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CST practice exam 1

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?

a)

villi

b)

teeth

c)

sinuses

d)

tonsils

2.

which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

a)

contaminated

b)

dirty and infected

c)

clean

d)

clean-contaminated

3.

the enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is?

a)

Atropine sulfate

b)

Alpha-chymotrypsin

c)

Acetylcholine chloride

d)

pilocarpine hydrochloride

4.

hyperkalemia is a high concentration of?

a)

nitrogen

b)

calcium

c)

potassium

d)

albumin

5.

which laser beam can travel through clear tissue without heating them?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

Argon

c)

excimer

d)

Neodymium: Yag

6.

which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?

a)

Pylorus

b)

Fundus

c)

Antrum

d)

Cardia

7.

low level disinfectants kill most microbes but do not destroy?

a)

spores

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

fungi

8.

Syndactyly refers to?

a)

cleft palate

b)

fused tarsals

c)

webbed fingers

d)

torn ligament

9.

the islets of Langerhans secrete?

a)

insulin

b)

bile

c)

intrinsic factor

d)

inhibiting hormones

10.

through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?

a)

Duct of Santorini

b)

Ampulla of Vater

c)

Wirsung's duct

d)

Sphincter of Oddi

11.

what are spiral shaped bacteria called?

a)

Diplococci

b)

Cocci

c)

Bacilli

d)

SPIRILLI

12.

The primary function of the Gallbladder is to?

a)

Produce bile

b)

store bile

c)

Metabolize fats

d)

Emulsify fats

13.

which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room?

a)

Provides for thorough cleaning

b)

eliminate air Turbulence

c)

uses less space for opening

d)

aid in controlling temperature

14.

what are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?

a)

exposure, frequency, concentration

b)

type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose

c)

site, age, gender

d)

time, Shielding, distance

15.

How are Rickettsiae Transmitted?

a)

Airborne Organism

b)

Arthropod bites

c)

Physical contact

d)

Blood Exposure

16.

which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?

a)

laparoscopy

b)

colposcopy

c)

Urethroscopy

d)

Hysteroscopy

17.

Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called?

a)

Tamponade

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Infarction

d)

Cardiomyopathy

18.

which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?

a)

-lysis

b)

-Centesis

c)

-Tomy

d)

-Dynia

19.

which laboratory test determines bacteria identification?

a)

Prothrombin time

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

Manual count

d)

Gram stain

20.

Medication used to dilate the pupil is called?

a)

Miotics

b)

Myopics

c)

mydriatics

d)

Muscarinics

21.

which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

a)

Excimer

b)

Nd:YAG

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Argon

22.

which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?

a)

Biological

b)

Clerical

c)

Chemical

d)

Mechanical

23.

the Apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the?

a)

Ligamentum

b)

Mesentery

c)

Omentum

d)

Peritoneum

24.

what is the action of antagonist drugs?

a)

counteract the action of another drug

b)

inhibit the clotting process

c)

increase the effects of opiates

d)

achieve neuroleptanesthesia

25.

what organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?

a)

unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube, uterus

b)

unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube

c)

bilateral ovaries only

d)

bilateral fallopian tubes, and ovaries, uterus

26.

which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as hunchback?

a)

alkalosis

b)

kyphosis

c)

lordosis

d)

scoliosis

27.

what incision is also known as a lower oblique?

a)

infraumbilical

b)

paramedian

c)

inguinal

d)

thorracoabdomunal

28.

what is the medical term for a bunion?

a)

hallux valgus

b)

talipes varus

c)

hallux varus

d)

talipes valgus

29.

the small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the?

a)

peritoneum

b)

mesentery

c)

lesser Omentum

d)

Falciform ligament

30.

what is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?

a)

mutualism

b)

neutralism

c)

parasitism

d)

commensalism

31.

A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is?

a)

Miochol

b)

Depo-Medrol

c)

Healon

d)

Wydase

32.

how is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?

a)

Surgeon and risk manager sign consent

b)

Authorized individual signs patient's name

c)

RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent

d)

Patient marks with X and witness verifies

33.

which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal woman with no history of hysterectomy?

a)

HDL

b)

HIV

c)

HCG

d)

HBV

34.

what is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patient's with urethral strictures

a)

Coude

b)

Pigtail

c)

Bonanno

d)

Iglesias

35.

A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and the aorta does not close is?

a)

Ventricular septal defect

b)

Coarctation of the aorta

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot

d)

Patient's ductus arteriosus

36.

the mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?

a)

Thyriod

b)

parotid

c)

Sublingual

d)

Submandibular

37.

which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?

a)

Adaptic

b)

Kling

c)

Elastoplast

d)

Collodion

38.

which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs withing Hesselbach's Triangle?

a)

Indirect

b)

Hiatal

c)

Femoral

d)

Direct

39.

which of the following incisions are oblique?

a)

Pfannenstiel

b)

Paramedian

c)

Kocher

d)

Epigastric

40.

which of the following dilators are used on the common duct?

a)

Bakes

b)

Pratt

c)

Van Buren

d)

Hegar

41.

which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?

a)

Electrosurgery

b)

Thrombin

c)

Laser

d)

Ligature

42.

The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the?

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Gallbladder

43.

A Brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the?

a)

medulla

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Pons

d)

Diencephalon

44.

what is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Neutralism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

45.

what type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?

a)

Primary

b)

acute

c)

Chronic

d)

Asymptomatic

46.

which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Goldi complex

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

47.

what type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?

a)

Balanced

b)

Spinal

c)

Sedation

d)

Regional

48.

who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?

a)

Surgeon

b)

Nurse

c)

Patient

d)

Guardian

49.

what position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedure?

a)

supine

b)

semi-fowler's

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Trendelenburg

50.

the outer layer of the intestine is the?

a)

submucosa

b)

mucosa

c)

serosa

d)

Muscularis

51.

which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?

a)

chlorhexidine

b)

Lodophor

c)

Avagard

d)

Merthiolate

52.

what type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?

a)

Perineal

b)

Aperture

c)

Extremity

d)

Transverse

53.

which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?

a)

Harmonic

b)

Laser

c)

Bipolar

d)

Monopolar

54.

the Larynx is located between the?

a)

Trachea and bronchi

b)

Nasal cavity and pharynx

c)

Nasal and oral cavities

d)

Pharynx and trachea

55.

The most common cause of retinal detachment is?

a)

Trauma

b)

Aging

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Inflammation

56.

what postoperative complication is associated with total hit arthroplasty?

a)

Compartment syndrome

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Upper extremity weakness

d)

Urinary incontinece

57.

the vocal cords are located in the?

a)

larynx

b)

Pharynx

c)

Trachea

d)

Bronchus

58.

what type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?

a)

Artificial passive

b)

Artificial active

c)

Natural passive

d)

Natural active

59.

when would the anesthesia provider request Cricoid pressure?

a)

Endotracheal extubation

b)

Epidural injection

c)

Endotracheal intubation

d)

Bier Block

60.

which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?

a)

Phacoemulsifier

b)

Oculotome

c)

Westcott

d)

Trephine

61.

which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?

a)

Standard Precautions

b)

Body substance isolation rules

c)

medical device safety act

d)

postexposure prophylaxis

62.

which structures have oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Trachea

c)

Pharynx

d)

Glottis

63.

otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?

a)

ear

b)

nose

c)

eye

d)

Mouth

64.

an injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called?

a)

Liability

b)

Latrogenic

c)

Battery

d)

Tort

65.

the highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the?

a)

Choroid

b)

Macula

c)

Iris

d)

Sclera

66.

which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?

a)

descending thoracic

b)

aortic arch

c)

ascending thoracic

d)

abdominal aortic

67.

the agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is?

a)

ringer's lactate

b)

heparin

c)

thrombin

d)

Protamine sulfate

68.

what is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement?

a)

bone to bone fixation

b)

vessel reanasthemosis

c)

tendon to tendon fixation

d)

nerve Reanasthemosis

69.

what type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?

a)

pedicle

b)

full-thickness

c)

composite

d)

split-thickness

70.

which type of muscle is striated and voluntary?

a)

heart

b)

visceral

c)

skeletal

d)

cardiac

71.

which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?

a)

Ectrosyndactyly

b)

anophthalmia

c)

microtia

d)

Cheiloschisis

72.

which organ causes gas gangrene?

a)

staphylococcus epidermidis

b)

clostridium perfringens

c)

staphylococcus aureus

d)

clostridium botulinum

73.

chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?

a)

Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

b)

iliac crest to iliac crest

c)

nipple to umbilicus

d)

scapula to gluteus maximus

74.

which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?

a)

incus

b)

stapes

c)

malleus

d)

utricle

75.

which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?

a)

Cottingham punch

b)

Kilner hook

c)

Kerrison rongeur

d)

Bowmen probe

76.

a partially dislocated joint is called?

a)

Malrotation

b)

Malunion

c)

Avulsion

d)

Subluxation

77.

what condition is characterized by build-up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?

a)

Embolism

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Arteriospasm

78.

plaster rolls casting should be submerged in which of the following?

a)

lukewarm water

b)

cold saline

c)

lukewarm saline

d)

warm saline

79.

the Avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the?

a)

conjunctiva

b)

pupil

c)

sclera

d)

cornea

80.

which term describes a rod-shaped microorganism?

a)

spirillum

b)

coccus

c)

bacillus

d)

helical

81.

when using a warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?

a)

85

b)

65

c)

55

d)

75

82.

which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?

a)

Respondeat superior

b)

bona fide

c)

Res Ipsa loquitor

d)

assault

83.

the space between the vocal cords is called the?

a)

epiglottis

b)

Glottis

c)

vocal folds

d)

Criciod cartilage

84.

which bacteria can be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Helicobacter pylori

c)

Bacillus anthracis

d)

Treponema pallidum

85.

which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?

a)

Meyerding

b)

love

c)

Taylor

d)

Cushing

86.

what size foley catheter is commonly used for adults?

a)

12Fr

b)

8Fr

c)

24Fr

d)

16 Fr

87.

which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?

a)

Astrocytoma

b)

Meningioma

c)

Oligodendroglioma

d)

Schwannoma

88.

what is the term for thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?

a)

Fimbriae

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Flagella

d)

Mesosomes

89.

how many hours must an item submerse in Glutaraldehyde to sterilize?

a)

7

b)

10

c)

9

d)

8

90.

when a patient's blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to?

a)

systolic

b)

diastolic

c)

Pedal pulse

d)

Apical pressure

91.

a term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is?

a)

Perilymph

b)

sputum

c)

mucous

d)

cerumen

92.

which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?

a)

incus

b)

Vestibule

c)

Labyrinth

d)

pinna

93.

what is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Extravasation

c)

Exsanguination

d)

Evacuation

94.

which of the following may require probing and dilation in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?

a)

Nasolacrimal duct

b)

Sinus Cavities

c)

Eustachian tube

d)

Tympanic membrane

95.

Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamp be specifically used on which of the following structures?

a)

Prostate bland

b)

seminal vesicle

c)

kidney pedicle

d)

bladder neck

96.

the nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the

a)

vomer

b)

septum

c)

ethmoid

d)

Sphenoid

97.

which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?

a)

Randall Forceps

b)

Wire snare

c)

Poole suction

d)

Ellik evacuator

98.

which type of Hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?

a)

Intraventricular

b)

subdural

c)

epidural

d)

Intracerebral

99.

the Bowie-dick test is performed?

a)

daily

b)

hourly

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

100.

the spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the?

a)

Cochlea

b)

Stapes

c)

Vestibule

d)

Labyrinth

101.

which of these conditions is characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?

a)

Strabismus

b)

Chalazion

c)

Pterygium

d)

Ecchymosis

102.

where is a Baker's cyst located?

a)

Olecranon process

b)

popliteal fossa

c)

Greater tubercle

d)

Carpal tunnel

103.

which portion of the ear if affected by Meniere's Syndrome?

a)

Inner

b)

Middle

c)

Eustachian tube

d)

Auditory ossicles

104.

the Cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?

a)

Palatine

b)

Mandible

c)

Hyoid

d)

vomer

105.

the most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism?

a)

Bordetella Pertussis

b)

Clostridium Tetani

c)

Bacillus stearothermophilus

d)

Corynebacterium Diphtheria

106.

which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?

a)

Spinal Stenosis

b)

Myelomeningocele

c)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob

d)

Subdural Hematoma

107.

which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?

a)

Herniation

b)

Rectocele

c)

Cystocele

d)

Enterocele

108.

how many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

18

d)

6

109.

the nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

frontal

c)

maxillary

d)

ethmoid

110.

what degrees Celsius is the sterilization biological indicator incubate?

a)

49-54

b)

61-66

c)

43-38

d)

55-60

111.

which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

intussusception

c)

Omphalocele

d)

Pyloric stenosis

112.

the minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a Prevacuum steam sterilizer is?

a)

270-276

b)

249-255

c)

256-262

d)

263-269

113.

what is the medical term for nosebleed?

a)

Sinusitis

b)

Hemoptysis

c)

epistaxis

d)

Rhinitis

114.

what is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?

a)

Orchiectomy

b)

Hydrocelectomy

c)

Vasectomy

d)

Spermatocelectomy

115.

what is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270F?

a)

15

b)

20

c)

5

d)

10