WorksheetsPMI ACP SG NOKIA Agile Extra 45 Qns
Total questions: 45
Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Lisa is describing the four Agile Manifesto values to her co-workers. Of the following, which response lists two of the four values?
a)
Customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and 2) Responding to change over following a plan.
b)
Customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and 2) Following a plan over responding to change.
c)
Contract negotiation over customer collaboration, and 2) Responding to change over following a plan.
d)
Teams and interactions over processes and tools, 2) Working software over comprehensive documentation
2.
Lisa is describing the four Agile Manifesto values to her co-workers. Which response lists two of the four values?
a)
Team member collaboration over contract negotiation, and 2) Responding to change over following a plan.
b)
Individuals and interactions over processes and tools, 2) Working software over comprehensive documentation
c)
Teams and interactions over processes and tools, 2) Working software over comprehensive documentation
d)
Customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and 2) Following a plan over responding to change.
3.
Which of the following is the best definition of brainstorming?
a)
A collaborative activity held for the purpose of reviewing user stories.
b)
An individual exercise performed for the purpose of generating ideas.
c)
A collaborative activity held for the purpose of generating ideas.
d)
A formal meeting led by a project leader to introduce previously defined ideas.
4.
Select a technique that promotes agile 'knowledge sharing.'
a)
A high specialized team
b)
A team composed of generalized specialists
c)
A uni-functional team
d)
A monolithic team
5.
Which of the following lists a key agile project management characteristic?
a)
Incremental development of products and services
b)
A singular-dimensioned team consisting of highly specialized experts all of the same skill
c)
Short iterations and the use of baselines for strict schedule and budget control
d)
Detailed change management processes
6.
Juan is listening to an agile project management brief at the annual agile capstone conference. The speaker's topic is empowered teams. What does an empowered team mean?
a)
A team that is self-organizing, cross-functional and can manage itself with little external influence.
b)
A team that is profit-oriented and focused solely on meeting cost and schedule constraints.
c)
A team that relies on external management to give it direction.
d)
A team that is capable of exceeding sustainable development velocities in "power" iterations to meet backlog goals.
7.
Which of the following is the best definition of 'feedback technique?'
a)
A technique used in extreme programming to provide criticism of coding syntax.
b)
A technique that facilitates constructive criticism to improve product quality and value.
c)
A technique used in paired programming to provide criticism of coding syntax.
d)
A technique that facilitates ever increasing amounts of spectral magnitude.
8.
Of the following responses, which is NOT a community value per the PMI agile community of practice community charter?
a)
Adaptability
b)
Leading Change
c)
Openness
d)
Commandeering
9.
What phase do both Highsmith's agile project management and traditional project management share?
a)
Speculating
b)
Closing
c)
Adapting
d)
Executing
10.
Select the first phase of Jim Highsmith's agile project management model.
a)
Envisioning
b)
Closing
c)
Adapting
d)
Exploring
11.
Jerry has just entered Highsmith's agile project management closing phase. What are he and his team focusing on?
a)
Completing all outstanding project work, like recording lessons learned and performing other tasks with the product release
b)
Making adjustments to the feature breakdown structure specification
c)
Adapting product features to customer feedback
d)
Adapting project plans for the next iteration
12.
As project leader of an agile effort, in Highsmith's agile project management adapting phase you are expected to make adjustments. What are some of the types of adjustments that a project leader may perform in the adapting phase?
a)
Adjustments to the cost sheet
b)
Adjustments to any team dynamics, like handling problems raised by team members
c)
Adjustments to the feature breakdown structure specification
d)
Adjustments to software licenses
13.
While Gerald is discussing to Lisa his take on the most prominent risks the project is facing, Lisa uses encouraging body language. What type of listening technique is Lisa using?
a)
Excited
b)
Alert
c)
Tuned
d)
Active
14.
Ryan as project leader, has been discussing the importance of 'stakeholder management' with his team. Why is stakeholder management so important?
a)
An agile project relies on the monitoring and controlling of stakeholders.
b)
An agile project relies on active participation from its stakeholders.
c)
An agile project relies on the absence of participation of stakeholders.
d)
An agile project relies on the intermittent participation of stakeholders.
15.
Which of the following is the best definition of 'feedback?'
a)
A maturing process where future innovation is taken into consideration.
b)
A dynamic process where past information influences the future behavior of the same process.
c)
An evolving process where past information is disregarded.
d)
A static process where future information stagnates the previous behavior of the same process.
16.
What is the ideal team member location in the agile framework?
a)
Distributed
b)
Isolation
c)
Collocation
d)
Separation
17.
How is continuous improvement built into the agile framework?
a)
Through strict adherence to the agile project standards defined at the beginning of a project.
b)
Through the use of overtime to meet deadlines earlier than planned.
c)
Through demonstrating a working product only at the end of a release.
d)
Through listening and responding to customer feedback after each iteration.
18.
Which framework is adapted from the unified process (UP) for use in agile?
a)
Agile unified process (AUP)
b)
Extreme unified process (EUP)
c)
Simple unified process (SUP)
d)
Adapted unified process (AdUP)
19.
Sarah is a scrum master for an agile project. She practices using open-ended questions with her team to promote idea generation. The use of open ended questions is a…
a)
Facilitation method
b)
Crystal method
c)
Passive listening method
d)
Dynamic product development method (DPDM)
20.
What is the difference between aspirational and mandatory standards, as referred to in the PMI Code?
a)
Aspirational standards are not mandatory but good practice and encouraged.
b)
Aspirational standards are backed by federal law and mandatory backed by state and local law.
c)
Aspirational standards are enforced by state law and mandatory standards are backed by federal law.
d)
Both are compulsory standards and backed by law.
21.
Becky, as project leader, intends on building a high-performance team. What is a practice she should follow to build a high-performance team?
a)
Using overtime to incentivize the team to delivery early
b)
Building in pressure
c)
Empowering the customer
d)
Having the right team members (i.e., a cross-functional team)
22.
What agile artifact outlines the project's vision?
a)
Kanban board
b)
Business case
c)
Product backlog
d)
Scope document
23.
What is Cohn's definition of product knowledge?
a)
Intrinsic knowledge of the product domain and industry
b)
Knowledge about what the threshold features are about a product.
c)
Extrinsic knowledge of the product domain and industry
d)
Knowledge about what features will or will not be developed in a project
24.
Select a common agile framework/methodology.
a)
Sprint
b)
Scrum
c)
LP
d)
PMI
25.
Which of the following best describes the crystal framework?
a)
A technical approach that can be used in the agile framework that is a family of methodologies for flexible and lightweight software development.
b)
A technical approach that can be used in the agile framework that focuses on simple design and constant testing.
c)
A technical approach that can be used in the agile framework that focuses on the elimination of waste and amplification of learning.
d)
A technical approach that can be used in the agile framework that focuses on paired programming and integrated testing.
26.
What is the process called when a team constructively criticizes its performance for the purpose of improving performance going forward?
a)
Reflection
b)
Refactoring
c)
Returning
d)
Reimaging
27.
Which agile framework emphasizes a heavy focus on proving the 'fitness' or marketability of a product (i.e., has a strong business emphasis)?
a)
Static systems development method (SSDM)
b)
Extreme systems development method (XSDM)
c)
Dynamic systems development method (DSDM)
d)
Dynamic product development method (DPDM)
28.
Which software development framework stresses the use of 'metaphor' to describe concepts?
a)
Ultra programming (UP)
b)
Paired programming (PP)
c)
Peer perfect programming (3P)
d)
Extreme programming (XP)
29.
Which software development framework used in agile uses a prescriptive model where the development process is planned, managed, and tracked by feature?
a)
Acceptance test driven development (ATDD)
b)
Test driven development (TDD)
c)
Feature driven development (FDD)
d)
Defect driven development (3D)
30.
How do high-performance teams approach conflict?
a)
Know that conflict is inevitable and approach conflict with an open mind knowing that it can manage conflict itself.
b)
Take an anonymous vote among team members to identify which team members should leave the project.
c)
Avoid talking about or dealing with conflict, knowing that that all problems will eventually pass.
d)
Know that all conflict is completely self-imposed and the best course of action is to ignore conflict until it goes away.
31.
What term is often used to describe complex adaptive systems (CAS)?
a)
Chaordic
b)
Entropic
c)
Facile
d)
Static
32.
Mark's agile team is geographically dispersed throughout the world. What is one factor the team should consider when conducting its business?
a)
Whether or not to demonstrate the product at the end of each iteration.
b)
Whether or not to have daily stand-up meetings.
c)
Whether or not to consider time zone differences when scheduling meetings.
d)
Whether or not to perform continuous testing and integration.
33.
When an agile team authors documents to conform with local or federal regulations it is known as?
a)
Risk-aversion compliance
b)
Mandatory compliance
c)
Documentation compliance
d)
Regulatory compliance
34.
When a non-agile company migrates to an agile framework what is often the most challenging task?
a)
Changing company culture
b)
Changing communication styles from top-down to face-to-face
c)
Changing the mindset from following rigid plans to adapting to change
d)
Changing project status meetings to daily stand-ups
35.
Describe the type of organizational compliance an agile team upholds itself to when hired by an independent organization.
a)
The agile team ignores the organization's code of ethics and conduct.
b)
The agile team complies with the organization's code of ethics and conduct.
c)
The agile team follows its own code of ethics and conduct.
d)
The agile team chooses what to comply with of the organization's code of ethics and conduct.
36.
Ron is setting up control limits using a Shewhart control chart for his agile project. What control limit is typically used on a Shewhart control chart?
a)
Six-sigma
b)
One-sigma
c)
Three-sigma
d)
Five-sigma
37.
Which agile framework uses an Exploratory 360 in its formal chartering process?
a)
AUP
b)
DSDM
c)
Crystal
d)
XP
38.
What does the earned value management (EVM) accounting variable 'CPI' measure?
a)
The cost performance index is a ratio of earned value over actual cost.
b)
The cost performance indicator is a ratio of expected value over actual cost.
c)
The cost performance index is a ratio of actual cost over earned value.
d)
The cost performance indicator is a ratio of actualized cost over expected value.
39.
Which agile framework emphasizes the practice of using a 40-hour work week?
a)
XP
b)
Scrum
c)
Agile unified process (AUP)
d)
DSDM
40.
Which software development framework has a development process that is planned, managed, and tracked by feature?
a)
Acceptance test driven development (ATDD)
b)
Defect driven development (3D)
c)
Test driven development (TDD)
d)
Feature driven development (FDD)
41.
Which type of contract is the least suitable for the agile development method?
a)
Time and materials
b)
Fixed-price
c)
Cost-reimbursable
d)
Not-to-exceed with fixed-fee
42.
What popular agile game is used to estimate the relative effort of developing user stories?
a)
Planning poker
b)
Story point poker
c)
Point poker
d)
Poker
43.
What does the earned value management (EVM) accounting variable 'SPI' measure?
a)
The schedule performance index is a ratio of expected value over planned value.
b)
The schedule performance index is a ratio of earned value over planned value.
c)
The schedule performance index is a ratio of planned value over earned value.
d)
The schedule performance index is a ratio of planned value over expected value.
44.
Which agile framework emphasizes the always having a product that you could potentially ship/release?
a)
XP
b)
FDD
c)
Crystal
d)
Scrum
45.
In which agile framework is the customer referred to as the "product owner?"
a)
Extreme programming (XP)
b)
Agile unified process (AUP)
c)
Scrum
d)
Lean software development
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