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Alcala exam 2

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many tarsal bones are found in the foot?

a)

7

b)

5

c)

9

d)

14

2.

Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity most frequently fractured?

a)

Fifth

b)

Fourth

c)

Third

d)

First

3.

Which term describes the top or anterior surface of the foot?

a)

Dorsum

b)

Volar

c)

Palmar

d)

Plantar

4.

Where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot?

a)

Between the phalanges of the first digit

b)

Between any of the metatarsals and phalanges

c)

Between the tarsal bones and phalanges

d)

Between the phalanges of the second through fifth digits

5.

What are the two arches of the foot?

a)

Longitudinal and transverse

b)

Transverse and anterior

c)

Instep and cross-step

d)

Anterior and longitudinal

6.

The medial malleolus is part of the

a)

Tibia

b)

Talus

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Fibula

7.

Which tendon attaches directly to the tibial tuberosity?

a)

Patellar

b)

Soleus

c)

Collateral

d)

Quadriceps

8.

Extending the ankle joint or pointing the foot and toes downward is called:

a)

plantar flexion.

b)

dorsiflexion

c)

inversion

d)

eversion

9.

Which of the following routines should be performed for a study of the second toe?

a)

AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, lateromedial projection

b)

AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, lateromedial projection

c)

AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, mediolateral projection

d)

AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, mediolateral projection

10.

Which position of the foot will best demonstrate the lateral (third) cuneiform?

a)

AP oblique with medial rotation

b)

AP projection

c)

AP oblique with lateral rotation

d)

Mediolateral projection

11.

What CR angulation is required for the AP medial oblique projection of the foot?

a)

CR is perpendicular to the image receptor

b)

10-degree posterior

c)

15- to 20-degree posterior

d)

5- to 7-degree posterior

12.

How much CR angulation to the long axis of the foot is required for the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus?

a)

40 degrees

b)

45 to 50 degrees

c)

15 to 20 degrees

d)

30 to 35 degrees

13.

Which joint surfaces of the ankle joint are most commonly open with an AP projection of the ankle?

a)

Medial and superior

b)

Superior and lateral

c)

Lateral and medial

d)

Medial, superior, and lateral

14.

How much rotation from an AP position of the ankle will typically produce an AP mortise projection?

a)

15- to 20-degree medial

b)

No rotation is necessary

c)

45- to 60-degree lateral

d)

25- to 30-degree medial

15.

Which of the following projections of the ankle will best demonstrate the open joint space of the lateral aspect of the ankle joint?

a)

AP mortise projection

b)

Lateromedial ankle

c)

AP projection

d)

AP oblique with 45-degree rotatio

16.

To ensure both joints are included on an AP projection of the tibia and fibula on an adult, the technologist can:

a)

turn the image receptor diagonally to the lower leg

b)

increase the SID to 60 inches (150 cm).

c)

use a Bucky tray

d)

use a tabletop technique.

17.

Which projection of the knee will best demonstrate the neck of the fibula without superimposition of the tibia?

a)

AP oblique with medial rotation

b)

AP oblique with lateral rotation

c)

Lateral

d)

AP

18.

What CR angle should be used for a mediolateral projection of the knee on a short, wide-pelvis patient?

a)

7- to 10-degree cephalad

b)

No CR angle is required

c)

5-degree cephalad

d)

5- to 10-degree caudad

19.

How much flexion of the knee is recommended for the lateral projection of the patella?

a)

5 to 10 degrees

b)

35 to 40 degrees

c)

20 to 30 degrees

d)

45 to 50 degrees

20.

A radiograph of an AP projection of the second toe reveals that the interphalangeal joints are not open. What is the most likely cause for this radiographic outcome?

a)

Incorrect or inadequate CR centering or angle.

b)

Excessive SID was used.

c)

Rotation of the toes.

d)

AP projection was made; should have performed the PA projection.

21.

A radiograph of an AP medial oblique projection of the foot, if positioned correctly, should demonstrate:

a)

third through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition.

b)

CR is centered to midshaft of third metatarsal.

c)

first and second cuneiform joint space is open

d)

first through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition

22.

A radiograph of an AP mortise projection of the ankle reveals that the lateral malleolus is slightly superimposed over the talus and the lateral joint space is not open. What is the most likely cause for this radiographic outcome?

a)

Insufficient medial rotation of the foot and ankle

b)

Excessive dorsiflexion of the foot and ankle

c)

Excessive plantar flexion of the foot and ankle

d)

Excessive medial rotation of the foot and ankle

23.

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of osteoarthritis of both knees. The erring physician wants a projection to evaluate the damage to the articular facets of the tibia. Which of the following projections will provide the best image of this region of the knee?

a)

PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg method)

b)

AP axial projection (Béclere method)

c)

Tangential projection (Settegast method)

d)

Tangential projection (Hughston method

24.

A patient comes to radiology for an evaluation of the longitudinal arch of the foot. Which of the following projections would provide the best information about the arch?

a)

AP and lateral weight-bearing projections of foot

b)

Sesamoid bone series projection

c)

Plantodorsal (axial) projection

d)

Routine foot series

25.

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible transverse fracture of the patella. Which of the following routines would safely provide the best images of the patella?

a)

AP and horizontal beam lateral, no flexion of knee

b)

AP and Merchant method (tangential projection)

c)

AP and 5- to 10-degree flexion lateral

d)

PA and 45-degree PA oblique with medial rotation

26.

Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate signs of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

a)

AP and lateral knee

b)

AP bilateral weight-bearing knees

c)

AP, lateral, and oblique ankle

d)

Plantodorsal (axial) and lateral calcaneus

27.

For the AP weight-bearing feet projection, the CR should be:

a)

angled 15-degree posteriorly.

b)

angled 5-degree posteriorly.

c)

perpendicular to the image receptor

d)

directed horizontally

28.

For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be:

a)

perpendicular to the image receptor.

b)

perpendicular to the image receptor, but SID should be increased to 60 inches (150 cm).

c)

5- to 10-degree cephalad

d)

10-degree caudad.

29.

A patient comes to radiology with an infection involving the sesamoid bones of the foot. Beyond the routine foot projections, which one of the following projections can be performed to best demonstrate these structures?

a)

Tangential projection

b)

PA axial Camp Coventry method

c)

Lateral weight-bearing projection

d)

AP weight-bearing foot projection

30.

Grids are required for studies of the adult ankle.

a)

False

b)

True

31.

When multiple exposures are placed on a single computed radiography image receptor (IR), lead masking should not be placed on the unexposed regions of the imaging plate.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Follow-up radiographs for a fractured tibia and fibula may include only the joint closest to the site of injury.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The correct CR placement for an AP projection of the knee is midpatella.

a)

False

b)

True

34.

The tangential projection for the sesamoid bones of the foot should be performed with the patient prone rather than supine to minimize magnification of the sesamoid bones if the patient condition allows it.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

A correctly positioned lateral ankle will demonstrate the lateral malleolus superimposed over the posterior half of the tibia.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

A renal calculus that measures 0.2 mm in size

a)

cannot be visualized with an effective focal spot of 0.5 mm focal spot due to penumbral overlap.

b)

is best seen with magnification and a large focal spot.

c)

all of the above

d)

most likely will be visualized with a small radiographic tube angle using a large target angle.

37.

A convenient and easy patient immobilization method an experienced radiographer will use is

a)

a high kVp and low mA

b)

a high mA and short exposure time

c)

a piece of tape wrapped around the patient’s anatomy

d)

a tissue bolus material to hold the body part in position

38.

All of the following affect visibility of detail EXCEPT

a)

Sid

b)

Filtration

c)

radiographic grids.

d)

15% rule

39.

As OID increases and SID remains constant, entrance skin exposure (ESE)

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

none of the above.

d)

remains unchanged

40.

As focal spot size decreases,

a)

all of the above

b)

spatial resolution increases.

c)

penumbra decreases.

d)

umbra is improved

41.

As size distortion decreases, the resolution of recorded detail

a)

increases

b)

decreases.

c)

is not affected

d)

is altered due to digital reprocessing.

42.

Because the x-ray beam is divergent,

a)

minification is impossible.

b)

minification is greater with a larger target angle.

c)

minification is collimated off from the edges of the beam

d)

minification is greater with a smaller target angle.

43.

Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in. and the OID is 5 in.

a)

1.14

b)

Sid/sod

44.

Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in. and the SOD is 25 in.

a)

1.6

b)

Sid/sod

45.

Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in. and the OID is 2 in.

a)

1.0

b)

Sid/sod

46.

Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in. and the SOD is 25 in.

a)

2.9

b)

Sid/sod

47.

Distortion is a misrepresentation of

a)

size and shape.

b)

detail

c)

Size only

d)

shape only.

48.

Enlargement of a digital radiographic image on the review monitor, is an example of

a)

electronic magnification

b)

purposeful geometric magnification.

c)

digital histogram distortion

d)

shape distortion.

49.

Examinations of body parts with a large inherent OID warrant a ____ whenever

a)

large SID

b)

large focal spot

c)

small SOD

d)

small SID

50.

Factors affecting recorded detail include

a)

focal spot size and patient thickness.

b)

radiographic grids and collimation.

c)

kVp and filtration

d)

mAs and grid ratio

51.

Imaging noise is different from quantum noise in that imaging noise

a)

is inherent in the imaging system

b)

is a function of mAs.

c)

is dependent upon kVp

d)

cannot be filtered out.

52.

In general radiography, quantum noise is

a)

a function of mAs and kVp.

b)

designed into the receptor specifications.

c)

a recorded detail parameter.

d)

filtered out of images.

53.

In order to improve the temporal resolution on an image,

a)

a shorter exposure time should be used

b)

a longer SID should be used

c)

the 15% rule should be considered

d)

a smaller x-ray beam angle should be used

54.

Large patients receive a greater exposure than small patients because their

a)

all of the above

b)

OID is increased

c)

entrance skin surface is closer to the source

d)

SOD is decreased

55.

On a PA projection of the wrist, you notice what appears to be a soft tissue mass superimposed over the bony anatomy. When you inspect the patient, you notice the presence of a large linear scar from a previous injury. The visualization of this scar is primarily due to what characteristic of digital detectors?

a)

low contrast resolution

b)

high contrast resolution

c)

temporal resolution

d)

The DEL fill factor

56.

Opening up the intervertebral joints of the cervical spine would best be accomplished with

a)

the patient in an AP projection with a 40” SID.

b)

the patient in a PA projection at 72” SID

c)

a perpendicular central ray at 72” SID.

d)

the patient in a PA projection with a 40” SID.

57.

Penumbra decreases as

a)

all of the above

b)

OID decreases.

c)

focal spot decreases.

d)

SID increases.

58.

Performing a routine chest radiograph in the anterioposterior (AP) projection will

a)

produce improved resolution of the thoracic spine.

b)

decrease breast exposure

c)

decrease heart size on the image.

d)

demonstrate higher resolution of the anterior ribs.

59.

Poor spatial resolution is caused by unacceptable levels of

a)

penumbra.

b)

umbra

c)

contrast

d)

IR exposure.

60.

Positioning patients is intended to eliminate anatomical superimposition, from a radiologist perspective. To optimize image resolution it is best to

a)

keep the central ray and receptor perpendicular to the patient’s anatomy, and rotate the part

b)

minimize central angulation and rotate the part only slightly.

c)

use the small focal spot and extend the degree of part rotation.

d)

lower the SID and increase the OID with part rotation.

61.

Proper alignment is achieved when the central ray is ____ to the part and ____ to the image

a)

perpendicular; perpendicular

b)

parallel; parallel

c)

parallel; perpendicular

d)

perpendicular; parallel

62.

Quantum noise impacts radiographic image quality by

a)

diminishing the visibility of recorded detail.

b)

decreasing geometric unsharpness.

c)

increasing temporal resolution.

d)

adding artifacts to the image

63.

Shape distortion is calculated

a)

.

none of the above.

b)

using the tube angle and OID

c)

as the ratio of SID and SOD.

d)

automatically in the computer postprocessing

64.

Size distortion in radiography can be ____ only.

a)

magnification

b)

foreshortening

c)

minimization

d)

elongation

65.

Size distortion is controlled by

a)

all of the above.

b)

SID.

c)

radiographic distances.

d)

Oid

66.

Spatial resolution in digital imaging is determined by the

a)

pixel size

b)

bit depth

c)

matrix size.

d)

all of the above.

67.

Spatial resolution is

a)

all of the above

b)

definition

c)

the accuracy of the structural lines actually recorded in the radiographic image.

d)

he degree of geometric sharpness

68.

Spatial resolution is improved when

a)

OID decreases

b)

the x-ray tube is angled

c)

SID decreases

d)

OID increases

69.

Spatial resolution is improved when

a)

SID increases

b)

SID decreases

c)

OID increases.

d)

the receptor is angled

70.

The ____ the SID, the ____ the degree of magnification.

a)

greater; smaller

b)

lesser; smaller

c)

greater; larger

d)

SID has no effect on magnification.

71.

The best method for controlling motion when the patient is unable to cooperate is to

a)

maintain mAs, while decreasing time.

b)

decrease kVp.

c)

decrease the focal spot size.

d)

maintain mAs, while decreasing mA.

72.

The overall general shape of human anatomical structures are

a)

round or oval.

b)

cuboid

c)

curvilinear

d)

linear

73.

The traditional unit of resolution measurement typically used in film/screen imaging is

a)

line pairs per millimeter

b)

dots per millimeter

c)

the DEL size.

d)

pixel size

74.

Which can negatively impact recorded detail?

a)

involuntary motion

b)

minimal OID

c)

longer SID

d)

using small focal spot

75.

Which examination does not exhibit an inherently large OID?

a)

AP lumbar spine

b)

lateral chest

c)

AP facial bones

d)

lateral cervical spine

76.

Which of the following occurs when the tube or the image receptor are not properly aligned?

a)

foreshortening

b)

minification

c)

elongation

d)

magnification

77.

Which one of the following occurs when the part is improperly aligned?

a)

elongation

b)

magnification

c)

foreshortening

d)

minification

78.

Which radiograph below exhibits the best recorded detail?

a)

PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in

b)

a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in

c)

a lordotic projection of the chest at 72”.

d)

an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in

79.

X-ray tube angulations inherently

a)

both b and c.

b)

increase spatial resolution

c)

change the SID

d)

introduce magnification to some degree.

80.

You have completed a chest radiograph on a 2-month-old infant using a restraining device at a 72” SID. Because of the design of the device, your OID is suboptimum. The image reveals good resolution of the bony anatomy but the pulmonary vasculature is blurred. The EI value is 2040 and the target EI value is 2000. In an effort to improve the quality of the repeat image, the competent radiographer would

a)

raise the mA and decrease the exposure time

b)

decrease the SID and maintain the same mAs.

c)

ask for mild sedation of the infant to decease respiration.

d)

switch to small focal spot.