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Biology Review - 3

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What part did Rudolf Virchow add?

a)

All organisms are composed of 1 or more cells

b)

Cells come from existing cells

c)

All existing cells are produced by other living cells

2.

What parts of the cell theory did Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann?

a)

All organisms are composed of 1 or more cells

b)

Cells come from existing cells

c)

All existing cells are produced by other living cells

3.

Prokaryotic cells have their DNA suspended in cytoplasm and are bacteria cells.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

What type of cell are prokaryotes?

a)

Unicellular

b)

Multicellular

c)

Both

d)

Neither

5.

Eukaryotes are what type of cell?

a)

Unicellular

b)

Multicellular

c)

Both

d)

Neither

6.

 

Eukaryotic Cells are have a nucleus and membrane bound organelles

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Endosymbiotic Theory

a)

About 1.4 billion years ago, prokaryotic cells were "swallowed" by larger cells, but not digested

b)

About 1.5 billion years ago, prokaryotic cells were "swallowed" by larger cells and digested

c)

About 1.4 billion years ago, prokaryotic cells were "swallowed" by larger cells and digested

d)

About 1.5 billion years ago, prokaryotic cells were "swallowed" by larger cells, but not digested

8.

Endosymbiotic Theory

a)

Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are similar in size to bacteria

b)

Some bacteria have a double set of membrane like mitochondria and chloroplast

c)

Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own ribosomes and chromosomes (DNA)

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplast have circular DNA like bacteria

e)

Mitochondria and chloroplast can copy themselves within the cell in which they are found

9.

Phospholipids have a polar head and a nonpolar tail with in the membrane

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Is the cell membrane apart of the cell to cell recognition?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Kind of

11.

Where are you least likely to find water in the structure?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

12.

Which parts of this compound light microscope with clean lenses should be used to improve the quality of the image being observed in the high power field of view.

a)

Diaphragm and fine adjustment knob

b)

Coarse adjustment knob and low power objective

c)

Ocular (eyepiece) and high-power objective

d)

Ocular and diaphragm

13.

What part of microscope regulates the amount of light on the specimen?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Light source

c)

Stage clips

d)

Pointers tip

14.

What part of the microscope is called contains the ocular lens?

a)

Nosepiece

b)

Objective lenses

c)

Eyepiece

d)

Base

15.

What part of the microscope holds the high and low power objective lenses; can be rotated to change magnification?

a)

Eyepiece

b)

Nosepiece

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Eye piece

16.

Never use this objective on high power

a)

Fine

b)

Large

c)

Course

17.

A compound light microscope will use ----- or more lenses at the same time.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

18.

What part of the microscope moves slightly to sharpen the image?

a)

Light source

b)

Stage clips

c)

Fine adjustment knob

d)

Coarse adjustment knob

19.

If you are standing at the bottom of a hill (low) and I have a big boulder that I push to the top of the hill (high), would that be active or passive transport? Why?

a)

Passive because passive molecules move from low to high concentration

b)

Active because active molecules move from low to high concentration

c)

Passive because passive molecules move from high to low concentration

d)

Active because active molecules move from high to low concentration

20.

If you are standing at the top of a hill (high) and I have a big boulder that I let slide to the bottom of the hill (low), would that be active or passive transport? Why?

a)

Passive because passive molecules move from low to high concentration

b)

Active because active molecules move from low to high concentration

c)

Passive because passive molecules move from high to low concentration

d)

Active because active molecules move from high to low concentration

21.

What do you think plants going through plasmolysis look like?

a)

Wilted

b)

Full

c)

Somewhere in between

d)

Other

22.

What would be a "real life" example of diffusion be? (Not something to for with cells)

a)

Doors

b)

Windows

c)

Perfume

d)

Migration

23.

Why can only nonpolar molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane?

a)

Because they don't have a charge

b)

Nonpolar don't interact with water so it can't go through.

c)

Because they have a charge

d)

Polar interacts with water so it can go through.

24.

How many ions does the sodium-potassium pump and where?

a)

2 sodium ions in. 3 potassium ions out.

b)

3 sodium ions in. 2 potassium ions out. ions out.

c)

2 sodium ions out, 3 potassium ions in

d)

3 sodium ions out, 2 potassium ions in

25.

What causes molecules to scatter and collide?

a)

Molecule movement

b)

Concentration

c)

Concentration Gradient

26.

Which of the following moves molecules along the concentration gradient, but does NOT require the help of a membrane protein?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Phagocytosis

e)

Active transport

27.

 

If a person were to hyperventilate and breathe really shallow breaths, there would be a significant

a)

Increase in carbon dioxide in the pulmonary vein

b)

Increase in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood

c)

Decrease in oxygen in the pulmonary artery

d)

Increase in carbon dioxide in the pulmonary artery

28.

The smallest blood vessels are called ____ and this is where oxygen transfers to the bloodstream.

a)

Arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

Veins

29.

In aerobic respiration enzymes and carriers line the membrane of the mitochondria. The electrons move to lower energy levels until the final acceptor arrives which is

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Phosphorus

e)

Carbon dioxide

30.

The brain coordinates responses between systems to maintain homeostasis. Increase levels of physical activity would increase the amount of CO2 in the blood, and the brain would

a)

Urinary system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Immune system

d)

Integumentary system

31.

What body system are platelets a part of?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Circulatory

c)

Digestive

32.

Which statement most accurately describes the process of respiration?

a)

It occurs only in plants during daylight hours and involves ingestion of preformed organic molecules

b)

It occurs only in plants during daylight hours and usually involves an exchange of gases

c)

It occurs continuously in the cells of all organisms and involves the synthesis of organic molecules

d)

It occurs continuously in the cells of all organisms and usually involves an exchange of gases

33.

Three species of bacteria produce different respiratory products. Species A always produces ATP, CO2 and water. Species B always produces ATP, ethyl alcohol, and CO2.S species C always produces oxygen. Why does this take place? (Choose ALL that apply)

a)

Species A and B are anaerobic

b)

Species C is photosynthetic

c)

Species B us anaerobic

d)

Species A is aerobic

34.

Alveoli are surrounded by ___, where oxygen enters the blood and carbon dioxide exits the blood.

a)

arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

veins

d)

lymphatic vessel

35.

A living organism has just been identified as being a heterotopic unicellular eukaryote, living in a dark, anaerobic environment. Identify the characteristics of cell respiration that would further describe this organism.

a)

Converts glucose to lactic acid without producing ATP

b)

Produces oxygen and glucose without making ATP

c)

Produces ethyl alcohol, carbon dioxide, and ATP

d)

Produces glucose and ATP

36.

Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial outer membrane

c)

Mitochondrial inner membrane

d)

Mitochondrial intermembrane space

e)

Mitochondrial matrix

37.

Who actually discovered that chromosomes are made up of DNA?

a)

Rosalind Frankiln

b)

James Watson

c)

Francis Crick

38.

Who was credited for discovering that chromosomes are made up of DNA?

a)

Rosalind Frankiln

b)

James Watson

c)

Francis Crick

39.

Adenine pairs with

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

40.

Cytosine pairs with

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

41.

Guanine pairs with

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

42.

Thymine pairs with

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

43.

DNA is composed of sugar, phosphate, and a base

a)

True

b)

False

44.

DNA is composed of sugar and a base

a)

True

b)

False

45.

DNA bases are adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine

a)

True

b)

False

46.

DNA bases are adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Hydrogen bonds are located between the nitrogen bases.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Run in opposite directions

a)

antiparallel

b)

parallel

49.

Do larger cells move as far as smaller cells

a)

Yes - they have the same speed

b)

No - larger cells are slower

c)

Yes - larger cells are slower

d)

No - they have the same speed

50.

Do you think you could 100% say that a person committed a crime based upon their DNA fingerprint alone?

a)

Yes because someone might have very similar DNA to someone else

b)

No because someone might have very similar fingerprint to someone else

c)

No because someone might have very similar DNA to someone else

d)

Yes because everyone's DNA is unique

51.

The types of enzymes produced in a cell are regulated by the

a)

size of nucleotides in DNA molecules

b)

location of DNA molecules

c)

order of nucleotides in DNA molecules

d)

shape of DNA molecules

52.

When are normal cells programmed to die?

a)

After 48 divisions

b)

After 49 divisions

c)

After 50 divisions

d)

After 51 divisions

e)

After 52 divisions

53.

Do cells have to pass a checkpoint to divide? If yes, what allows them to pass?

a)

No, as long as they have enough nutrients, adequate size, and relatively undamaged DNA, they don't need a checkpoint

b)

No, they don't need anything to pass

c)

Yes, they don't need anything to pass

d)

Yes - enough nutrients, adequate size, and relatively undamaged DNA

54.

What do bases always connect too?

a)

Bases

b)

Sugar

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Phosphates

55.

What does the complementary bond run through?

a)

1'-5'

b)

2'-5'

c)

3'-5'

d)

4'-5'

e)

5'-5'

56.

What would be the weakest part of the hydrogen bond?

a)

Sugar

b)

Nitrogen bases

c)

Phosphate

d)

Hydrogen bond

57.

A chain of amino acids.

a)

Peptide

b)

Polypeptide

c)

Protein

58.

How can you catch a virus?

a)

Exchanging Bodily fluids

b)

Insects and animals

c)

Inhalation

59.

Symptoms of a virus

a)

Low grade fever

b)

Nausea

c)

Loss of appetite

d)

Muscle ache

e)

Fatigue

60.

Are retrovirus easy to create a vaccine for?

a)

Yes

b)

No

61.

Which of the following does bone marrow create?

a)

RBC

b)

WBC

c)

Platelets

62.

Amino acids linked together to form a protein by preforming which type of reaction?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Respiration

c)

Dehydration Synthesis

d)

Hydrolysis

e)

Decomposition

63.

Since the early 1930's and the invention of the electron microscope, scientists have learned a tremendous amount about viruses like Ebola and poliovirus. These scientist would be called

a)

Ecologist

b)

Virologist

c)

Pathologist

d)

Neurologist

64.

Is a virus living or nonliving?

a)

Living

b)

Nonliving

c)

Other

65.

Why is it so difficult to create a vaccine for HIV?

a)

It is hard to get a weakened version

b)

The virus doesn't mutate often

c)

It's easy to create a vaccine

d)

The virus mutates often

66.

What year was Smallpox eradicated?

a)

1977

b)

1978

c)

1979

d)

1980

e)

1981

67.

How can seeds of fruit be dispersed?

a)

Animals

b)

Water

c)

Wind

d)

Rain

68.

Are fruits dry or mature fleshy?

a)

Dry

b)

Fleshy

c)

Both

69.

Is the X chromosome larger than the Y chromosome?

a)

Yes

b)

No - the y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome

70.

What is energy is depicted in?

a)

Kilocalories

b)

Micro calories

c)

Joules

d)

Watts

e)

Calories

71.

An interaction in which one organism captures and feeds on another organisms is called

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Competition

72.

Which would be least likely to be affected by a density-dependent limiting factor?

a)

A large, dense population

b)

A small, scattered population

c)

A population with a high birth rate

d)

A population with a high migration rate

73.

The carrying capacity of a population is the minimum number of individuals that is needed to prevent a population from disappearing.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The organisms on Earth do not run out of raw materials because

a)

Every chain begins with a producer

b)

All populations within a community interact

c)

All raw materials are recycled by various processes in an ecosystem

d)

Energy is passed between organisms as food when one organism feeds on another

75.

Green plants are

a)

Omnivores

b)

Producers

c)

Herbivores

d)

Consumers

76.

Limiting factors determine the maximum number of individuals in a population that can be supported by the environment

a)

True

b)

False

77.

The branch of biology dealing with interactions among and between organisms and their environment is called

a)

Ecology

b)

Economy

c)

Recycling

d)

environmentalism

78.

What is one difference between primary and secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession is slow and secondary succession is rapid

b)

primary succession modifies the environment and secondary succession is not

c)

Secondary succession begins with lichens and primary succession begins with trees

d)

Secondary succession begins on soil and primary succession begins on newly exposed surfaces

71. Multiple-ch

79.

The symbiotic relationship between a flower and the insect that feeds on its nectar is an example of

a)

Predation because the insect feeds on the flower

b)

Parasitism because the insect lives off the nectar from the flower

c)

Mutualism because the flower the flower provides the insect with food, and the insect pollinates the flower

d)

Commensalism because the insect does not harm the q and flower does not benefit from the relationship

80.

The diagram represents a food web. An insecticide is used to destroy most of the leaf beetles. What will most likely happen?

a)

The grasshopper population will have more available food.

b)

The population of large birds will die

c)

Small birds will avoid poisoned insects by preying on frogs

d)

Leaf beetles will multiply rapidly, providing more food for small birds

81.

All of the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food

a)

Web

b)

Chain

c)

Network

d)

Interaction

82.

The combined portions of Earth in which all living things exist is called the

a)

Biome

b)

Biosphere

c)

Population

d)

Atmosphere

83.

Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?

a)

Type of soil in the ecosystem

b)

Average temperature of the ecosystem

c)

Concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem

d)

Number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem

84.

Most protists are what?

a)

Aquatic

b)

Terrestrial

85.

If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population express the recessive phenotype, what frequency of the alleles are dominant?

a)

.3

b)

.42

c)

.49

d)

.7

e)

.09

86.

In a population of starfish, there were 198 out of 400 starfish that had the recessive genotype. After a hurricane, half of the population was wiped out randomly. Only 72 of the remaining 200 starfish had the recessive genotype. What is the frequency of the heterozygotes in each of the populations?

a)

Population 1 = .495 Population 2 = .36

b)

Population 1 = .2964 Population 2 = .4

c)

Population 1 = .0878 Population 2 = .16

d)

Population 1 = .4171 Population 2 = .48

87.

If 98 out of 200 individuals express the recessive phenotype, what percent of the population would you predict the heterozygotes

a)

42%

b)

49%

c)

9%

d)

70%

e)

30%

88.

A flower with the following genotype self pollinates: AaBbDDee What is the chance that it will produce an offspring with AaBbDDEe genotype?

a)

1/256

b)

1/16

c)

1/2

d)

1/4

e)

0

89.

Petal color in snapdragon is inherited as a result of incomplete dominance. A red snapdragon is crossed with a white snapdragon. In the F2 generation, plants were counted according to their flower color. There were 30 red, 65 pink, and 21 white flower plants. What was the value if chi squared for the F2 generation?

a)

.0345

b)

.8448

c)

2.2069

d)

3.0862

e)

None of the above

90.

A flower with the following genotype self pollinates: AaBbDDee. What is the chance that it will produce an offspring with AAbbDDee?

a)

1/16

b)

0

c)

1/4

d)

1/2

e)

1/8

91.

A snapdragon with the following genotype self pollinates. AaBbDdEeGg. What is the chance that it will produce an offspring that is heterozygous for all of the traits?

a)

1/32

b)

1/1024

c)

1/256

d)

1/16

e)

0

92.

What is the probability that two parents, one who is homozygous dominant and one who is heterozygous; to have an offspring that is a carrier for a recessive trait?

a)

0%

b)

100%

c)

50%

d)

25%

93.

A man of AB blood type marries a woman who is also type AB blood. What is the chance that they will have a CHILD with type A blood?

a)

75%

b)

100%

c)

50%

d)

25%

94.

Two flowers are crossed with each of the following genotypes: AaBbDdEeGg x aabbDdeeGg. What is the chance they will produce an offspring that is homozygous recessive for all of the traits?

a)

1/32

b)

1/1024

c)

1/256

d)

1/64

e)

1/128

95.

Freckles, Dimples, Widow's Peak

a)

Codominance

b)

Polygenic

c)

Complete dominance

d)

Incomplete dominance

96.

Skin Color, Hair Color, Intelligence

a)

Codominance

b)

Polygenic

c)

Complete dominance

d)

Incomplete dominance

97.

A poker-dealing machine is supposed to deal cards are random, as if from an infinite deck. In a test, you counted 1600 cards, and observed the following:

Spades: 406

Hearts: 418

Diamonds: 406

Clubs: 370

What is the chi squared value?

(a)