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Worksheets

PCL - CHIEF

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following mechanisms does NOT lead to enhanced cardiac contraction or inotropism?

a)

increase in intracellular Calcium levels

b)

binding of actin and myosin

c)

calcium binds to tropoini C

d)

Na+-K+-ATPase is activated

2.

It is a measurement, expressed as a percentage, of how much blood the left ventricle pumps out with each contraction.

a)

Inotropism

b)

Ejection Fraction

c)

Electrocardiograph

d)

Blood pressure

3.

An ejection fraction measurement under 40 percent may be evidence of

a)

cardiac failure

b)

angina pectoris

c)

hypertension

d)

arrythmia

4.

The following are the causes of heart failure, except:

a)

Pericardial tamponade

b)

Ischemia

c)

Edema

d)

Diabetes

5.

Digoxin

a)

Positive Inotrope

b)

No Inotropic Effects

6.

Dobutamine

a)

Positive Inotrope

b)

No Inotropic Effects

7.

Propranolol

a)

Positive Inotrope

b)

No Inotropic Effects

8.

Captopril

a)

Positive Inotrope

b)

No Inotropic Effects

9.

Unloader medications are first line agents for heart failure

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

10.

Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated to patients with heart failure.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

Increase contraction of cardiac sarcomere by increasing the free calcium concentration

a)

Cardiac Glycosides

b)

Beta-1 Agonists

c)

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

12.

Inamrinone and Milrinone

a)

Cardiac Glycosides

b)

Beta-1 Agonists

c)

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

13.

Digoxin, Digitoxin

a)

Cardiac Glycosides

b)

Beta-1 Agonists

c)

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

14.

Dobutamine, Dopamine

a)

Cardiac Glycosides

b)

Beta-1 Agonists

c)

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

15.

prolong actionn potential duration

a)

Class IA: Na channel blockers

b)

Class IB: Na channel blockers

c)

Class IC: Na channel blockers

16.

Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide

a)

Class IA: Na channel blockers

b)

Class IB: Na channel blockers

c)

Class IC: Na channel blockers

17.

shorten the duration of action potential

a)

Class IA: Na channel blockers

b)

Class IB: Na channel blockers

c)

Class IC: Na channel blockers

18.

Tocainide, Mexiletine, Lidocaine, Phenytoin

a)

Class IA: Na channel blockers

b)

Class IB: Na channel blockers

c)

Class IC: Na channel blockers

19.

no effect on action potential

a)

Class IA: Na channel blockers

b)

Class IB: Na channel blockers

c)

Class IC: Na channel blockers

20.

Moricizine, Flecainide, Propafenone, Encainide

a)

Class IA: Na channel blockers

b)

Class IB: Na channel blockers

c)

Class IC: Na channel blockers

21.

Propranolol, Esmolol, Acebutolol

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Miscellaneous  Agents

22.

Amiodarone, Sotalol, Bretylium, Ibutilide, Dofetilide

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Miscellaneous  Agents

23.

Verapamil, Diltiazem

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Miscellaneous  Agents

24.

They are antiarrhythmic agents that act by reducing the rate of phase 0 depolarization, prolonging the effective refractory period, increasing the threshold of excitability, and reducing phase 4 depolarization. These drugs also have local anesthetic properties.

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Class I: Na channel blockers

25.

They are antiarrhythmic agents that act by reducing sympathetic stimulation. They inhibit phase 4 depolarization, depress automaticity, prolong AV conduction, and decrease heart rate (except for agents that have sympathomimetic activity) and contractility.

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Class I: Na channel blockers

26.

They are antiarrhythmic agents that act by prolonging the action potential duration and effective refractory period. These drugs act by interfering with outward K+ currents or slow inward Na+ currents.

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Class I: Na channel blockers

27.

They are antiarrhythmic agents that act by prolonging nodal conduction and effective refractory period and have predominate actions in nodal tissues.

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Class I: Na channel blockers

28.

It is used for treatment of refractory life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in preference to lidocaine; additional uses include the treatment of atrial and/or ventricular arrhythmias including conversion of atrial fibrillation and the suppression of arrhythmias in patients with implanted defibrillators; it also possesses antianginal and vasodilatory effects.

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Ibutilide

c)

Sotalol

d)

Dofetilide

e)

Bretylium

29.

It inhibits the neuronal release of catecholamines,a nd it also has some direct anti-arrhythmic action. It prolongs ventricular action potential but not atrial action potential. This drug is used intravenously for severe refractory ventricular tachyarrhythmias and also for prophylaxis and treatment of ventricular fibrillation.

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Ibutilide

c)

Sotalol

d)

Dofetilide

e)

Bretylium

30.

It is approved for the conversion and maintenance of normal sinus rhythm in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. It is a potent inhibitor of K -channels and has no effect on conduction velocity. Adverse effects include serious arrhythmias and conduction abnormalities.

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Ibutilide

c)

Sotalol

d)

Dofetilide

e)

Bretylium

31.

It prolongs the cardiac action potential, increases the duration of the refractory period, and has nonselective beta-adrenoceptor antagonist activity. Uses include treatment of atrial arrhythmias or life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias and treatment of sustained ventricular tachycardia. Its adverse effects include significant proarrhythmic actions, dyspnea, and dizziness.

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Ibutilide

c)

Sotalol

d)

Dofetilide

e)

Bretylium

32.

These drugs are used to treat tachyarrhythmias caused by increased sympathetic activity. They also are used for a variety of other arrhythmias, including atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation.

a)

Class II: Beta blockers

b)

Class III: K channel blockers

c)

Class IV: Ca channel blockers

d)

Class I: Na channel blockers

33.

drug of choice for the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, including those associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

a)

Adenosine

b)

Magnesium Sulfate

c)

Digoxin

d)

Lidocaine

34.

A dextrorotary isomer antiarrhythmic drug that also exhibits antimalarial, antipyretic, and oxytocic actions

a)

Quinidine

b)

Procainamide

c)

Disopyramide

d)

Lidocaine

35.

An antiarrhythmic drug that produces pronounced anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urine retention, and (rarely) acute angle-closure glaucoma

a)

Quinidine

b)

Procainamide

c)

Disopyramide

d)

Lidocaine