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Science end of quarter review

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 2hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Tides are the twice-daily rise and fall of water along the shores of the oceans. Tides aew caused mainly by the gravitational pull of the moon, and secondarily by the gravitational pull of the sun. The highest tides, called spring tides, occur when the sun, moon, and Earth are in line. Other high tides, called neap tides, occur when the sun and moon are at right angles with respect to the sun.

Which of the following statements is supported by the information above?

a)

The moon and the sun exert the greatest pull on Earth's oceans when these bodies are all in a line.

b)

When the moon is at right angles to the sun with respect to the the Earth, tides do not occur along the

c)

Spring tides occur only in the spring, and neap tides occur only in the fall.

d)

Neap tides are generally higher than spring tides.

2.

Which tupe of climate is characteristic of areas along the tropic of cancer?

a)

polar

b)

temperate

c)

tropical

d)

equatorial

3.

What type of climate is most common in Europe?

(a)  

4.

Which of the following statements is supported by the information in the diagram?

a)

During a solar eclipse, the sun passes through Earth's umbra.

b)

During a lunar eclipse the sun passes through the Earth's unbra.

c)

A lunar eclipse can be seen only at night and a solar eclipse can be seen only during the day.

d)

A maximum of five solar eclipses and thirteen lunar eclipses are possible during each year.

5.

In open-pit mining, surfac layers of soil and rock are stripped to obtain coal, ores, or minerals. It is cheaper than shaft mining because there is no underground work.

Which of the following is the most likely reason that some countries restrict open-pit mining?

a)

There are no underground deposits.

b)

Open-pit mining is more dangerous than shaft mining.

c)

Open-pit mining destroys valuable land.

d)

Open-pit mining yields low-grade coal, ores, and minerals.

6.

An earthquake happens when rock beneath Earth's surface breaks suddenly. This movement produces waves of energy that travel away from the break. The shaking we think if as an earthquake occurs when the waves reach Earth's surface.

Which statement describes the locations of the epicenter and the focus of an earthquake?

a)

Both are on the Earth's surface.

b)

The epicenter lies below the fault, and the focus lies above the fault.

c)

Both lie directly on the fault.

d)

The focus is directly below the epicenter.

7.

Earth's crust is broken into several large oieces called tectonic plates. There are about 12 large plates and several smaller plates. These places are constantly moving in different directions. When the plates move apart, melted rock pushes up to form a ridge. When plates collide, one plate sinks into the mantle causing a trench.

Based on the passage and the diagram, tectonic plates are located in which of Earth's layers?

a)

lithosphere

b)

lower mantle

c)

asthenosphere

d)

outercore

8.

Based on the graph, which of the following flu season weeks of a year is a

person least likely to experience symptoms of influenza-like illness

in the United States?Percentage of Visits for Influenza-like Illness (ILI), 2016-2017 and Selected Previous Seasons

a)

6

b)

16

c)

36

d)

46

9.

Based on the diagram, choose the set of elements to complete the photosynthesis summary equation:

a)

CO2; C6H12O2; H2O; O2

b)

CO2; H2O; C6H12O6; O2

c)

H2O; C6H12O6; CO2; O2

d)

H2O; O2; CO2; C6H12O6

10.

Satellites are widely used in many scientific studies. They allow large areas to be monitored easily. They can measure the spread of an ash plume, such as the one from Eyjafjallajokull’s 2010 eruption, as well as SO2 emissions. In SAR and thermal imaging can monitor large, scarcely populated areas where it would be too expensive to maintain instruments on the ground.

What type of geologist’s research would benefit most from using a satellite as described?

a)

a mining geologist

b)

a geochemist

c)

a mineralogist

d)

a volcanologist

11.

As stated in the passage, without recycling some rare metals may become unavailable in the future. If metal recycling increases to the point that most metal is recycled, which other impact would most likely be seen?

Mining

Mining is the extraction of valuable minerals or other geological materials from the earth. Mining is required to obtain any material that cannot be grown through agricultural processes or created artificially in a laboratory or factory. Ores recovered by mining include metals, coal, oil shale, gemstones, limestone, chalk, potash, gravel, and clay. Mining in a wider sense includes extraction of any non-renewable resource such as petroleum, natural gas, or even water.

Mining of stones and metal has been a human activity since pre-historic times. Modern mining processes involve prospecting for ore bodies, analysis of the profit potential of a proposed mine, extraction of the desired materials, and final reclamation of the land after the mine is closed.

Mining operations usually create a negative environmental impact, both during the mining activity and after the mine has closed. Hence, most of the world's nations have passed regulations to decrease the impact. Work safety has long been a concern as well, and modern practices have significantly improved safety in mines.

Levels of metals recycling are generally low. Unless future end-of-life recycling rates are stepped up, some rare metals may become unavailable for use in a variety of consumer products. Due to the low recycling rates, some landfills now contain higher concentrations of metal than mines themselves.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mining

a)

higher gasoline prices

b)

less environmental damage

c)

lower cost for consumer goods

d)

All of the above

12.

According to the passage, which blood glucose level would most likely trigger a release of glucagon from the pancreas?

Homeostatic Regulation of Blood Glucose


Homeostasis refers to an organism’s ability to maintain a nearly constant internal environment within a narrow range that supports life. Examples of homeostasis in humans and other mammals include regulation of: body temperature, blood pH, and concentrations of ions and glucose in the blood. These homeostatic mechanisms actively maintain a stable internal environment even while there are changes constantly taking place in the organism’s external environment.

One example of homeostasis in humans involves regulation of the blood glucose concentration. After a meal, glucose levels in the blood may rise above the normal set point of about 90 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood plasma. Beta cells within the pancreas detect the rise in blood glucose and respond by secreting insulin into the bloodstream. The insulin acts as a signal to certain cells, mainly liver, fat, and muscle cells, to increase uptake of glucose. The increased uptake of glucose from the blood lowers the blood glucose level back to the normal set point. The glucose that has been taken up by cells will be used for energy or converted to glycogen, a storage polysaccharide.

If the level of blood glucose drops too low, such as between meals, pancreatic alpha cells are stimulated to secrete glucagon into the blood. Glucagon is a hormone that signals cells in the liver to convert glycogen to glucose, which is released back into the bloodstream to return the blood glucose level to the normal set point.

a)

80 milligrams per 100 milliliters

b)

90 milligrams per 100 milliliters

c)

100 milligrams per 100 milliliters

d)

110 milligrams per 100 milliliters

13.

James hypothesizes that many different types of crust exist on the Earth’s surface.

How might James design an investigation to test this hypothesis?

The Layers of the Earth

The Earth is made up of four distinct and unique layers: crust, mantle, outer core, and inner core. The crust of the Earth is the outermost layer and is made of solid rock. The mantle is beneath the crust and is made of very hot, dense rock. At 1800 miles thick, the mantle of the earth is the largest of Earth’s four layers. Because it is so thick, it has a large variation in temperature. The outermost portion of the mantle (the part that is closest to the crust) has a temperature of 500 to 900 degrees Celsius. The interior of the mantle (the part closest to the outer core) reaches more than 4000 degrees Celsius. At this temperature, some of the rocks melt, creating a semi-molten rock called magma.

a)

James could collect, analyze, and compare crust samples from the Earth to mantle samples taken from inside of the Earth.

b)

James could collect, analyze, and compare crust samples from the ocean floor to samples taken from land areas across the Earth.

c)

James could collect and analyze crust samples from the Earth and compare them to crust samples collected from the moon.

d)

James could collect and analyze crust samples from the Earth and compare them to crust samples collected from the moon.

14.

Which of the following statements is best supported by the data in the graphs?

Baird Mountain Dall Sheep: Number of Rams vs. Number of Ewes

a)

A. The average number of ewes is less than the average number of rams.

b)

A. The average number of ewes is more than double the average number of rams.

c)

A. The average number of rams is equivalent to the average number of ewes.

d)

A. The average number of rams is more than double the average number of ewes.

15.

The law of conservation of mass states that matter cannot be created or destroyed. During the course of a reaction, the amount of an element present does NOT change. This means that for a chemical equation to be balanced, the total number of atoms of each element has to be the same on both sides of the equation.

Balance the given equation by choosing the correct coefficient for Cl2.

2 Na + ____ Cl2 → 2NaCl

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

A patient walks into an outpatient clinic in the second week of 2017, what is the chance that they are experiencing influenza-like symptoms?

Percentage of Visits for Influenza-like Illness (ILI), 2016-2017 and Selected Previous Seasons

a)

2.5%

b)

2.8%

c)

3.1%

d)

3.9%

17.

Which of the following plant crossings would have a possibility of producing an offspring with a white-colored flower?

Law of Dominance

For a gene that is expressed in a dominant and recessive pattern, homozygous dominant and heterozygous organisms will look identical (that is, they will have different genotypes but same phenotype); the recessive allele will only be observed in homozygous recessive individuals.

Mendel's law of dominance states that in a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic. For example, when crossing true-breeding violet-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered plants, all of the offspring were violet-flowered, even though they all had one allele for violet and one allele for white. Rather than both alleles contributing to a phenotype, the dominant allele will be expressed exclusively. The recessive allele will remain latent but will be transmitted. The recessive trait will only be expressed by offspring that have two copies of this allele and these offspring will breed true when self-crossed.

a)

A. Vv×Vv

b)

A. Vv×VV

c)

A. VV×VV

d)

A. None of the above

18.

What is the largest source of freshwater on the Earth?

Distribution of Water on the Earth

If 100,000 people represented all water on the Earth where would they be located?

a)

atmosphere

b)

glaciers and snow

c)

oceans

d)

rivers and lakes

19.

Any hurricane that is category 3 or higher is considered a major hurricane. Assuming the trends in the table are consistent, what is the probability that the next hurricane that hits the state of Connecticut is a major hurricane?

Hurricane Direct Hits on the Mainland US Coastline and for Individual States by Saffir/Simpson Category 1851-2015

The table, updated from Jarrell et al. (2001), shows the number of hurricanes affecting the United States and individual states, i.e., direct hits. The table shows that on the average, close to seven hurricanes every four years (~1.75 per year) strike the United States, while about three major hurricanes cross the US coast every five years (0.60 per year).

Category 3 or higher hurricanes are considered major hurricanes.

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

30%

d)

70%

20.

Which of the following best expresses the approximate change in number of reported measles cases from 2012 to 2014?

Reported Cases of Measles in the United States, 2000 - 2016

a)

The number of reported cases increased by about 400

b)

The number of reported cases increased by about 600.

c)

The number of reported cases decreased by about 200.

d)

The number of reported cases decreased by about 300

21.

Which of the following graphs best represents a population that has reached carrying capacity?

Population Growth

In ecology, a population is defined as a group of organisms of the same species living together in a particular geographic area. Populations grow as new individuals are added. Under ideal conditions, where organisms have unlimited space and resources, populations will continually increase. The growth rate of a population under these conditions is described by the equation G=Rn where GG represents the growth rate of the population, rr represents the per capita rate of increase, and N represents the number of individuals in the population.

Escherichia coli (E.coli) is a bacterial species that is commonly grown in research laboratories. E.coli reproduce by a process called binary fission, where a single bacterial cell divides in two. The two resulting daughter cells are identical to one another and identical to the original parent cell. Under ideal conditions, E.coli will divide every 20 minutes.

But in nature, there are limitations on the growth rates of populations. A number of environmental factors limit population size, such as disease, predators, and drought, and availability of food and suitable habitat. The maximum number of individuals that an ecosystem can support is called the carrying capacity, represented by letter K. The value of K varies, depending on the species and the resources available in a particular ecosystem. The size of a population will generally stabilize once it reaches carrying capacity.

a)
b)
c)
d)
22.

Which gas makes up the largest part of the atmosphere?

Composition of the Atmosphere

a)

argon

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

23.

Why might Mrs. Smith have only asked 5 students to report their germination rates?

Growing Pea Plants

Mrs. Smith’s science class is growing pea plants. Each of her 25 students initially plants 30 pea seeds.

Once the plants start growing, Mrs. Smith asks her students to count the number of seeds that have germinated. She then selects five students to report their results to the class. They report their results as number of germinated seeds (out of 30) and as a percentage

a)

Mrs. Smith chose the 5 students with the highest germinate rate. She knows that appropriate sampling means choosing the five samples with the best data.

b)

Mrs. Smith does not understand sampling. If she did, she would have asked all 25 students to report their germination rates.

c)

Mrs. Smith knows that a sample size of 5 is appropriate for her class of 25. She can assume that the sample results are similar to the other students’ results as long as the students are chosen at random.

d)

Mrs. Smith saw that only these 5 students’ seeds had germinated. She knows it is not necessary to incorporate the other 20 students’ data, since their seeds did not germinate.

24.

A random wolf is spotted in Yellowstone National Park. What is the approximate probability that this wolf is from a pack with exactly 10 individuals?

Wolf Pack Distribution in Yellowstone National Park – December 2016

As of December 2016, there were at least 108 wolves in Yellowstone National Park. Eleven packs were identified. The approximate pack sizes can be found in the table.

a)

A. 26%

b)

A. 37%

c)

A. 39%

d)

A. 41%

25.

) During which of the following years were there more than 100 reported cases of measles in the United States?

Reported Cases of Measles in the United States, 2000 - 2016

a)

2000

b)

2004

c)

2008

d)

2012

26.

Water moves the slowest in which type of water body?

a)

river

b)

cloud

c)

ocean

d)

groundwater

27.

Which process causes wind?

a)

ocean currents

b)

differences in elevation

c)

the uneven heating of Earth by the sun

d)

condensation in the atmosphere

28.

The diagram shows how warm water and cold water move in the ocean. Which process does the diagram show?

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

absorption

d)

conduction

29.

Which feature is most similar to runoff?

a)

a puff of steam

b)

a flowing stream

c)

a cloud in the sky

d)

an invisible form of water

30.

Which type of current occurs when surface water on the ocean becomes denser than the water below it and sinks?

a)

upwelling

b)

deep current

c)

surface current

d)

coriolis current

31.

At different places on Earth, depending on elevation, air pressure varies. What causes air pressure?

a)

weight of air

b)

the sun’s energy

c)

Earth’s magnetic field

d)

the density of nitrogen

32.

What causes air pressure at any point on Earth?

a)

carbon dioxide levels

b)

water vapor in the air

c)

the weight of the atmosphere

d)

the strength of Earth’s magnetic field

33.

During the day, water from the ocean is transferred to the atmosphere. Which statement describes the energy change that takes place during the transfer?

a)

The ocean is cooled when energy is transferred from the atmosphere to the ocean.

b)

Ocean waves speed up when energy is transported from the ocean to the atmosphere.

c)

Ocean waves slow down when energy is transported from the atmosphere to the ocean.

d)

The atmosphere is warmed when energy is transferred from the ocean to the atmosphere.

34.

Which statement best describes the movement of heat energy in the global ocean?

a)

Heat energy is transported to the equator from the continents.

b)

Heat energy in deep currents is transported to the ocean’s surface.

c)

Heat energy in warm surface currents is transported to areas near Earth’s poles.

d)

Heat energy is transported from areas of lower temperature to areas of higher temperature.

35.

Which example describes how the water cycle carries on energy transfer?

a)

a flooding river depositing silt on a floodplain

b)

a warm ocean current warming the air above it

c)

ocean water depositing sand particles on a shore

d)

water seeping through the soil and dissolving salts

36.

Large bodies of water store thermal energy. This causes temperature differences and surface currents that affect climate and weather. What are surface currents?

a)

daily changes in the level of ocean water

b)

water that empties from rivers into the ocean

c)

the slow mixing of warm and cold water near the surface of the ocean

d)

streamlike movements of water that happen near the surface of the ocean

37.

The diagram represents three processes in the water cycle. Which arrow or arrows represent a change of state from a liquid to a gas caused by the sun’s energy?

a)

arrow A

b)

arrow B

c)

arrow A and arrow B

d)

arrow B and arrow C

38.

A deep ocean current forms when ocean water becomes denser and sinks. The figure shows a deep ocean current. Based on the illustration, which statement describes the relationship between density and temperature?

a)

Cold water is denser than warm water.

b)

Warm water is denser than cold water.

c)

Warm and cold water have equal densities.

d)

The density of water is not affected by temperature.

39.

Which unit is used in predicting temperature?

a)

liters (L)

b)

grams (g)

c)

millimeters (mm)

d)

degrees Celsius (°C)

40.

Molecules in the atmosphere exert a force that pushes on a surface. What is the name of this force?

a)

temperature

b)

air pressure

c)

precipitation

d)

relative humidity

41.

Scientists study upper atmospheric conditions to __________.

a)

make local forecasts

b)

make short-range forecasts

c)

study the outer atmosphere

d)

track global weather patterns

42.

Which movement of ocean water has the greatest direct effect on the growth of producers?

a)

upwelling

b)

deep current

c)

surface current

d)

convection current

43.

A meteorologist is using barometers to help predict weather. Which feature of weather is the meteorologist measuring to help predict the weather?

a)

humidity

b)

wind speed

c)

air pressure

d)

temperature

44.

Why is the ability to move important to Animals?

a)

It helps them find food.

b)

It helps them stay warm.

c)

It helps them obtain oxygen.

d)

It helps them differentiate cells.

45.

What form of energy is stored in food?

a)

Heat

b)

Light energy

c)

Energy of Motion

d)

Energy in Molecules

46.

How do organisms get the energy they need?

a)

Plants get energy from fertilizers. Animals get energy from water.

b)

Plants get energy from the soil. Animals get energy directly from sunlight.

c)

Plants do not need energy because they do not move. Animals get energy from food.

d)

Plants use energy from sunlight to make sugar molecules. Animals get energy from eating other organisms.

47.

Dylan drew a diagram showing that certain organisms eat other organisms. The diagram included a caption stating that the amount of available energy decreases with each organism that is eaten. How is this explained by the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Living things change energy into matter.

b)

Some of the energy is used for life processes.

c)

Some energy disappears when living things are eaten.

d)

Only small amounts of energy can be destroyed at a time.

48.

Carbon exists in many forms on Earth. The diagram shows part of the carbon cycle. What does this diagram show?

a)

It shows how matter can pass through an ecosystem.

b)

It shows each step in the correct order that carbon must pass through.

c)

It shows how more carbon is constantly being formed and passed along.

d)

It shows how carbon is running out because it is all being used up by animals.

49.

Some consumers, such as many flying insects, need large amounts of energy to grow and move from one place to another. How do consumers get energy to function?

a)

Consumers obtain all of their energy by eating other organisms.

b)

Consumers obtain energy from other organisms and some from sunlight.

c)

Consumers obtain most of their energy by absorbing it from their environments.

d)

Consumers convert light energy from the sun into chemical energy stored in food.

50.

What starting materials do plants use to make food?

a)

soil and water

b)

water and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and water

d)

carbonic acid and nitrogen

51.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and water chlorophyll

c)

protein, and DNA

d)

plant stems, leaves, and root systems

52.

Animals breathe in oxygen and breathe out carbon dioxide. Where does the carbon dioxide come from?

a)

It is produced during photosynthesis.

b)

It is a product of cellular respiration.

c)

It is needed to create energy for cells

d)

It is created when plants are consumed

53.

What happens to glucose inside a cell during cellular respiration?

a)

The cell uses carbonic acid to break down glucose.

b)

The cell uses water to break down glucose.

c)

The cell uses oxygen to break down glucose.

d)

The cell uses nitrogen to break down glucose.

54.

There is a connection between photosynthesis and cellular respiration. The products from one provide the raw materials for the other. What products of photosynthesis are starting materials for cellular respiration?

a)

energy and carbon

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and water

d)

chlorophyll and chloroplasts

55.

Why are animals important to the process of photosynthesis?

a)

Animals eat plants, which makes space for more plants to grow.

b)

Animals digest food, which provides the starting materials for photosynthesis.

c)

Animals release carbon dioxide, which provides the starting materials for photosynthesis.

d)

Animals produce energy in the form of heat, which is necessary for photosynthesis to occur.

56.

A mushroom is one type of decomposer. Which statement describes the role of decomposers in a food web?

a)

Decomposers are not necessary in a food web.

b)

Decomposers break down matter so plants can use it.

c)

Decomposers create energy by producing their own food.

d)

Decomposers store matter and energy until it is needed in an ecosystem.

57.

Producers and consumers are both pictured in a diagram of a food web. Which statement best describes how they differ from one another?

a)

Consumers produce all the energy they need.

b)

Consumers eat only animals, and producers eat only plants.

c)

Producers eat living organisms, and consumers eat organisms that have died.

d)

Consumers obtain energy by eating food, and producers obtain energy from sunlight.

58.

What is the primary role of decomposers in a food web?

a)

to control the population of producers and consumers.

b)

to compete with producers for energy and other resources.

c)

to provide a source of energy for the producers in the ecosystem.

d)

to recycle energy and materials from dead producers and consumers.

59.

A student is identifying food chains in a diagram of a food web. Which of these organisms might be a consumer?

a)

Frog

b)

Water lily

c)

Redwood tree

d)

Athlete’s foot fungus

60.

In which picture is the person doing work on the box?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

What type of simple machine would help this person move the box?

a)

Wheel and Axle

b)

Pulley

c)

Lever

d)

Inclined Plane

62.

A chemist has a sample of hot gas and measures the amount of heat being released as it cools. The flat parts of the graph represent state changes. Which state(s) of matter are found at 117°C?

a)

solid and liquid

b)

liquid and gas

c)

liquid only

d)

gas only

63.

What is happening at -90 degrees?

a)

boiling

b)

freezing

c)

cooling down

d)

heating up

64.

A camper constructed a solar shower by hanging a bag of water from a tree so that the sun was shining on the lower part of the bag. After 4 hours, all the water inside the bag, including in the upper part, was warm. How did this transfer of energy occur?

a)

Radiation from the sun, convection through the bag, conduction through the water

b)

Convection from the sun, conduction through the bag, radiation through the water

c)

Radiation from the sun, conduction through the bag, convection through the water

d)

Convection from the sun, radiation through the bag, conduction through the water

65.

Which of these energy sources produces the highest amount of air pollution?

a)

wind

b)

coal

c)

solar

d)

biomass

66.

Using Newton's second law, what would be the force of an orange with a mass of 150 grams and acceleration due to gravity of approximately 10 m/s2? (Remember, Newton's second law is Force = mass × acceleration)

a)

1.5N

b)

15N

c)

150N

d)

1500N

67.

Q1. What is the best definition of the term "theory," as it is used in science?

a)

A theory is a guess or hunch about something that has occurred in nature.

b)

A theory is a comprehensive set of ideas explaining a phenomenon in nature.

c)

A theory is based on verifiable laws and can be proven true.

d)

A theory is a hypothesis that uses laws and observation to assume.

68.

Q2. While speaking to a colleague, a scientist makes the following statement: "I propose that Bald Eagle eggs in northern Maine will have thinner shells than those from birds in southern Alaska due to increased levels of pesticides in the water." This statement is a

a)

Theory

b)

Law

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Conclusion

69.

Q3. Scientific theories can be tested.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Q4. Complete the following sentence so that it is correct: Scientific theories are based on

a)

general assumptions of how systems work.

b)

mathematical principles that can be proven true.

c)

large amounts of data collected over time.

d)

observations from within only one scientific discipline.

71.

Q5. Why are scientific theories an important part of research and understanding?

a)

Scientific theories allow scientists to make predictions.

b)

Scientific theories allow scientists to make assumptions.

c)

Scientific theories determine the work that future scientists can do.

d)

Scientific theories determine the subjects that scientists research.

72.

Q6. Scientific theories do not change once they have been written down.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Q7. Which statement below correctly identifies the difference between laws and theories?

a)

Laws describe phenomena, while theories explain why phenomena exist.

b)

Laws are a statement of fact, while theories are a statement of opinion.

c)

Laws explain why phenomena exist, while theories explain how.

d)

Laws are a prediction of phenomena, while theories are an explanation.

74.

Q8. Why do scientists develop a hypothesis before conducting research?

a)

It gives them direction on how to interpret the results of their research.

b)

It helps to predict outcomes and define the parameters of the research.

c)

Hypotheses give the researcher an outcome to shape their work around.

d)

Hypotheses help a researcher decide which observations to record and which to ignore.

75.

Q9. Scientific theories are always broad and cover many concepts.

Hint: Some theories, like the theory of evolution by natural selection, are broad and encompass many concepts. Others focus on smaller-scale concepts.

a)

true

b)

false

76.

Q10. Choose the sentence below that is a correct description of scientific theory.

a)

Scientific theories in one discipline can influence theories in other disciplines.

b)

Theories in one scientific discipline do not affect theories in other disciplines.

c)

New scientific theories are always original and do not connect to those that came before.

d)

Creativity and insight are not important parts of developing new scientific theories.

77.

Q11. Which of the following statements BEST describes the process by which we have come to understand the age of the universe?

a)

Scientists have worked independently to test and answer unique questions using only their own data.

b)

Scientists have identified a single way to measure the age of the universe.

c)

The age of the universe cannot be known through scientific means.

d)

Over time, newer studies have built upon, revised, and improved our understanding of the age of the universe.

78.

Q12. Scientists are completely objective and never let their personal experiences influence their work.

a)

true

b)

false

79.

Q13. While scientists sometimes make mistakes, these mistakes are usually identified by

a)

their supervisors when they conduct annual evaluations.

b)

journal editors before an article is published.

c)

colleagues when they replicate a research study.

d)

government organized institutional review boards.

80.

Q16. Good researchers always follow a precise and thoroughly planned pathway from start to finish, leaving nothing to chance.

a)

true

b)

false

81.

According to the chart, which city experienced the largest increase from its previous record to its current record?

a)

Hobart

b)

Penrith

c)

Eucla

d)

Leonara

82.

Which of the following cities had previous record equal to the median of all the cities' previous records?

a)

Cape Naturaliste

b)

Canberra

c)

Penrith

d)

Eucla

83.

According to the chart, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Temperatures will likely continue to increase

b)

Temperatures increased 5 degrees or less

c)

Temperatures increased more than 5 degrees

d)

Temperatures usually increase 2-5 degrees in the summer

84.

According to the diagram, the function of the _____ is to supply energy to the cell.

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosomes

c)

mitochondrion

85.

Fill in the blank using one word from the diagram.

A ____ is an opening in the lower surface of the leaf through which gases such as carbon dioxide can pass

a)

palisade

b)

chloroplasts

c)

stoma

d)

xylem

86.

Chloroplasts are structures found within some of the cells in a leaf. They help in the process of photosynthesis. In the diagram, they are represented by small gray spots on the cells. Which of the following statements is supported by the information in the diagram?

a)

Palisade cells provide a means of transporting water through a plant.

b)

Most of a leaf's chloroplasts are found in its palisade cells.

c)

The spongy cells are soft, like a sponge.

d)

The epidermis blocks light from reaching the palisade cells.

87.

Which of the following statements is supported by the information in the table?

a)

Fats are a more concentrated source of energy than carbohydrates

b)

Vitamins are more important in the diet than minerals

c)

A good source of vitamin C is citrus fruits

d)

Minerals provide a low fat source of energy

88.

Which of the following is a fact, rather than an opinion, based on the table?

a)

Eating meat is the best way to get sufficient protein in your diet

b)

Carbohydrates come from fruits as well as from bread and rice

c)

Iron is the only mineral you need

d)

Everyone should drink 8 glasses of water each day.

89.

The forelimbs of frogs are homologous to those of human arms, penguins' flippers, birds' wings, and alligators' legs. Based on the diagram and paragraph, which of the following is likely to be true of frogs' forelimbs?

a)

Frogs use their forelimbs for swimming

b)

Frogs' forelimbs contain carpal bones

c)

Frogs' forelimbs resemble wings more than they resemble human arms

d)

Frogs are more closely related to humans than they are to alligators

90.

In most cases, changes in one aspect of an ecosystem result in reactions in other parts of the ecosystem, restoring balance. In some cases, however, changes can be so great that the original ecosystem is replaced with another. When this occurs naturally, as when grasses are replaced by taller plants, shrubs, and eventually trees, it is called succession. Which of the following statements is supported by this information?

a)

When changes are introduced into an ecosystem, its balance is permanently disrupted.

b)

Succession is usually cased by human destruction of an ecosystem.

c)

The intentional replacement of a wooded area by a field of cultivated wheat is an example of succession.

d)

The natural replacement of lichens by mosses and ferns, and then shrubs, is an example of succession.

91.

According to the graph, about what percentage of the universe may consist of matter that does not interact with light?

a)

less than 0.01 percent

b)

0.5 percent

c)

4 percent

d)

26 percent

92.

Which of the following statements is a fact rather than a hypothesis about the makeup of the universe?

a)

Dark energy may account for 70 percent of the universe

b)

Dark matter may account for 26 percent of the universe

c)

Dark energy may cause gravitational effects

d)

Ordinary matter is made of the chemical elements

93.

A sound wave is produced in a metal cylinder by striking one end. Which of the following occurs as the wave travels along the cylinder?

a)

Its amplitude increases.

b)

Its frequency increases.

c)

It transfers matter.

d)

It transfers energy.

94.

A stretched spring attached to two fixed points is compressed on one end and released as shown in the image. The resulting wave travels back and forth between the two fixed ends of the spring until it comes to a stop. This mechanical wave is an example of a

a)

Transverse Wave

b)

Longitudinal Wave

c)

Refracted Wave

d)

Reflection

95.

Which of the following gases contributes to global warming and climate change?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Oxygen

96.

Chemical X has a mass of 20 grams, and chemical Y has a mass of 30 grams. If the two chemicals are mixed and a complete chemical reaction takes place, what is most likely the mass of the product?

a)

20 grams

b)

30 grams

c)

50 grams

d)

100 grams

97.

What is Newton's 1st law?

a)

Law of Force and Acceleration

b)

Law of Inertia

c)

Law of Action-Reaction

d)

Law of motion

98.

It takes more force to accelerate the iron man on the left than the iron man on the right because the iron man on the left has more mass. This best describes

a)

Newton's first law, the law of inertia

b)

Newton's second law, the law of acceleration

c)

Newton's third law, the law of action reaction

d)

The law of universal gravitation

99.

Newtons 3rd Law of Motion states:

a)

An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force.

b)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

c)

The greater the mass of an object, the more force it will take to accelerate the object

100.

When you push a boat off from the dock, you are demonstrating Newton's 3rd Law of Motion. It simply states that for every action there is an equal and opposite _______________?

a)

Motion

b)

Reaction

c)

Change

d)

Push

101.

The formula for Force is:

a)

Force= Magnet x Acceleration

b)

Force= Mass x Acceleration

c)

Force= Mass x Arsenic

d)

Funny= Monkey x Arrive

102.
The right side of the equation below is called the
a)
products
b)
reactants
103.
the starting materials in a chemical reaction
a)
Products
b)
Reactants
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
104.

This image shows a

a)

chemical reaction

b)

physical change

c)

musical change

d)

all of these answers are correct

105.

This change is a

a)

chemical reaction

b)

physical change

c)

musical change

d)

all answers are correct

106.

The reactants in the image above are:

a)

CH4 and 2 O2

b)

2 H2O and CO2

c)

All of these are reactants

d)

All of these are products

107.

The diagram shows how warm water and cold water move in the ocean. Which process does the diagram show?

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

absorption

d)

conduction

108.

The diagram represents three processes in the water cycle. Which arrow or arrows represent a change of state from a liquid to a gas caused by the sun’s energy?

a)

arrow A

b)

arrow B

c)

arrow A and arrow B

d)

arrow B and arrow C

109.

Carbon exists in many forms on Earth. The diagram shows part of the carbon cycle. What does this diagram show?

a)

It shows how matter can pass through an ecosystem.

b)

It shows each step in the correct order that carbon must pass through.

c)

It shows how more carbon is constantly being formed and passed along.

d)

It shows how carbon is running out because it is all being used up by animals.

110.
The thinnest layer of the Earth is the ___________.
a)
mantle
b)
crust
c)
core
111.

What is the deepest layer of the Earth?

a)

The outer core

b)

The mantle

c)

The inner core

112.
The thickest layer of the earth is the 
a)
crust
b)
mantle
c)
inner core
d)
outer core
113.

Using the image, predict which layer of the atmosphere all weather will occur.

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

114.

The prevailing winds in most areas of the United States are westerlies. Using that information and the map, predict the weather for the next several hours. Which city is most likely to see a cold air mass move under a warm air mass by tomorrow?

a)

Norfolk

b)

Little Rock

c)

Columbia

d)

Birmingham

115.

What substance is needed to create coral reefs in the ocean?

a)

Sodium

b)

Chlorine

c)

Calcium

d)

Granite

116.

When tectonic plates slide past each other, the boundaries where they meet build up pressure. What do waves from the pressure create when they "snap" into new positions?

a)

Hurricanes

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Tornadoes

117.

Which natural process is described in the following statement?

“Respiration releases carbon dioxide into the air. This gas is then used by plants during photosynthesis to make sugar and starch.”

a)

the carbon cycle

b)

the nitrogen cycle

c)

the greenhouse effect

d)

biodiversity

118.

Which of these is NOT a sustainable resource?

a)

wind powerr

b)

fossil fuels

c)

solar energy

d)

geothermal energy

119.

Which option correctly lists the terms from smallest to largest in size?

a)

solar system, star, universe, galaxy

b)

universe, galaxy, star, solar system

c)

galaxy, universe, solar system, star

d)

star, solar system, galaxy, universe

120.

What rocky bodies originate in the zone between Mars and Jupiter?

a)

meteors

b)

comets

c)

asteroids

d)

meteorites

121.

What is the median of this set of score?
1, 2, 5, 6, 8, 8, 9, 12, 151,\ 2,\ 5,\ 6,\ 8,\ 8,\ 9,\ 12,\ 15  

a)

6

b)

8

c)

9

d)

none of these

122.

Is  an art and science that deals with the collection, organization, creative presentation, analysis and interpretation quantitative of data.

a)

Population

b)

Statistics

c)

Analysis of data

d)

None of the above

123.

Refers to the organization of data into tables, graphs and charts.

a)

Collation of Data

b)

Collection of Data

c)

Presentation of Data

d)

None of the Above

124.

Refers to drawing of conclusions or generalizations from the analyzed data.

a)

Analysis of Data

b)

Collection of Data

c)

Interpretation of Data

d)

Non Parametric

125.

A measurement for which there is no natural numerical scale, but which consists of attributes, labels, or other non-numerical characteristics.

a)

External Data

b)

Qualitative data

c)

Quantitative Data

d)

Internal data

126.

Values or measurements that represents quantities.

a)

Quantitative Data

b)

Internal Data

c)

Qualitative Data

d)

External Data

127.

Identify the Population:

Cherokee County Schools randomly selected 230 teachers to find out which technology resource its teachers feel is the most effective. What is the population in this situation?

a)

230 Teachers

b)

All Cherokee County teachers

c)

All Cedar Bluff teachers

d)

All Sand Rock and Spring Garden students

128.
The population describes:
a)
The group of people, objects or events being surveyed
b)
a part of the group being surveyed
c)
the whole world
d)
the school
129.

Litzy collects data from a random sample of 7th graders. Out of 40 respondents, 7 attend afterschool programs. Of the 200 7th graders attending Litzy's school, how many would be expected to attend afterschool programs?

a)

14 7th graders

b)

28 7th graders

c)

35 7th graders

d)

42 7th graders

130.
_______ is a part of a group being surveyed.
a)
Sample
b)
Population
c)
Random Sample
d)
Quartile
131.

Roberto wants to know the favorite sport of adults in his hometown. He surveys 50 adults at a baseball game. Is this random or biased sampling?

a)

Random

b)

Biased

132.

Is the following statement biased or fair: “Would you prefer a vacation in pleasant, sunny Florida, or in the barren wasteland of the Arctic?

a)

Biased

b)

Fair

c)

Neither

133.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
134.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
135.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
136.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
137.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
138.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
139.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
140.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
141.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
142.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
143.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
144.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous
d)
DNA
145.
What is a punnett square?
a)
graph used to predict the possible genotypes of offspring in a given cross
b)
a graph used to predict the possible birth rate of offspring.
c)
a graph used to predict the possible behavioral characteristics an offspring could have
d)
None of the above
146.
In a punnet square where are the parent alleles written?
a)
Top and inside the boxes
b)
Only on the left and right side of the boxes. 
c)
outside of the boxes (top and left side)
d)
All on the top side of the boxes