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Positioning Quiz #2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following does not describe anatomical position?

a)

Head pointing forward

b)

Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up

c)

Body standing erect

d)

All of the above describe the body in the anatomical position.

2.

The layman’s name for the clavicle is the:

a)

shinbone

b)

elbow

c)

collarbone.

d)

kneecap

3.

The position recommended to increase patient comfort when performing an AP projection of the humerus is:

a)

prone

b)

recumbent.

c)

supine

d)

upright.

4.

Oblique positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is:

a)

closest to the x-ray tube.

b)

farthest from the IR.

c)

closest to the IR.

d)

the source of pathology.

5.

The blunt cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the:

a)

body

b)

xiphoid process.

c)

costal cartilage.

d)

manubrium.

6.

Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part is termed

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

abduction

d)

adduction

7.

Which of the following is an x-ray “projection”?

a)

Right anterior oblique (RAO)

b)

Tangential

c)

Lordotic

d)

Right lateral decubitus

8.

After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called the:

a)

epiphysis.

b)

diaphysis.

c)

epiphyseal plate.

d)

epiphyseal line.

9.

Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand is up is termed:

a)

abduction

b)

supination.

c)

adduction.

d)

pronation.

10.

Which of the following is the essential lateral projection of the calcaneus?

a)

Lateral (lateromedial)

b)

Lateral (mediolateral)

c)

Lateromedial oblique, weight-bearing

d)

Lateromedial oblique

11.

The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the sacroiliac joints) is _____ degrees.

a)

45 to 50

b)

15 to 20

c)

25 to 30

d)

10 to 15

12.

The reproductive system includes all of the following except the:

a)

ovaries.

b)

ureter

c)

testes

d)

penis.

13.

An important safety rule for pediatric radiography is to:

a)

speak directly to the child using age-appropriate language.

b)

never leave the patient unattended.

c)

always immobilize the patient to avoid repeats.

d)

maintain adequate lighting in the exam room.

14.

The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection?

a)

AP oblique

b)

PA oblique

c)

The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection?

d)

Lateral

15.

Axilla is a term referring to which body region?

a)

Posterior knee

b)

Anterior elbow

c)

Armpit

d)

Groin

16.

How many bones are in the foot?

a)

26

b)

27

c)

29

d)

14

17.

The term that refers to a part on the opposite side of the body is:

a)

ipsilateral.

b)

distal

c)

proximal

d)

contralateral

18.

The head of the radius articulates on the medial side with the:

a)

trochlear notch.

b)

radial notch.

c)

ulnar styloid process.

d)

coronoid process.

19.

Which of the following is the essential projection and body position for demonstration of the sternum?

a)

PA oblique, LAO

b)

PA, prone

c)

PA oblique, RAO

d)

AP, supine

20.

The costal cartilages of the eighth through tenth ribs attach to:

a)

the sternum.

b)

the costal cartilage of the seventh rib.

c)

each other.

d)

the body of the seventh rib.

21.

The serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic walls is called the:

a)

mesentery.

b)

omentum.

c)

peritoneum.

d)

peritoneal cavity.

22.

For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed _____ degrees.

a)

25

b)

90

c)

45

d)

0

23.

How many tarsal bones are in the foot?

a)

Four

b)

Five

c)

6

d)

7

24.

The arm is made up of which of the following bones?1.   Ulna2.   Radius3.   Humerus

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

3 only

c)

1 only

d)

1 and 3

25.

Which of the following vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve? 1.   Thoracic 2.   Lumbar 3.   Sacrum and coccyx

a)

2 and 3

b)

1 and 2

c)

1, 2, and 3

d)

1 and 3

26.

To better demonstrate the TMT joint spaces of the foot, a posterior angulation of how many degrees is required?

a)

20

b)

0

c)

10

d)

15

27.

The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings, can be defined as a:

a)

groove or elongated depression.

b)

raised area or projection.

c)

cavity within a bone.

d)

tubelike opening or channel.

28.

Which of the following is the primary projection used to demonstrate anterior or posterior displacement of fractures of the hand or wrist?

a)

AP

b)

PA

c)

AP oblique

d)

Lateral

29.

The PA projection of the wrist in ulnar deviation clearly demonstrates the:

a)

hamate.

b)

scaphoid.

c)

trapezium

d)

trapezoid

30.

The study of joints or articulations is known as:

a)

arthrology.

b)

radiology

c)

radiography

d)

osteology

31.

The mediastinum contains all of the following except the:

a)

trachea.

b)

venae cavae.

c)

right lung.

d)

esophagus

32.

A fontanel can best be described as a(n):

a)

unossified area in the infant’s skull.

b)

bone in the skull.

c)

small opening.

d)

articulation between two skull bones.

33.

The part of the bone where muscles, tendons, or ligaments are attached is called:

a)

a tuberosity.

b)

the fossa.

c)

the meatus.

d)

a foramina.

34.

Which of the following is shown in profile on an AP projection of the humerus?

a)

Greater tubercle

b)

Glenoid cavity

c)

Lesser tubercle

d)

Capitulum

35.

Which of the following forms the ankle mortise? 1.   Lateral malleolus of the fibula 2.   Medial malleolus of the tibia 3.   Inferior surface of the tibia

a)

2 and 3

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 2

d)

1, 2, and 3

36.

Which of the following are functions of the vertebral column?1.   Supports the trunk2.   Protects the spinal cord3.   Supports the skull superiorly

a)

1 and 3

b)

2 and 3

c)

1, 2, and 3

d)

1 and 2

37.

Physiology:

a)

is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization such as cells and systems.

b)

investigates the body’s structure.

c)

is the science that examines the function of living organisms and their parts.

d)

recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of things.

38.

Which is not a part of the axial skeleton?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Rib

c)

Mandible

d)

Vertebral column

39.

The hip bone is composed of which of the following? 1.   Ilium 2.   Pubis 3.   Ischium

a)

1 and 3

b)

1, 2, and 3

c)

1 and 2

d)

2 and 3

40.

The short, thick processes that project posteriorly on each side of a vertebral body are called the:

a)

pedicles.

b)

spinous processes.

c)

laminae

d)

transverse processes.

41.

The term used to describe the sole of the foot is:

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

posterior

d)

plantar

42.

The ulna articulates proximally with the:

a)

scapula

b)

None of the above is correct.

c)

carpal bones.

d)

humerus.

43.

Which of the following must be rotated for all oblique projections of the ankle?1.   Pelvis2.   Leg3.   Foot

a)

2 and 3

b)

1, 2, and 3

c)

1 and 3

d)

1 and 2

44.

The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the _____ joints.

a)

costovertebral

b)

zygapophyseal

c)

intervertebral

d)

costotransverse

45.

The appendicular skeleton consists of _____ bones.

a)

137

b)

118

c)

102

d)

126

46.

If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of the body,” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle?

a)

Proximal

b)

Superior

c)

Superficial

d)

Distal

47.

In what position should the hand be placed for the AP projection of the humerus?

a)

30 degrees oblique, medial rotation

b)

Prone

c)

Lateral

d)

Supine

48.

If the foot is turned inward at the ankle joint, the body movement is termed:

a)

inversion

b)

eversion

c)

flexion

d)

extension

49.

How are small weights applied to the arms for the lateral projection of the cervical spine (Grandy method)?

a)

Held by the fingers

b)

Held in the hands

c)

Affixed to the elbows

d)

Affixed to the wrists

50.

The pisiform bone can be found in the:

a)

wrist.

b)

skull.

c)

ankle

d)

neck

51.

The axial portion of the body consists of the:

a)

torso, arms, legs, and head.

b)

arms, neck, and legs.

c)

neck, torso, and arms.

d)

head, neck, and torso.

52.

Which of the following terms are used to describe x-ray “projections”? 1.   AP 2.   PA axial 3.   Supine

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 2

d)

2 and 3

53.

A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called:

a)

transverse

b)

frontal.

c)

coronal

d)

sagittal

54.

Which is not a part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Radius

b)

Coxal bones

c)

Clavicle

d)

Parietal bones

55.

The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is:

a)

3

b)

5

c)

12

d)

7.

56.

The piece of cartilage that separates the end of a developing long bone from the central shaft is called the:

a)

epiphysis.

b)

diaphysis.

c)

epiphyseal line.

d)

epiphyseal plate.

57.

An abnormally increased concavity of the lumbar spine is termed:

a)

scoliosis

b)

lordosis.

c)

kyphosis

d)

scoliokyphosis

58.

The adult skeleton is composed of _____ bones.

a)

260

b)

80

c)

206

d)

126

59.

The first bone located on the proximal row and lateral side of the wrist is called the:

a)

lunate.

b)

trapezoid

c)

trapezium

d)

scaphoid

60.

The patient position most commonly used to perform a radiograph of a finger (digit) is:

a)

PA

b)

sitting at the end of the table.

c)

AP.

d)

standing at the end of the table.

61.

Which of the following is shown in profile on a lateral projection of the elbow?

a)

Humeral epicondyles

b)

Radial head

c)

Olecranon process

d)

Radial neck

62.

The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the:

a)

lateral epicondyle.

b)

trochlea.

c)

radial head.

d)

ulnar coronoid process.

63.

The hand consists of how many bones?

a)

8

b)

32

c)

14

d)

27

64.

The trochlea and capitulum can be described as:

a)

distal portions of the humerus.

b)

metacarpal bones.

c)

markings on the scapula.

d)

parts of the proximal end of the ulna.

65.

The second largest tarsal bone, and the one that occupies the highest position in the foot, is the:

a)

calcaneus.

b)

talus

c)

navicular

d)

medial cuneiform.

66.

Forced or excessive extension of a limb or part is termed:

a)

hyperextension.

b)

inversion.

c)

hyperflexion

d)

eversion

67.

The axial skeleton consists of _____ bones.

a)

60

b)

68

c)

74

d)

80

68.

The upper part of the sternum is called the:

a)

manubrium.

b)

xiphoid process.

c)

costal cartilage.

d)

body

69.

The fibula articulates with the tibia at the: 1.   distal end. 2.   proximal end. 3.   posterior surface.

a)

1 and 2

b)

1, 2, and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1 and 3

70.

Which of the following body positions will project the left ribs clear of the heart? 1.   Lateral 2.   LAO 3.   RPO

a)

2 and 3

b)

1 and 2

c)

1 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

71.

The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the:

a)

tibia.

b)

femur.

c)

coxal.

d)

fibula

72.

Which of the following terms are used to describe “body positions”? 1.   Upright 2.   Axial 3.   Prone

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1 and 2

73.

Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within the foramen magnum?

a)

Fuchs

b)

Pawlow

c)

Grandy

d)

Twining

74.

Which of the following is an x-ray “position”?

a)

Trendelenburg’s

b)

Orbitoparietal

c)

Craniocaudal

d)

Mediolateral

75.

The name of the small round bones located on the plantar surface of the foot, typically beneath the first MTP joint, is the:

a)

sesamoids

b)

epicondyles

c)

tarsals

d)

cuneiforms

76.

A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a:

a)

facet.

b)

foramen.

c)

groove.

d)

fissure

77.

Which of the following is the largest carpal bone?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Triquetrum

c)

Hamate

d)

Capitate

78.

The central ray for a PA projection of the wrist is directed to the:

a)

third CMC joint.

b)

midcarpal area.

c)

radiocarpal joint.

d)

scaphoid

79.

Which of the following positioning terms indicates that the patient is lying down and the central ray is horizontal?

a)

Recumbent

b)

Lateral

c)

Mediolateral

d)

Decubitus

80.

Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to the posterior ends?

a)

3 to 5 inches higher

b)

3 to 5 inches lower

c)

1 inch higher

d)

1 inch lower

81.

A term that means the same as anterior is:

a)

distal.

b)

dorsal

c)

plantar

d)

ventral

82.

What is the most common location for an aspirated foreign body?

a)

Right side of bronchial tree

b)

Stomach

c)

Left side of bronchial tree

d)

Esophagus

83.

A rounded process at an articular extremity is called a:

a)

condyle

b)

malleolus

c)

styloid

d)

tubercle

84.

If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed:

a)

lateral.

b)

PA

c)

AP

d)

axiolateral

85.

Which of the following vertebral areas have a lordotic curve? 1.   Cervical 2.   Thoracic 3.   Lumbar

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

1 and 2

c)

2 and 3

d)

1 and 3

86.

Another term for posterior is:

a)

proximal.

b)

ventral

c)

inferior

d)

dorsal

87.

Which of the following is demonstrated free of superimposition on an AP oblique projection of the elbow in lateral rotation?

a)

Trochlea

b)

Capitulum

c)

Radial head and neck

d)

Olecranon process

88.

The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the:

a)

acetabulum.

b)

pubic symphysis.

c)

sacroiliac joint.

d)

lumbar-5, sacral-1 joint.

89.

Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra?

a)

Occipital

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Temporal

d)

Sphenoid

90.

What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the supine position?

a)

Expiration

b)

Slow, deep breathing

c)

Suspended respiration

d)

Inspiration

91.

T9 and T10 are located at the level of the:

a)

jugular notch.

b)

sternal angle.

c)

vertebra prominens.

d)

xiphoid process.

92.

Which of the following lines must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP “open mouth” atlas and axis?

a)

Orbitomeatal line

b)

Glabellomeatal line

c)

A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process

d)

Acanthiomeatal line

93.

Which of the following will be shown "in profile" if the lower limbs are in correct position for an AP pelvis?

a)

Lesser trochanters

b)

Anterior superior iliac spines

c)

Anterior inferior iliac spines

d)

Greater trochanters

94.

When there is longitudinal angulation of the central ray with the long axis of the body, the projection will always use the term:

a)

lateral

b)

oblique.

c)

axial

d)

decubitus

95.

The central-ray angle for an AP axial of cervical vertebrae is:

a)

10 degrees cephalad.

b)

15 to 20 degrees cephalad.

c)

variable, depending on the body habitus.

d)

20 degrees cephalad.

96.

One of the primary reasons a left lateral decubitus abdominal image is performed is to demonstrate:

a)

intestinal gas.

b)

the location of tumor masses.

c)

air-fluid levels.

d)

foreign bodies.

97.

The central-ray angle for the PA oblique projection of the sternum is:

a)

perpendicular.

b)

10 degrees caudad.

c)

5 degrees caudad.

d)

15 degrees caudad.

98.

How many bones make up the leg?

a)

Three

b)

5

c)

2

d)

4

99.

The number of abdominal regions is:

a)

7

b)

5

c)

9

d)

3

100.

The two bones that make up the bulging topside of the cranium are the:

a)

temporal bones.

b)

parietal bones.

c)

occipital bones.

d)

frontal bones.