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Worksheets

SP II - Final Quiz

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Various types of stirrups and leg holders will be used to place the patient in the _______ position.

a)

Supine

b)

Fowler's

c)

Prone

d)

Lithotomy

2.

Positioning for a total abdominal hysterectomy procedure would be ________.

a)

Supine

b)

Fowler's

c)

Prone

d)

Lithotomy

3.

A(n) ______ is frequently used for abdominal approaches but may not be used for vaginal approaches.

a)

OR table

b)

Back table

c)

Mayo stand

d)

Set of stirrups

4.

The progress of the labor process is defined by _____ stages.

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

5.

Auvard, Graves, and Sims are all examples of _______.

a)

Abdominal retractors

b)

Hysterectomy clamps

c)

Vaginal retractors

d)

Penetrating tenaculums

6.

Normal contractions not associated with progressive cervical dilation ("false labor") are commonly referred to as ______.

a)

Braxton Hicks

b)

Cervical effacement

c)

Gravidity

d)

Fetal presentation

7.

Shirodkar's procedure is also known as a ______.

a)

Hysterectomy

b)

Cervical cerclage

c)

Tuboplasty

d)

Tubal sterilization

8.

The ST should learn how to ______ to assist in the delivery of the infant from the uterus during a cesarean section.

a)

Apply cricoid pressure

b)

Perform the Heimlich maneuver

c)

Apply fundal pressure

d)

Perform the Valsalva maneuver

9.

Meconium-stained fluid may require suction with a ______ suction catheter.

a)

Poole

b)

Frazier

c)

De Lee

d)

Baron

10.

____ are fingerlike projections at the terminal end of the fallopian tube that guide oocytes released by the ovaries into the tube’s lumen.

a)

Isthmus

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Ampulla

11.

Microscopic surgical resection and anastomosis of the fallopian tube is called a(n) _______.

a)

Salpingotomy

b)

Tubal sterilization

c)

Tuboplasty

d)

Salpingectomy

12.

During Schiller's test, _____ is applied to the cervical tissue. Tissue that remains brown in color is normal and the tissue that does not stain is abnormal.

a)

Lugol's solution

b)

Acetic acid

c)

Monsel's solution

d)

Hyskon

13.

The _____ is the area between the inferior vaginal opening and anus.

a)

Vulva

b)

Vestibule

c)

Perineum

d)

Cervix

14.

During a cesarean section, the patient will be positioned supine with roll placed under the ____ to reduce the uterine pressure on the vena cava.

a)

Left hip

b)

Right hip

c)

Shoulders

d)

Knees

15.

During a c-section, _____ may be injected into the uterus to help with hemostasis secondary to contraction.

a)

Hyskon

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Thrombin

d)

Oxytocin

16.

The ____ technique is most often used for tubal sterilization since it provides the best potential for tuboplasty.

a)

Irving

b)

Kroener

c)

Parkland

d)

Pomeroy

17.

Following tuboplasty, a dye study using ______ is often conducted to ensure luminal patency.

a)

Indigo carmine

b)

Omnipaque

c)

Monsel's solution

d)

Acetic acid

18.

Following abdominopelvic surgery, irrigation with _____ helps keep tissues separated for several days, thus reducing adhesions and scar tissue formation.

a)

Saline solution

b)

Dextran solution

c)

Sorbitol solution

d)

Acetic acid

19.

_____ is/are characterized by steel-gray or black cysts that bleed at time of menses.

a)

Bartholin's cysts

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Cervical polyps

d)

Leiomyomas

20.

Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal vault is called a(n) ______.

a)

Rectocele

b)

Sacrocolpopexy

c)

Cystocele

d)

Enterocele

21.

_____ is a misalignment or deviation of the eyes.

a)

Entropion

b)

Strabismus

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Cataracts

22.

_____ means “wall eyes.”

a)

Exotropia

b)

Esotropia

c)

Hypotropia

d)

Hypertropia

23.

A(n) ____ uses localized cold temperature to seal tears and holes in the retina.

a)

Diathermy unit

b)

Cryotherapy unit

c)

Argon laser

d)

Phacoemulsification machine

24.

Extra care should be taken to keep ____ off the instruments and sterile field to help to prevent formation of post-operative granuloma in the eye.

a)

BSS

b)

Lint

c)

Saline

d)

Prep solution

25.

A(n) ______ is a small lump on the inner or outer surface of the eyelid caused by a blocked Meibomian gland.

a)

Entropion

b)

Ectropion

c)

Chalazion

d)

Lacrimal sac

26.

Raised the intraocular pressure (IOP) creates the condition known as _____.

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Cataracts

d)

Corneal dystrophy

27.

The ______ membrane encloses the whole of the vitreous humor.

a)

Hyaloid

b)

Macula

c)

Cataract

d)

Ciliary

28.

The _____ makes up the inner tunic of the globe and is the nervous membrane on which light and images are received.

a)

Sclera

b)

Choroid

c)

Retina

d)

Ciliary body

29.

A _____ procedure is performed for the treatment of retinal detachments.

a)

Keratoplasty

b)

Scleral buckle

c)

Iridectomy

d)

Dacryocystorhinostomy

30.

A ____ is placed through the canaliculus for reapproximation when repairing a traumatic eyelid laceration.

a)

Veirs rod

b)

Weck-Cell

c)

Fragmatome

d)

Hydroxyapatite implant

31.

The tympanic membrane is the separation between the ____ and ____ ear.

a)

Pinna; outer

b)

Outer; inner

c)

Outer; middle

d)

Middle; inner

32.

Infection that has not been cleared from the middle ear may be forced into the _____ through the antrum.

a)

Mastoid air cells

b)

Oval window

c)

Facial nerve

d)

Bony labyrinth

33.

Each nasal cavity has a series of four bony projections called turbinates (also called ____).

a)

Maxilla

b)

Conchae

c)

Sinuses

d)

Septums

34.

____ is a congenital defect caused by the failure of the nasopharyngeal septum to rupture during embryonic development.

a)

Choanal atresia

b)

Deviated septum

c)

Chronic sinusitis

d)

Allergic rhinitis

35.

What is the name of this instrument?

a)

Barnhill adenoid curette

b)

La Force adenotome

c)

Fisher tonsil knife

d)

Hurd dissector

36.

____ sinuses are located between the eyes and have a honeycomb appearance.

a)

Maxillary

b)

Frontal

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Ethmoid

37.

Caldwell-Luc is contraindicated in _____ patients prior to the descent of the permanent teeth.

a)

Pregnant

b)

Pediatric

c)

Geriatric

d)

Bariatric

38.

_____ is an examination used to diagnose sleep apnea and determine its severity

a)

MRI

b)

Polysomnography

c)

Videostroboscopy

d)

CT

39.

_____ occurs when there is a bony overgrowth of the stapes.

a)

Otosclerosis

b)

Mastoiditis

c)

Cholesteatoma

d)

Otitis media

40.

The major portion of the tympanic membrane is fibrous tissue called the ___.

a)

Umbo

b)

Pars tensa

c)

Pars flaccida

d)

Annulus

41.

A common composite graft for mandibular reconstruction is made from the patient's own ______.

a)

Fibula

b)

Femur

c)

Humerus

d)

Ulna

42.

What is the name of this instrument?

a)

McIvor mouth gag

b)

Lothrop uvula retractor

c)

Weider tongue depressor

d)

Trosseau tracheal dilator

43.

An f = 400 lens is commonly used when operating the _____.

a)

Navigation system

b)

Operating microscope

c)

Endoscopic sinuscope

d)

Flexible laryngoscope

44.

SMR stands for ______.

a)

Septal mucosal repair

b)

Submucous resection

c)

Simple mastoid resection

d)

Sinus mucous removal

45.

During a ______, the gingiva above the canine tooth and second molar is incised

a)

Radical neck dissection

b)

Septoplasty

c)

Caldwell-Luc procedure

d)

FESS surgery

46.

For plain x-rays, the ____ view requires the patient to sit or stand upright and hyperextend the neck.

a)

Caldwell

b)

Basal

c)

Waters

d)

Panoramic

47.

_____ is the abnormal alignment of the teeth of the upper jaw with those of the lower jaw.

a)

Reduction

b)

Orthognathic

c)

Malocclusion

d)

Symphysis

48.

What is the name of this instrument?

a)

Plastic cheek retractor

b)

Wieder tongue depressor

c)

Minnesota retractor

d)

Bone hook

49.

The ____ of the tooth is the portion below the gumline.

a)

Crown

b)

Root

c)

Neck

d)

Body

50.

_____ involves resection of the soft tissue and excision of the bone surrounding the tooth prior to removal of the tooth.

a)

Dental rehabilitation

b)

Incision and drainage

c)

Simple extraction

d)

Odontectomy

51.

When performing oral surgery, the CST should precoat the dental mirror with ______ solution.

a)

Saline

b)

Betadine

c)

Antifog

d)

Antiseptic

52.

The four front teeth used to tear food are known as _____.

a)

Incisors

b)

Cuspids

c)

Bicuspids

d)

Molars

53.

_____ bone is from a cadaver and is obtained from a bone bank.

a)

Synthetic

b)

Xenograft

c)

Autogenous

d)

Homogeneous

54.

The _____ bones meet inferior to the nasal septum to form the upper jaw.

a)

Mandibular

b)

Maxillary

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Frontal

55.

Wire is tightened in a _____ manner during application of arch bars.

a)

Clockwise

b)

Counter-clockwise

56.

To prepare the wire for the application of arch bars, cut segments slightly longer than needed—approximately ____ cm.

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

57.

Each orbit consists of _____ craniofacial bones.

a)

Four

b)

Seven

c)

Eight

d)

Fourteen

58.

There are ______ facial bones.

a)

Four

b)

Seven

c)

Eight

d)

Fourteen

59.

LeFort ___, called transverse maxillary, is the most common type of mid-facial fracture.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

60.

In LeFort ___, the fracture line extends transversely from the zygomatic arches, through the orbits, and to the base of the nose.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

61.

What is the name of this instrument?

a)

Drum-type dermatome

b)

Dermamesher

c)

Handheld knife dermatome

d)

Oscillating-blade dermatome

62.

____ involve removing the epidermis and approximately half of the dermis for relocation to another part of the body.

a)

Split-thickness skin grafts

b)

Full-thickness skin grafts

c)

Pedicle flaps

d)

Free flaps

63.

The ____ consists of adipose (fat) and loose connective tissue providing insulation and protection to the internal organs.

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Subcutaneous layer

d)

Integumentary

64.

______ glands are the oil-producing glands.

a)

Sudoriferous

b)

Sebaceous

c)

Apocrine

d)

Ceruminous

65.

______ burns affect just the epidermis and are characterized by erythema.

a)

First-degree

b)

Second-degree

c)

Third-degree

d)

Fourth-degree

66.

Each digit, or finger, is made up of a series of _____.

a)

Carpals

b)

Metacarpals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Tarsals

67.

The head of each metacarpal articulates with one of the phalanges creating a(n) _____ joint.

a)

IPJ

b)

MPJ

c)

MIJ

d)

PPJ

68.

The nerves that serve the forearm and the hand are all branches of nerves from the ______ plexus.

a)

Ulnar

b)

Brachial

c)

Radial

d)

Clavicular

69.

_____: refers to thumb side of the hand.

a)

Ulnar

b)

Brachial

c)

Radial

d)

Clavicular

70.

Almost ___ muscles and their coordinating tendons are responsible

for movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers.

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

71.

During replantation of a digit, the order of anastomosis is as follows:

a)

Tendon-tendon, bone-bone, nerve-nerve, vessel-vessel

b)

Nerve-nerve, vessel-vessel, tendon-tendon, bone-bone

c)

Bone-bone, tendon-tendon, vessel-vessel, nerve-nerve

d)

Vessel-vessel, bone-bone, tendon-tendon, nerve-nerve

72.

In _____, tightening of the palmar fascia causes deformity and contractures of the dermis and/or digits.

a)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

Trigger finger

c)

Dupuytren’s contracture

d)

Radial dysplasia

73.

_____ dysplasia is commonly referred to as "club hand."

a)

Ulnar

b)

Brachial

c)

Humeral

d)

Radial

74.

Surgical fixation of a joint to relieve pain and provide support is called ______.

a)

Augmentation

b)

Arthrodesis

c)

Diarthrosis

d)

Synthesis

75.

Red vessel loops are used to identify _____.

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Nerves

d)

Ducts

76.

White vessel loops are used to identify ______.

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Nerves

d)

Cysts

77.

Webbed digits; congenital abnormality that occurs when the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate.

a)

Polydactyly

b)

Syndactyly

c)

Oligodactyly

d)

Macrodactyly

78.

An incision made into the fold of the underside of the breast is called a _____ incision.

a)

Periareolar

b)

Umbilical

c)

Transaxillary

d)

Inframammary

79.

A TRAM flap is an example of a _____ flap.

a)

Split-thickness

b)

Free

c)

Pedicle

d)

Synthetic

80.

______ means sagging, drooping, or excess relaxation in skin elasticity.

a)

Traction

b)

Ptosis

c)

Contracture

d)

Pigmentation