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Glime Unit 2

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

a)

An aircraft is decelerated while on a East or West heading

b)

A left turn is entered from a west heading

c)

An aircraft is accelerated while on an East or West heading

2.

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

a)

Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass

b)

Difference in the location between true north & magnetic north

c)

Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

3.

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate

a)

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight

b)

As long as the airspeed is constant

c)

During turns if the bank doesn’t exceed 18°

4.

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

a)

A northerly turning error

b)

Certain metals & electrical within the aircraft

c)

The difference in location of true north & magnetic north

5.

In the northern hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, this magnetic compass will normally indicate

a)

A turn momentarily

b)

Correctly when on a North or South heading

c)

An aircraft is accelerated while on a North heading

6.

In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

a)

A left turn is entered from a North heading

b)

A right turn entered in from a North heading

c)

An aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading

7.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

a)

A left turn is entered from an East heading

b)

A right turn from a West Heading

c)

The aircraft is decelerating while on a west heading

8.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere

a)

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left

b)

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but a faster rate than us actually occurring

c)

The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane

9.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

a)

An aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading

b)

An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading

c)

A left turn is entered from a north heading

10.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument

a)

Altimeter

b)

Vertical-speed indicator

c)

Airspeed Indicator

11.

Which instrument will become inoperative of the pitot tube becomes clogged

a)

Altimeter

b)

VSI

c)

Airspeed Indicator

12.

If the pitot tube & outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected

a)

Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator, turn-slip indicator

b)

Altimeter, airspeed indicator, & VSI

c)

Altimeter, attitude indicator, & turn-slip indicator

13.

Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged

a)

Airspeed Indicator Only

b)

Altimeter Only

c)

Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, & VSI

14.

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators

a)

Never-exceed Speed

b)

Maximum Structural Cruising Speed

c)

Maneuvering Speed

15.

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent

a)

Maneuvering Speed

b)

Turbulent or Rough Air Speed

c)

Never-exceed speed

16.

What is the caution range of an airplane

a)

0-60 kts

b)

100-165 kts

c)

165-208 kts

17.

The maximum speed @ which the airplane can operated in smooth air is

a)

100kts

b)

165kts

c)

208kts

18.

What is the full flap operating range for the airplane

a)

55-100kts

b)

55-208kts

c)

55-165kts

19.

What is the maximum flaps-extended speed

a)

65kts

b)

100kts

c)

165kts

20.

Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed ?

a)

Upper limit of the green arc

b)

Upper limit of the white arc

c)

The red radial line

21.

What color identifies the normal flap operating range

a)

Yellow Arc

b)

Green Arc

c)

White Arc

22.

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration

a)

Upper limit of green arc

b)

Upper limit of white arc

c)

Lower limit of green arc

23.

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps & landing gear in the landing configuration

a)

Upper limit of the green arc

b)

Upper limit of the white arc

c)

Lower limit of the white arc

24.

What is the maximum structural cruise speed

a)

100kts

b)

165kts

c)

208kts

25.

Altimeter 1 indicates

a)

500ft

b)

1500ft

c)

10,500ft

26.

Altimeter 3 indicates

a)

9500ft

b)

10950ft

c)

15940ft

27.

Which altimeter indicates more than 10,000ft

a)

1,2,& 3

b)

1 & 2

c)

1 Only

28.

Altimeter 2 indicates

a)

1500ft

b)

4500ft

c)

14500ft

29.

Altimeter 3 indicates

a)

9500 ft

b)

10,500 ft

c)

4,500 ft

30.

Altimeter 1 indicates

a)

4,500ft

b)

1,500ft

c)

500ft

31.

Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 9,000ft

a)

1, 2, & 3

b)

1 & 2

c)

3 Only

32.

Altimeter 2 indicates

a)

500ft

b)

1500ft

c)

4500ft

33.

What is absolute altitude

a)

The altitude read directly from the altimeter

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

c)

The height above the standard datum plane

34.

What is true altitude

a)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

c)

The height above the standard datum plane

35.

What is density altitude

a)

Height above the standard datum plane

b)

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

c)

The altitude read directly from the altimeter

36.

What is pressure altitude

a)

The indicated altitude corrected for position & installation error

b)

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92

c)

The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature & pressure

37.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

a)

Calibrated altitude @ field elevation

b)

Absolute altitude @ field elevation

c)

True altitude @ field elevation

38.

Under what condition is indicated & true altitude the same value

a)

@ sea level, when the temperature is 0°F

b)

When @ sea level under standard conditions

c)

When @ 18,000ft MSL with the altimeter set @ 29.92

39.

Under what condition is pressure & density altitude the same value

a)

@ sea level when the temperature is 0°F

b)

When the altimeter has no instillation error

c)

@ standard temperature

40.

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude

a)

When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg

b)

When the standard atmospheric conditions exist

c)

When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

41.

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85 what change occurs

a)

70 foot increase in indicated altitude

b)

(0 foot increase in density altitude

c)

700 foot increase in indicated altitude

42.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication

a)

Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher

b)

Altimeter will indicate 150ft higher

c)

Altimeter will indicate 150ft lower

43.

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure w/o the altimeter setting being adjusted, altimeter will indicate

a)

The actual altitude above sea level

b)

Higher than the actual above sea level

c)

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

44.

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure w/o the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

a)

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

b)

Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

c)

The actual altitude above sea level

45.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude

a)

Air temperature lower than standard

b)

Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

c)

Air temperature warmer than standard

46.

Under which condition would true altitude be lower than indicated altitude

a)

In colder than standard air temperature

b)

In warmer than standard air temperature

c)

When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude

47.

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter

a)

Pressure levels are raised on warm days & the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

b)

Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels & the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude

c)

Lower temperature lower the pressure levels & the indicated altitude is lower than true

48.

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

a)

Movement of the aircraft about the yaw & roll axes

b)

Angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°

c)

Attitude of the aircraft w/ reference to the longitudinal axis

49.

To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

a)

Set prior to flight on a known heading

b)

Calibrated on a compass rose @ regular intervals

c)

Periodically realigned w/ the magnetic compass as the gyro process

50.

The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

a)

Horizon bar to the level-flight indication

b)

Horizon bar to the mini airplane

c)

Mini airplane to the horizon bar

51.

How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated

a)

By the direction of deflection of the banking scale(A)

b)

By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar(B)

c)

By the relationship of the mini plane(C) to the deflected horizon bar(B)

52.

What is the benefit of flying w/ a glass flight deck

a)

There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight

b)

Situational awareness increases

c)

Terrain avoidance is guaranteed

53.

What steps must be taken when flying in glass flight decks to ensure safe flight

a)

Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems & weather, backup w/ supplementary forms of info

b)

Regularly scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD

c)

Regularly scan both inside & outside, use all appropriate checklists & cross check w/other forms of info

54.

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display can

a)

Compensate for an airman’s lack of skill or knowledge

b)

Offer new capabilities & simplify the basic flying tasks

c)

Improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts

55.

You are flying an aircraft equipped w/ an electronic flight display & air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

a)

ADS-B

b)

Airspeed Indicator

c)

Attitude indicator

56.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

a)

Too low oil level

b)

Operating w/ too high viscosity oil

c)

Operating w/ an excessively rich mix

57.

Excessively high engine temp will

a)

Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses & warping of the cylinder cooling fins

b)

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption & possible permanent internal engine damage

c)

Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine

58.

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground will

a)

Increase fuel consumption & may increase power due to the increased heat

b)

Result in damage to heat-conducting hoses & warping of cylinder cooling fans

c)

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, & possible permanent internal engine damage

59.

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on

a)

Properly functioning thermostat

b)

Air flowing over the exhaust manifold

c)

The circulation of lubricanting oil

60.

If the engine oil temperature & cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

a)

Mixture set too rich

b)

Higher-than-normal oil pressure

c)

Too much power & w/ the mixture set too lean

61.

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during climb

a)

Reduce rate of climb & increase airspeed

b)

Reduce climb speed & increase RPM

c)

Increase climb speed & increase RPM

62.

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating

a)

Enrich mixture

b)

Increase RPM

c)

Reduce airspeed

63.

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped w/ constant-speed propeller

a)

Throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge & the propeller control regulates engine RPM

b)

Throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge & the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle

c)

Throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer & the mixture control regulates the power output

64.

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped w/ a constant speed propeller is to

a)

Avoid high RPM settings w/ high manifold pressure

b)

Avoid high manifold pressure settings w/ low RPM

c)

Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings

65.

What is an advantage of a constant-speed prop

a)

Permits the pilot to select & maintain a desired cruising speed

b)

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient preformance

c)

Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM & eliminates vibrations

66.

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

a)

Improved engine performance

b)

Uniform heat distribution

c)

Balanced cylinder head pressure

67.

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnect, the magneto

a)

Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit

b)

May continue to fire

c)

Won’t operate

68.

The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a

a)

Fouled spark plug

b)

Wire between the magneto & spark plug in contact w/ the engine casing

c)

Broken magneto ground wire

69.

With regard to carburetor ice, float type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

a)

More susceptible to icing

b)

Equally susceptible to icing

c)

Less susceptible to icing

70.

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing

a)

Any temperature below freezing & a relative humidity of less than 50%

b)

Temperature between 32°-50°F & low humidity

c)

Temperature between 20°-70°F & high humidity

71.

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is asn

a)

High as 70°F & relatively high humidity

b)

High as 95°F & there is visible moisture

c)

Low as 0°F & relative humidity is high

72.

If an aircraft is equipped w/ a fixed-pitch prop & a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

a)

Increase RPM

b)

Engine roughness

c)

Decrease RPM

73.

Of an aircraft is equipped w/ a fixed pitch propeller & a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

a)

Drop in oil temp & cylinder head temp

b)

Engine roughness

c)

Loss of RPM

74.

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

a)

Auto metering of the air @ the Venturi as the aircraft gains altitude

b)

Difference in air pressure @ the Venturi throat & the air inlet

c)

Increase in air velocity in the throat of a Venturi causing an increase in pressure

75.

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat & noting

a)

Increase in RPM than a gradual decrease

b)

Decrease in RPM & then a constant RPM indication

c)

Decrease in RPM then a gradual increase in RPM

76.

The use of carburetor heat tends to

a)

Decrease engine Preformance

b)

Increase engine Preformance

c)

Have no effect

77.

Applying carburetor heat will

a)

Result in more air going through the carburetor

b)

Enrich the fuel mixture

c)

No effect

78.

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied

a)

Decrease in RPM from the lean mixture

b)

Fuel/Air mixture becomes richer

c)

Fuel/Air mixture becomes leaner

79.

During a run-u @ a high elevation airport. You notice a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but gets worse during carburetor heat. What would be the most logical cause?

a)

Check results with a leaner mixture

b)

Taxi back to the flight line

c)

Reduce manifold pressure to control detention

80.

Basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture @ altitude is to

a)

Decrease amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density

b)

Decrease amount of fuel flow to compensate for decrease air density

c)

Increase fuel amount in the mixture to compensate for the in pressure & density of the air

81.

While cruising @ 9500 MSL the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 MSL is made w/o readjusting the mixture

a)

Fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean

b)

There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion

c)

Excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures & may cause detonation

82.

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the

a)

Volume of fuel & volume of air entering the cylinder

b)

Weight of fuel & weight of air entering the cylinder

c)

Weight of fuel & weight of air entering the carburetor

83.

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

a)

The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or wiring is defective

b)

Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition

c)

Unburied charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally

84.

Detonation may occur @ high power settings when

a)

The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively & evenly

b)

Excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power

c)

Fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder