitude direction

$\sqrt[]{\left(a^2+b^2\right)}\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \overline{\overrightarrow{CO}}$

d)

magnitude direction

$\sqrt[]{\left(a^2+b^2\right)}\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \overline{\overrightarrow{OC}}$

12.

The acceleration due to gravity (g) is to be determined by measuring the time (t) taken for a small steel ball to fall throug a specific height. Which of the foreign activities is UNECCESSARY

a)

finding the mass of the ball

b)

allowing the ball to drop and starting the stop watch at the same instant

c)

measuring the height through which the ball falls

d)

repeating the time measurements and

taking the average

13.

On which of the following features does the pressure at a point in a liquid depend?

I) Density of the liquid

II) Depth from the surface

III) Area of the cross-section of the container

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

14.

Based on the graph, which of the following statements would be true:

I. The elastic limit of the spring was exceeded

II. The spring obeyed Kooke's law over its entire extension.

III. The force per unit extension in the elastic region was 7.5 N cm^-1

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

15.

The pressure on the dam at the bottom of the reservoir depends on the

a)

mass of water held back by the dam

b)

volume of water held by the dam

c)

length of the reservoir

d)

depth of the water

16.

A bubble of gas rises to the surface of a soft drink. This is because the

a)

Upthrust on the bubble is greater than the weight of the bubble

b)

Upthrust on the bubble is greater than the weight of water it displaces

c)

weight of the water displaced by the bubble is less than the weight of the bubble

d)

density on gas is greater than the density of the drink

17.

There are NO attractive forces between the molecules in a

a)

solid and a liquid

b)

liquid and gas

c)

liquid

d)

gas

18.

Which of the following statements about the pressure law are true:

I. The ration of pressure to Kelvin temperature is constant

II. Volume is constant

III. Pressure is constant

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

19.

Which of the following temperature ranges is MOST suitable for a clinical thermometer?

a)

0 ℃ to 44 ℃

b)

-10 ℃ to 110 ℃

c)

35 ℃ to 100 ℃

d)

35 ℃ to 44 ℃

20.

Molten naphtalene at 100 ℃ is allowed to cool down to room temperature. If naphthalene has a melting point of 80 ℃, which of the following graphs BEST represents the cooling curve?

a)

b)

c)

d)

21.

The energy required to change the state of a substance was determined to be E_H. If the mass of the substance is DOUBLED, the value of E_H will

a)

remain constant

b)

be quadrupled

c)

be doubled

d)

be halved

22.

A light bulb is filled with a gas at a temperature of 293 K. If the initial pressure of gas is P, what will the pressure be when the temperature increases to 360 K?

a)

$\frac{393}{360}\times P$

b)

$\frac{360}{293}\times P$

c)

$\frac{293}{360}\times P$

d)

$\frac{360}{393}\times P$

23.

Which of the following materials is BOTH a good absorber and a good emitter of thermal (heat) energy?

a)

A flat, polished metal plate

b)

A polished, convex metal plate

c)

A polished, concave metal plate

d)

A flat metal plate, painted black

24.

The specific latent heat of vaporization of water is the energy required to change 1` kg of water at

a)

0 ℃ to ice at 0 ℃

b)

0 ℃ to steam at 100 ℃

c)

100 ℃ to steam at 100 ℃

d)

99.9 ℃ to steam at 100.1 ℃

25.

Which of the following is the reason for this occurrence?

a)

Water is a poor conductor of heat.

b)

Gauze is a poor conductor of heat.

c)

Water is a good conductor of heat.

d)

Glass is a good conductor of heat.

26.

The wavelength of the wave is equal to the distance

a)

PQ

b)

PR

c)

PS

d)

QR

27.

From the information above, the frequency is

a)

$\frac{1}{20}Hz$

b)

$10\ Hz$

c)

$20\ Hz$

d)

unknown

28.

An echo is quieter than the original song that produced it. This shows that, compared to the original sound, the echo has a

a)

smaller amplitude

b)

shorter wavelength

c)

lower frequency

d)

slower speed

29.

Based on the information above, which of the following statements is true?

a)

P is louder than Q but Q has a higher pitch

b)

P is louder than Q and had a higher pitch than Q

c)

Q is louder than P but P has a higher pitch.

d)

Q is louder than P and has a higer pitch than P.

30.

Which of the following equations express the correct relationship between the wavelength, λ, speed, v, and frequency, f, of a wave?

a)

$f=\frac{v}{\lambda}$

b)

$f=\frac{\lambda}{v}$

c)

$\lambda=fv$

d)

$\lambda=\frac{f}{v}$

31.

Boyle's law for a gas can be tested experimentally, provided which of the following are held constant?

I. Temperature

II. Pressure

III. Mass

a)

I an II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

32.

Which line lies along the principal axis of the converging lens?

a)

JK

b)

PQ

c)

RS

d)

WY

33.

Which og the following diagrams BEST represents the wave generated in a ripple takn by a small spherical dipper vibrating at a constant frequency?

a)

b)

c)

d)

34.

The reason for the bright fringes is that

a)

these positions contain more light energy

b)

the crests are larger than the troughs along these lines

c)

all the crests and troughs are in phase along these points

d)

all the crests and troughs are out of phase along these points

35.

An object O is viewed in a plabe mirror PQ. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the formation diagrams correctly shows the formation of the image?

a)

b)

c)

d)

36.

Which diagram BEST shows the path taken by a ray of light through a rectangular glass block?

a)

b)

c)

d)

37.

An explosion causes the emission of the following types of radiation.

I. Light

II. Sound

III. Inftr-red

Which of these will be recieved first by a person some distance away from the source

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and IIIK

38.

At some points along XY no sound is heard because

a)

the sound waves are diffracted

b)

the sound waves is refracted away from those points

c)

interference of the sound waves takes place

d)

the sound waves are reflected back to the same source

39.

Magnetic induction occurs when

a)

a magnet is suspended and points is the NS direction

b)

iron nails near a magnet become magnetized

c)

an N pole attracts an S pole

d)

an electroscope is charged

40.

Rectification can BEST be done by using a

a)

transformer

b)

capacitor

c)

transistor

d)

diode

41.

Which of the following diagrams BEST represents the magnetic field around the wire?

a)

b)

c)

d)

42.

Which of the following diagrams represents the magnetic field existing between two opposite magnetic poles?

a)

b)

c)

d)

43.

Which of the following equations CANNOT be used to determined the power dissipated in a resistor?

a)

P = I² R

b)

P = VI

c)

$P=\frac{R}{V^2}$

d)

$P=\frac{V^2}{R}$

44.

Which of the following ciruuits symbols represents a fuse?

a)

b)

c)

d)

45.

Which of the following circuit diagrams BEST represents a series arrangement?

a)

b)

c)

d)

46.

Appropriate labels for W and X are

a)

W- step-down transformer

X- a.c. input

b)

W- step-down transformer

X- d.c. input

c)

W- step-up transformer

X- a.c. input

d)

W- step-up transformer

X- d.c. input

47.

Which of the following materials is MOST suitable for the core of an electromagnet?

a)

steel

b)

carbon

c)

copper

d)

soft iron

48.

Which of the following diagrams is a representation of the current/p.d. relationship for a metallic conductor at a constant temperature?

a)

b)

c)

d)

49.

An ideal transformer has a primary to secondary turns ration 1:3.

An alternating potential difference of 200 V is applied to the primary coil and a resistance of 200 Ω attached to the secondary coil. What is the current in the secondary circuit?

a)

0.33 A

b)

1.00 A

c)

1.50 A

d)

3.00 A

50.

In which of the following circuits will the lamp light up?

a)

b)

c)

d)

51.

Which of the following pairs of statements is true for BOTH iron and steel

a)

IRON- Easily magnetized

STEEL - Does not retain its magnetism

b)

IRON- Not easily magnetized

STEEL - Retains its magnetism well

c)

IRON- Easily magnetized

STEEL - retains its magnetism well

d)

IRON- Not easily magnetized

STEEL - Does not retain its magnetism

52.

Which of the following logic gates does the truth above represent?

a)

N A N D

b)

N O R

c)

A N D

d)

O R

53.

The parts labelled X in the diagram are known as the

a)

coils

b)

slip rings

c)

armatures

d)

commutators

54.

Which device allows one circuit to switch another circuit on or off without and direct contact between them?

a)

Magnetic relay

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Generator

d)

Motor

55.

Which of the following graphs shows how the activity of a radioactive source varies with time?

a)

b)

c)

d)

56.

Which of the following are two properties of α-particle?

a)

No change.

Very penetrating

b)

Positive charge, very penetrating

c)

Negative charge,

not very penetrating

d)

Positive charge, not very penetrating

57.

a)

90 protons and

234 neutrons

b)

235 protons and

90 neutrons

c)

90 protons and

144 neutrons

d)

144 protons and

90 neutrons

58.

Which of the following scientists formulated the equation E = mc²?

a)

Marie Curie

b)

Isaac Newton

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

J.J. Thompson

59.

Which of the following statements about a proton is NOT true?

a)

It is a hydrogen atom minus an electron

b)

It has the same mass as that of an electron

c)

It has a mass about 2000 times that of an electron

d)

It has a charge equal in size to that of an electron

60.

Which of the following equations is correct?

a)

b)

c)

d)

CSEC Physics MCQ - 2020 May/June

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

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