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WBC Turgeon Study Questions

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear is

a)
A. myeloblast
b)

B. monoblast

c)

C. promyelocyte

d)
D. myelocyte
2.

The mature granulocytes seen in the peripheral blood of healthy persons include

a)
A. band form and segmented neutrophils
b)
B. eosinophils and basophils
c)
C. lymphocytes and monocytes
d)
D. Both A and B
3.
The granules of segmented neutrophils contain
a)
A. lysosomal hydrolases
b)
B. lysozymes
c)
C. myeloperoxidase
d)
D. all of the above
4.

Which of the following are contents of basophilic granules?

a)
A. Heparin
b)
B. Histamine
c)
C. Myeloperoxidase
d)
D. Both A and B
5.
The tissue basophil can be referred to as a/an
a)
A. mast cell
b)
B. macrophage
c)
C. mononuclear cell
d)
D. antibody-producing cell
6.

A leukocyte with the morphological characteristics of being the largest normal mature leukocyte in the peripheral blood and having a convoluted or twisted nucleus is the

a)
A. myelocyte
b)
B. metamyelocyte
c)
C. promonocyte
d)
D. monocyte
7.

The reference range of PMN neutrophil count in adults is

a)
A. 20 – 40%
b)
B. 40 – 60%
c)
C. 60 – 80%
d)
D. 80 – 100%
8.

The principal leukocyte type involved in phagocytosis is the

a)
A. monocyte
b)
B. neutrophil
c)
C. eosinophil
d)
D. basophil
9.

The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of reticular cells. These cells can be found in the

a)
A. connective tissue
b)
B. spleen
c)
C. lymph nodes
d)
D. all of the above
10.
The immediate precursor of the macrophage is the
a)
A. myeloblast
b)
B. monoblast
c)
C. promonocyte
d)
D. monocyte
11.

The correct sequence(s) of events in successful phagocytosis is (are)

a)

A. chemotaxis, opsonization, phagosome formation, band the action of antibacterial substances

b)

B. opsonization, chemotaxis, phagosome formation, and the action of antibacterial substances

c)

C. engulfment, opsonization, digestion, and destruction of bacteria or particulate matter

d)
D. Both A and C
12.
The major function of eosinophils is
a)
A. suppression of infl ammatory reactions
b)
B. destruction of protozoa
c)
C. participation in anaphylaxis
d)
D. phagocytosis
13.
Monocytes are capable of
a)
A. phagocytosis
b)
B. synthesis of biologically important compounds
c)
C. assuming a killer role
d)
D. All of the above
14.

The hematology tests that are useful in the early diagnosis of acute inflammation are the

a)
A. total leukocyte count and total erythrocyte count
b)

B. total leukocyte count and white blood cell differential count

c)
C. ESR and absolute neutrophil cell count
d)
D. Both B and C
15.

The total leukocyte count can be increased in certain states. Select the conditions when this is not true.

a)
A. Strenuous exercise
b)
B. Overwhelming bacterial infection
c)
C. Sepsis
d)
D. Use of immunosuppressive agents
16.
Acute infl ammation is based on
a)

A. total leukocyte count >10.5 × 109/L

b)
B. neutrophilic band count <2%
c)
C. symptoms of long duration
d)
D. an increase in lymphocytes
17.

On the basis of the following data, calculate the absolute value of the segmented neutrophils. Total leukocyte count = 12 × 109/L; percentage of segmented neutrophils on the differential count = 80%. The absolute segmented neutrophil value is

a)

A. 2.5 × 109/L

b)

B. 4.5 × 109/L

c)

C. 6.5 × 109/L

d)

D. 9.6 × 109/L

18.

An increase in metamyelocytes, myelocytes, and promyelocytes can be referred to as

a)

A. leukocytopenia

b)

B. a shift to the right

c)

C. a shift to the left

d)
D. Pelger-Huet anomaly
19.

What is the normal range of the segmented neutrophil absolute value?

a)

A. 1.4 to 6 × 109/L

b)

B. 2.5 to 6.5 × 109/L

c)

C. 3.5 to 8 × 109/L

d)

D. 5.5 to 10 × 109/L

20.

The absolute value of segmented neutrophils can be an unreliable indicator of overwhelming infection because

a)
A. it drops in many patients because the circulating granulocytes are mobilized into the tissue site of infection
b)
B. the bone marrow reserve becomes exhausted
c)
C. the infection suppresses granulocytic production
d)
D. All of the above
21.
The CLSI-recommended method for the ESR is the
a)
A. Wintrobe method
b)
B. Westergren method
c)
C. Duke
d)
D. Ivy
22.
Leukocytosis can be caused by
a)

A. increased movement of immature cells out of the bone marrow’s proliferative compartment

b)

B. increased mobilization of granulocytes from the maturation-storage compartment

c)

C. increased movement of granulocytes from the marginating pool to the circulating pool

d)
D. all of the above
23.

Neutrophilia can be related to a variety of conditions or disorders. Select the appropriate conditions

a)
A. Surgery
b)
B. Burns
c)
C. Stress
d)
D. All of the above
24.

Charcot-Leyden crystals can be found in _____ of patients with active eosinophilic infl ammation.

a)
A. sputum
b)
B. tissues
c)
C. stool
d)
D. all of the above
25.
Monocytosis can be observed in
a)
A. tuberculosis
b)
B. fever of unknown origin
c)
C. rheumatoid arthritis
d)
D. all of the above
26.
Neutropenia can be observed in
a)
A. bone marrow injury
b)
B. nutritional defi ciency
c)
C. increased destruction and utilization
d)
D. all of the above
27.
Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate characteristic: Pelger-Huët anomaly
a)
A. Dark blue-black precipitates of RNA
b)
B. Five or more nuclear segments
c)
C. Failure of the nucleus to segment.
d)
D. Precipitated mucopolysaccharides.
28.
Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate characteristic: Toxic Granulation
a)
A. Dark blue-black precipitates of RNA
b)
B. Five or more nuclear segments
c)
C. Failure of the nucleus to segment.
d)
D. Precipitated mucopolysaccharides.
29.
Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate characteristic: Hypersegmentation
a)
A. Dark blue-black precipitates of RNA
b)
B. Five or more nuclear segments
c)
C. Failure of the nucleus to segment.
d)
D. Precipitated mucopolysaccharides.
30.

Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate condition: Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

a)

A. Associated with a defi ciency of vitamin B12 or folic acid

b)

B. Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults

c)

C. May be related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections

d)
D. Associated with viral infections and burns
31.

Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate condition: Döhle bodies

a)

A. Associated with a defi ciency of vitamin B12 or folic acid

b)

B. Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults

c)

C. May be related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections

d)
D. Associated with viral infections and burns
32.

Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate condition: Pelger-Huët anomaly

a)

A. Associated with a defi ciency of vitamin B12 or folic acid

b)

B. Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults

c)

C. May be related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections

d)
D. Associated with viral infections and burns
33.

Match the following abnormalities with the appropriate condition: Hypersegmentation

a)

A. Associated with a defi ciency of vitamin B12 or folic acid

b)

B. Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults

c)

C. May be related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections

d)
D. Associated with viral infections and burns
34.

Select the appropriate cell type involved in the following disorders.: Gaucher disease

a)
A. Neutrophilic series
b)
B. Monocytic-macrophage series
35.

Select the appropriate cell typeinvolved in the following disorders.: Niemann-Pick disease

a)
A. Neutrophilic series
b)
B. Monocytic-macrophage series
36.

Select the appropriate cell type involved in the following disorders.: Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

a)
A. Neutrophilic series
b)
B. Monocytic-macrophage series
37.

Select the appropriate cell type involved in the following disorders.: Chronic granulomatous disease

a)
A. Neutrophilic series
b)
B. Monocytic-macrophage series
38.

Select the appropriate cell type involved in the following disorders.: Lazy leukocyte syndrome

a)
A. Neutrophilic series
b)
B. Monocytic-macrophage series
39.

In the United States, human diseases caused by Ehrlichiaspecies can be caused by

a)
A. E. chaffeensis
b)

B. E. ewingii

c)
C. E. phagocytophilia (similar or identical to)
d)
D. all of the above
40.
Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by _____.
a)
A. mosquitoes
b)
B. ticks
c)
C. rats
d)
D. cats
41.
Gaucher cells have
a)
A. wrinkled cytoplasm
b)
B. one to three nuclei
c)
C. a defi ciency of b-glucocerebrosidase
d)
D. all of the above
42.
T cells are found in the:
a)
A. perifollicular areas of the lymph nodes
b)
B. paracortex regions of the lymph nodes
c)
C. periarteriolar regions of the spleen
d)
D. all of the above
43.
A major site of B-lymphocyte localization and proliferation is
a)
A. lymphoid follicles
b)
B. deep cortical zone
c)
C. paracortex
d)
D. all of the above
44.
The process of lymphocyte recirculation is important in
a)
A. antibody production
b)
B. lymphocyte proliferation
c)
C. dissemination of antigen-sensitized memory cells
d)
D. commitment of lymphocytes to T and B cells
45.
T lymphocytes constitute _____% of the blood lymphocyte pool in adults.
a)
A. 0–20
b)
B. 20–40
c)
C. 40–60
d)
D. 60–80
46.

Lymphocytes represent approximately _____% of the total circulating leukocytes in adults.

a)
A. 15
b)
B. 35
c)
C. 55
d)
D. 75
47.

The percentage of lymphocytes as compared with the other types of leukocytes in the peripheral blood _____ as humans age.

a)
A. increases
b)
B. decreases
c)
C. remains the same
48.

If a patient has a total leukocyte count of 20 × 109/L and a 50% lymphocyte count on the differential count, the absolute lymphocyte value is _____ × 109/L

a)
A. 1
b)
B. 5
c)
C. 10
d)
D. 15
49.
As a lymphocyte matures, the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
a)
A. increases
b)
B. decreases
c)
C. remains about the same
50.
As a lymphocyte matures, the overall size _____.
a)
A. increases
b)
B. decreases
c)
C. remains about the same
51.

As a lymphocyte matures, the number of nucleoli _____.

a)
A. increases
b)
B. decreases
c)
C. remains about the same
52.
As a lymphocyte matures, the chromatin clumping
a)
A. increases
b)
B. decreases
c)
C. remains about the same
53.
As a lymphocyte matures, the quantity of cytoplasm
a)
A. increases
b)
B. decreases
c)
C. remains about the same
54.

The most characteristic morphological features of variant lymphocytes include

a)

A. increased overall size, possibly one to three nucleoli, <band abundant cytoplasm

b)

B. increased overall size, round nucleus, and increased granulation in the cytoplasm

c)

C. segmented nucleus, light-blue cytoplasm, and no nucleoli

d)

D. enlarged nucleus, six to eight nucleoli, and dark-blue cytoplasm

55.
Match the following: Rieder cells
a)
A. Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt lymphoma
b)
B. CLL
c)
C. Leukosarcoma
d)
D. Natural artifact
56.
Match the following: Vacuolated lymphocytes
a)
A. Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt lymphoma
b)
B. CLL
c)
C. Leukosarcoma
d)
D. Natural artifact
57.
Match the following: Crystalline inclusions
a)
A. Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt lymphoma
b)
B. CLL
c)
C. Leukosarcoma
d)
D. Natural artifact
58.
Match the following: Smudge cells
a)
A. Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt lymphoma
b)
B. CLL
c)
C. Leukosarcoma
d)
D. Natural artifact
59.
T cells are
a)
A. lymphocytes
b)
B. monocytes
c)
C. helper or suppressor types
d)
D. both A and C
60.
B cells are
a)
A. lymphocytes
b)
B. associated with antigen recognition
c)
C. found in the thymus and bone marrow
d)
D. all of the above
61.
NK cells are classifi ed as
a)
A. macrophages
b)
B. monocytes
c)
C. effector lymphocytes
d)
D. K-type lymphocytes
62.

Which of the following statements is (are) true of T cells?

a)
A. Responsible for humoral responses
b)
B. Responsible for cellular immune responses
c)
C. Responsible for chronic rejection in organ transplantation
d)
D. Both B and C
63.

. Which of the following statements is (are) true of B cells?

a)
A. Responsible for antibody responses
b)
B. Protect against intracellular pathogens
c)
C. Responsible for chronic rejection in transplantation
d)
D. Both A and B
64.

An abnormal plasma cell with red-staining cytoplasm is a

a)
A. Russell body
b)
B. Mott cell
c)
B. Mott cell
d)
D. flame cell
65.
Lymphocytopenia means a
a)
A. total increase in leukocytes
b)
B. total increase in lymphocytes
c)

C. total increase in the absolute value or percentage of lymphocytes

d)
D. total decrease in lymphocytes
66.

The helper subset of T lymphocytes is _____ in AIDS.

a)
A. increased
b)
B. decreased
c)
C. not altered
67.
Which of the following characterizes infectious mononucleosis?
a)
A. Etiology: EBV
b)
B. A T-cell disorder
c)
C. A greater incidence in Africa
d)
D. Nonheterophil antibodies
68.

The laboratory fi ndings in infectious mononucleosis are generally characterized by

a)
A. an increase in variant lymphocytes
b)
B. a heterophil titer less than 1:56
c)

C. no agglutination of the patient’s serum with horse erythrocytes

d)
D. all of the above
69.
Which of the following characterizes infectious lymphocytosis?
a)
A. An adult disorder
b)
B. Leukocytopenia in the early stages
c)
C. Lymphocyte differential counts over 95%
d)
D. Lymphoblasts on the peripheral blood smear
70.
Which of the following are characteristics of CMV infection?
a)
A. Etiology: a herpes family virus
b)
B. Lymphocytopenia
c)
C. A positive heterophil test result
d)
D. Both A and B
71.
AIDS is caused by
a)
A. a herpes family virus
b)
B. CMV
c)
C. HIV-1
d)
D. EBV
72.
14. Which of the following generally characterize(s) toxoplasmosis?
a)
A. Symptoms may resemble infectious mononucleosis
b)
B. Occurrence in pregnant women who own cats
c)
C. Etiology: parasitic
d)
D. All of the above
73.

Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell preparation in the diagnosis of SLE?

a)
A. Rheumatoid arthritis factor
b)
B. ANA test
c)
C. Complement fi xation test
d)
D. Antibody Smith test
74.

A definition of a leukemia could include

a)
A. an overproduction of leukocytes
b)
B. solid, malignant tumors of the lymph nodes
c)
C. malignant cells trespass the blood-brain barrier
d)
D. both A and C
75.
Descriptive terms for most lymphomas can include
a)
A. a nonneoplastic proliferative disease
b)
B. a solid malignant tumor of the lymph nodes
c)
C. a lymphocytopenia
d)
D. freely trespassing the blood-brain barrier
76.
An acute leukemia can be described as being
a)

A. of short duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

b)

B. of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

c)
C. of short duration with little alteration of the leukocytes of the peripheral blood
d)

D. of long duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

77.
The etiological agents of leukemias can include
a)
A. ionizing radiation
b)
B. certain infectious agents
c)
C. chemical exposure to benzene
d)
D. all of the above
78.
HIV is associated with
a)
A. hairy cell leukemia
b)
B. Sézary cell syndrome
c)
C. AIDS
d)
D. leukemia
79.
Cancer-predisposing genes may act by
a)

A. affecting the rate at which exogenous precarcinogens are metabolized to actively carcinogenic forms

b)

B. affecting the host’s ability to repair resulting damage to DNA

c)

C. altering the immune system’s ability to recognize and wipe out incipient tumors

d)
D. all of the above
80.
The incidence of leukemia is higher in
a)
A. Scandinavian versus Japanese populations
b)
B. American blacks versus American whites
c)

C. chronic forms in children versus chronic forms in adults

d)

D. acute forms in older adults versus acute forms in children

81.

Which of the following are typical characteristics of an acute leukemia?

a)
A. Replacement of normal marrow elements by leukocytic blasts and bleeding episodes
b)
B. Blasts and immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood and anemia
c)
C. Leukocytosis
d)
D. All of the above
82.
Characteristics of FAB M1 include
a)

A. leukocytosis with maturation of the myeloid cell line in the peripheral blood

b)

B. leukocytosis with maturation of the lymphocytic cell line in the peripheral blood

c)

C. leukocytosis without maturation of the myeloid cell line in the peripheral blood

d)
D. leukocytosis with many mature leukocytes in the peripheral blood
83.
The incidence of FAB M1 is
a)
A. high in children younger than 18 months of age
b)
B. high in children between 1.5 and 12 years of age
c)
C. high in middle-aged adults
d)
D. both A and C
84.
Chloromas are associated with
a)
A. FAB M1
b)
B. FAB M3
c)
C. FAB M4
d)
D. FAB M5
85.
A common characteristic of ALL is
a)
A. bone and joint pain
b)
B. many blast cells with Auer rods
c)
C. leukocytopenia
d)
D. a leukemia of older persons
86.
The Sudan black B cytochemical stain differentiates
a)
A. acute myeloid from ALL
b)
B. acute monocytic from AML
c)
C. myeloid leukemia from a leukemoid reaction
d)

D. acute myeloid from acute myelomonocytic leukemia

87.
Myeloperoxidase differentiates
a)
A. acute myeloid from chronic myelocytic leukemia
b)
B. acute myeloid and acute monocytic from A
c)

C. acute myelomonocytic from acute monocytic leukemia

d)
D. acute lymphoblastic from acute monocytic leukemia
88.
The PAS reaction is
a)

A. positive in the neutrophilic granulocytes, except blasts

b)
B. positive in a block-like pattern in some lymphoblasts
c)
C. negative in megakaryoblasts
d)
D. negative in myelocytes
89.
Esterase (naphthol AS-D chloracetate) differentiates
a)
A. granulocytic (promyelocytic to segmented neutrophils) from the monocytic cell line
b)
B. promyelocytes from myelocytes
c)
C. monoblasts from myeloblasts
d)
D. metamyelocytes from myelocytes
90.

In the nonspecifi c esterase (alpha-naphthyl acetate)staining reaction, the cells of monocytic origin are

a)
A. strongly positive
b)

B. positive initially and positive after sodium fluoride incubation

c)

C. positive initially and negative after sodium fl uoride incubation

d)
D. negative
91.
Specifi c nature B-cell surface marker(s) membrane is
a)
A. CD 79a
b)
B. CD19
c)
C. CD 20
d)
D. all of the above
92.
Patients with AML have a good prognosis if
a)
A. Less than 45 years of age
b)
B. Over rods are present in blast cells
c)
C. Ph chromosome
d)
D. all of the above
93.
The most common form of chronic leukemia in Western countries is
a)
A. myelogenous
b)
B. lymphocytic
c)
C. monocytic
d)
D. eosinophilic
94.

The median survival time of patients with CLL, compared with patients with chronic monocytic leukemia, is

a)
A. not signifi cantly different
b)
B. shorter
c)
C. longer
d)
D. shorter, if the patient is female
95.
CLL is classically a
a)
A. T-cell disorder
b)
B. B-cell disorder
c)
C. null cell disorder
d)
D. disorder of the young
96.
CLL symptoms frequently include
a)
A. weight loss, anemia, and extreme leukocytosis
b)
B. absolute lymphocytosis, edema, and splenic infarction
c)

C. absolute lymphocytosis, malaise, and low-grade fever

d)
D. neutrophilia, splenomegaly, and anemia
97.

Characteristics of malignant lymphoma typically include

a)
A. overproliferation of neutrophil
b)
B. overproliferation of lymphocytes
c)
C. lymph node involvement
d)
D. both B and C
98.
Hodgkin disease
a)

A. is characterized by neutrophilia in the early stages of the disease

b)
B. occurs more frequently in females than males
c)

C. is a lymphoma, characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells, and occurs more frequently in females than in males

d)

D. is a lymphoma, characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells, and occurs more frequently in males than in females

99.
Rare forms of lymphoma include
a)
A. Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b)
B. Burkitt lymphoma and mycosis fungoides
c)

C. Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma

d)
D. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma and mycosis fungoides
100.
Multiple myeloma is a disorder of
a)
A. T lymphocytes
b)
B. megakaryocytes
c)
C. plasma cells
d)
D. the lymph nodes
101.

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is

a)
A. albumin
b)
B. globulin
c)
C. IgG
d)
D. Bence Jones
102.
WM is characterized by increased levels of
a)
A. IgG
b)
B. IgM
c)
C. IgD
d)
D. IgA
103.
Which cluster designations are positive in typical HCL
a)
A. CD25 CD11c, CD19, CD20
b)
B. CD25 CD11c, CD19, CD10
c)
C. CD25 CD11c, CD10, CD5
d)
D. CD25 CD22, CD19, CD20
104.
MPNs are characterized by all of the following except
a)
A. clonal disorders
b)
B. they may evolve into acute leukemia
c)
C. initial increase of immature cells
d)
D. increased production of mature cells
105.
In CML, the total leukocyte (WBC) count is
a)
A. extremely increased
b)
B. slightly increased
c)
C. extremely variable
d)
D. usually normal
106.

Primary myelofi brosis differs from other types of MPN in which of the following ways?

a)

A. Ph1 chromosome is present

b)
B. Marrow fi brosis is greatly increased
c)
C. LAP score is increased
d)
D. Platelet count is increased
107.

Which of the following is a remarkable characteristic of PV compared with other types of MPNs?

a)
A. Extremely increased erythrocyte mass
b)
B. Extremely increased leukocyte count
c)
C. Extremely increased platelet count
d)
D. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes
108.

Which of the following is a predominant feature ofessential thrombocythemia compared with other typesof MPNs?

a)
A. Variable number of platelets
b)
B. Moderately increased number of platelets
c)
C. Extremely increased number of platelets
d)
D. Increased marrow fibrosis
109.

In MPN, the test results of disorders of hemostasis and coagulation that are most likely to be abnormal are

a)

A. decreased platelet count, increased APTT, and increased factor V level

b)

B. increased APTT, decreased factor V level, and increased concentration of antithrombin III inmany

c)

C. decreased APTT, decreased factor V level, and increased concentration of D-dimers

d)

D. decreased concentration of D-dimers, decreased concentration of antithrombin III, and increased concentration of plasmin-alpha 2-plasmin inhibitor complex

110.
Interferon alfa has been shown to
a)
A. stimulate trilineage cell proliferation
b)

B. suppress proliferation of hematopoietic progenitor cells

c)
C. subdue erythropoiesis only
d)
D. suppress megakaryocytopoiesis only
111.

. A leukemia of long duration that affects the neutrophilic granulocytes is referred to as

a)
A. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b)
B. acute myelogenous leukemia
c)
C. acute monocytic leukemia
d)
D. CML
112.

The alkaline phosphatase cytochemical staining reaction is used to differentiate between

a)
A. chronic lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia
b)
B. acute lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia
c)
C. CML and severe bacterial infections
d)

D. leukemoid reactions and severe bacterial infections

113.
Patients with the initial phase of CML are prone to
a)
A. weight gain, edema, and fatigue
b)
B. edema, anemia, and splenic infarction
c)

C. low-grade fevers, night sweats, and splenic infarction

d)
D. prominent lymphadenopathy and night sweats
114.

Patients with some variety of MDS are at increased risk of developing

a)
A. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b)
B. AML
c)
C. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d)
D. chronic myelogenous leukemia
115.

Which of the following agents has not been supported by scientific research as being associated with the development of secondary MDS?

a)
A. Alkylating agents
b)
B. Organic solvents
c)
C. Insecticides
d)
D. Both B and C
116.
An increased incidence of MDSs is seen in
a)
A. males younger than 55 years of age
b)
B. females younger than 55 years of age
c)
C. males older than 55 years of age
d)
D. females older than 55 years of age
117.

The most frequently involved chromosomes in adults with MDS are

a)
A. 1, 5, and 7
b)
B. 3, 5, and 8
c)
C. 5, 7, and 8
d)
D. 8, 12, and 13
118.

The most frequent chromosomal abnormalities in children with MDS include all of the following except

a)
A. trisomy 8
b)
B. monosomy 7
c)
C. deletion of long arm of chromosome 20
d)
D. all of the above
119.

The incidence of chromosomal abnormality in adults with MDS is

a)
A. 5% to 15%
b)
B. 15% to 25%
c)
C. 25% to 60%
d)
D. 40% to 90%
120.

The karyotype associated with a high probability of transforming to AML is

a)
A. monosomy 5
b)
B. monosomy 7
c)
C. trisomy 11
d)
D. both A and B
121.
Patients with MDSs commonly suffer from _____ initially
a)
A. a rash
b)
B. anemia
c)
C. visual disturbances
d)
D. vertigo
122.

In young patients, the therapy of choice for MDSs involves

a)
A. vitamins
b)
B. allogeneic bone marrow transplantation
c)
C. cytotoxic drugs
d)
D. colony-stimulating growth factors
123.

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear is

a)
A. myeloblast
b)

B. monoblast

c)

C. promyelocyte

d)
D. myelocyte

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