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imaging 15 and 16 jeopardy

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Radiographic technique can be described by identifying which of the three factors

a)

patient

b)

image quality

c)

photographic

d)

exposure technique

2.

Thickness, composition and pathology are a part of which factor

a)

image quality

b)

photographic

c)

exposure technique

d)

patient

3.

This is the general size of a patient

a)

body size

b)

body habitus

c)

body shape

d)

sthenic

4.

The technique on most operating consoles is based on which body type

a)

asthenic

b)

hyposthenic

c)

hypersthenic

d)

sthenic

5.

These patients are thin but healthy

a)

asthenic

b)

hyposthenic

c)

hypersthenic

d)

sthenic

6.

this refers to the fidelity with which the anatomical structure that is being examined is imaged on the radiograph

a)

image contrast

b)

spatial resolution

c)

image quality

d)

image distortion

7.

the ability to image two separate objects and visually distinguish one from the other

a)

contrast

b)

detail

c)

spatial resolution

d)

patient contrast

8.

This is when the objects on the image are larger than the objects that they represent

a)

magnification

b)

minification

c)

size distortion

d)

shape distortion

9.

This is unequal magnification of different portions of the same objects that they represent

a)

size distortion

b)

magnification

c)

minification

d)

shape distortion

10.

This is reduction in image size due to angle or inclination of the object

a)

elongation

b)

foreshortening

c)

magnification

d)

size distortion

11.

An image that is made to appear longer than it really is because of the incline of the object is not located on the central beam

a)

foreshortening

b)

elongation

c)

magnification

d)

size distortion

12.

This is a radiograph that faithfully reproduces structure and tissues

a)

high detail image

b)

high spatial resolution image

c)

high contrast image

d)

high quality image

13.

The most important characteristics of radiographic quality are

a)

spatial resolution

b)

contrast resolution

c)

noise

d)

artifacts

14.

Refers to the ability to image small objects that have high subject contrast such as bone-soft tissue

a)

spatial resolution

b)

spatial contrast

c)

part resolution

d)

part contrast

15.

This is the random fluctuation in the optical density of the image

a)

contrast

b)

ghost image

c)

noise

d)

artifacts

16.

lower noise results in improved

a)

spatial resolution

b)

detail

c)

magnification

d)

contrast resolution

17.

Radiographic contrast is the product of what two separate factors?

a)

image receptor

b)

tube angulation

c)

subject contrast

d)

CR alignment

18.

If the optical density differences are small and are not distinct the radiograph is of a _____ contrast

a)

high

b)

low

19.

This is determined by the size, shape and x-ray attenuating characteristics of the anatomy that is being imaged and the energy of the x-ray beam

a)

subject detail

b)

spatial resolution

c)

subject contrast

d)

spatial contrast

20.

more matter more_____

a)

contrast

b)

detail

c)

exposure to patient

d)

scatter

21.

The most commonly used method of restricting the primary beam field size is

a)

cone

b)

cylinder

c)

collimator

d)

diaphragm

22.

Which of the following are image quality factors

a)

image detail

b)

distortion

c)

contrast

d)

artifacts

23.

This is the language of radiography

a)

patient positioning

b)

image quality factors

c)

patient quality factors

d)

technique

24.

What are the two categories of image detail

a)

sharpness

b)

contrast

c)

detail

d)

visibility

25.

increasing SID has what effect on magnification

a)

increases it proportionatly

b)

increases it

c)

decreases it

d)

nothing

26.

What is the formula for magnification factor

a)

MF= SOD/SID

b)

MF= SID/SOD

c)

MF= SID X SOD

d)

MF= 1/2SID X SOD^2

27.

What two factors minimize magnification

a)

small OID

b)

large OID

c)

small SID

d)

large SID

28.

What conditions contribute to image distortion

a)

object thickness

b)

object position

c)

object age

d)

object shape

29.

thick objects are more or less distorted than thin objects

a)

more

b)

less

30.

In order to reduce distortion, the object plane and the image plane should be_______

a)

perpendicular

b)

parallel

c)

at right angles from eachother

31.

a thick body part attenuates _____ number of x-rays than a thin body part

a)

the same

b)

more

c)

less

32.

how can we minimize the amount of scatter that reaches the IR?

a)

use a grid

b)

use filters

c)

restrict the size of the beam

d)

increase your kVp

33.

where are grids placed

a)

between the tube and the patient

b)

under the IR

c)

between the patient and the IR

d)

between the IR and the table

34.

This is the most important influencing factor for subject contrast and can be controlled by the technologist

a)

mA

b)

grid

c)

scatter

d)

kVp

35.

a low kVp results in ____ subject contrast

a)

low

b)

high

c)

kVp does not affect contrast

36.

movement of the patient during the x-ray exposure results in

a)

higher patient dose

b)

higher tech dose

c)

motion blur

d)

low contrast

37.

This is the main cause of motion blur

a)

wrong exposure time

b)

tech movement

c)

patient movement

d)

tube overload

38.

voluntary and involuntary are types of

a)

patient movement

b)

contrast

c)

directions

d)

technique

39.

All exposure times should be

a)

as short as possible

b)

as long as possible so as to reduce patient dose

c)

as short as possible to reduce patient dose

d)

as short as possible to reduce motion

40.

A high kVp results in a greater

a)

quality

b)

penetrability

c)

patient dose

d)

SNR

41.

a high kVp causes increased ____ resulting in reduced contrast

a)

quality

b)

quantity

c)

wavelength

d)

scatter

42.

What is the primary controller of optical density (OD)

a)

kVp

b)

mAs

c)

SID

d)

OID

43.

How does increasing mAs affect quantity

a)

increases it

b)

increases it x4

c)

decreases it

d)

decreases it by half

44.

what affect does a high mAs have on noise

a)

nothing

b)

increases it

c)

decreases it

45.

as kVp increases what happens to photoelectric effect

a)

nothing

b)

increases

c)

decreases

46.

as kVp is increased, what happens to compton scatter

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

nothing

47.

As kVp is increased what happens to the number of photons that reach the IR

a)

NOTHING

b)

INCREASE

c)

DECREASE

48.

As kVp is increased what happens what happens to the number of photons that interact with matter

a)

nothing

b)

increase

c)

decrease

49.

an increase in kVp creates what scale of contrast

a)

short scale

b)

high contrast

c)

long scale

50.

the thicker the tissue the ____ the kVp that is necessary

a)

lower

b)

greater

c)

kVp is not affected

51.

when more photons are absorbed in the tissue what is the affect on the IR exposure

a)

increased

b)

decreased

c)

no effect

52.

If I increase kVp by 5%, what do I do to mAs in order to maintain exposure to the IR

a)

reduce it by half

b)

reduce it by 15%

c)

reduce it by 30%

d)

increase it

53.

we use this item to measure our body part thickness

a)

ruler

b)

eyeball it

c)

caliper

d)

stick

54.

In order to determine technique, where should I measure body part thickness

a)

at the ASIS

b)

at the cephalic end

c)

where the CR enters

d)

at the thickest part

55.

A chest has what type of subject contrast

a)

low

b)

high

56.

An abdomen has what type of subject contrast

a)

low

b)

high

57.

What are the two classifications of pathology

a)

invasive

b)

contagious

c)

destructive

d)

constructive

58.

osteoporosis is what type of pathology

a)

constructive

b)

destructive

c)

additive

d)

invasive

59.

destructive pathologies are more____

a)

radiopaque

b)

radiolucent

c)

invasive

d)

contagious

60.

additive pathologies are more

a)

radiopaque

b)

radiolucent

c)

damaging

d)

contagious

61.

Which of the following are types of image artifacts

a)

IR

b)

Software

c)

Object

d)

Technologist error