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Pharm Tech, Ch. 1-9 Test Review

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 20hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Although pharmacy technicians cannot help with this type of service, which requires patient counseling, ____ is an increasingly focused trend that requires pharmacists to provide medication therapy review, consultations, immunizations, and disease state management through health and wellness programs.

a)

MTM

b)

DNA

c)

MPA

d)

ICHP

2.

 The first United States Pharmacopeia (USP) was published in ______.

a)

1920

b)

1960

c)

1820

d)

1880

3.

This publication is considered the official public standards-setting authority for all prescription and over-the-counter medicines, dietary supplements, and other health care products manufactured and sold in the United States.

a)

American Journal of Pharmacy

b)

USP

c)

AphA

d)

Nuovo Receptario

4.

The Pharmacy Technician Certification Board, around since ____________, has since certified over 425,000 pharmacy technicians using a standardized exam.

a)

1990

b)

1995

c)

2000

d)

2005

5.

Which pharmaceutical association noted "the establishment of nationally recognized educational standards for pharmacy technicians would be of value" in 1969?

a)

AphA

b)

ASHP

c)

PTCB

d)

ACPE

6.

To be a successful pharmacy technician, it is important to have strong math, computer, and customer service skills; demonstrate initiative; and adapt well to change.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

It is important to remember that patients are often sick or in pain. Pharmacy technicians need to be understanding and forgiving and assume the best in all. This is known as maintaining:

a)

Compassion and empathy.

b)

Trustworthiness.

c)

A professional image.

d)

Team cohesiveness.

8.

Being a pharmacy technician requires you to complete continuing education and keep up to date on current trends, just like many other healthcare jobs.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Both the ExCPT and the PTCE require recertification to occur every:

a)

1 year.

b)

2 years.

c)

5 years.

d)

6 months.

10.

 Continuing education  providers are approved by __________, allowing organizations to offer them for credit.

a)

ASHP

b)

ACPE

c)

PTCB

d)

ICHP

11.

In effective communication, the sender and receiver are constantly changing sides or creating _______________, making it a two-way conversation.

a)

Communication

b)

Feedback

c)

Inflection

d)

Rationalization

12.

80% of all communication is:

a)

Verbal.

b)

Nonverbal.

c)

Written.

d)

Face-to-face.

13.

Accuracy is fundamental in written communication. Two things that impact the accuracy of written communication are:

a)

Expression and grammar.

b)

Grammar and knowledge.

c)

Knowledge and expression.

d)

Legible handwriting and correct grammar.

14.

Disputes, disagreements, and arguments are all considered to be a form of workplace ______________ and can result in a patient's being dealt with improperly.

a)

Communication

b)

Counseling

c)

Conflict

d)

Comfort

15.

Unconscious reactions that are prompted by anxiety are also called:

a)

Defense mechanisms.

b)

Denial.

c)

Displacement.

d)

Projection.

16.

Anytime a patient receives a new prescription they have not previously taken or a refill that raises a DUR, the __________________ must ____________________ with the patient.

a)

Pharmacist; counsel

b)

Technician; counsel

c)

Pharmacist; communicate

d)

Technician; communicate

17.

In addition to the five rights of a patient, the U.S. Congress passed __________________ in 2005.

a)

HIPAA

b)

The Patient Bill of Rights

c)

OSHA

d)

Medline

18.

The federal agency that protects public health and safety through monitoring, prevention, and control of disease is the:

a)

CDC.

b)

CMS.

c)

DEA.

d)

FDA.

19.

The agency that regulates the administration of Medicare, Medicaid, and HIPAA is the:

a)

CDC.

b)

CMS.

c)

DEA.

d)

FDA.

20.

The agency that is responsible for protecting public health and safety by ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications, biologics, and medical devices is the:

a)

CDC.

b)

CMS.

c)

DEA.

d)

FDA.

21.

This agency registers and regulates pharmacies, pharmacists, and pharmacy technicians:

a)

Joint Commission

b)

OSHA

c)

SBOP

d)

ASHP

22.

The agency established to oversee the safety and efficacy of all medications is the:

a)

FDA.

b)

DEA.

c)

OSHA.

d)

FDCA.

23.

Refills are allowed on Schedule III and IV for up to:

a)

1 year.

b)

6 months.

c)

1 month.

d)

No refills are allowed.

24.

Many states specify that a C-II prescription must be filled within _______ of its issue date.

a)

1 day

b)

1 week

c)

1 month

d)

1 year

25.

This law forbade the manufacture, sale, or transport of adulterated or poisonous medications:

a)

Poisoning Prevention Act

b)

Pure Food and Drug Act

c)

Drug, Food, and Cosmetic Act

d)

Controlled Substances Act

26.

This disaster caused 107 deaths and prompted the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic act:

a)

Sulfonamide

b)

Thalidomide

c)

Penicillin

d)

Vioxx

27.

This amendment required that prescription drugs bear the legend "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription."

a)

Poisoning Prevention

b)

Kefauver-Harris

c)

Sherley

d)

Durham-Humphrey

28.

The Kefauver-Harris amendment was in response to this disaster, which caused babies to be born with severe deformities and missing limbs:

a)

Sulfonamide

b)

Thalidomide

c)

Penicillin

d)

Vioxx

29.

This act combined all of the federal laws dealing with narcotics, stimulants, depressants, and abused drugs and established five classes for drugs to be classified within:

a)

Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act

b)

Hazardous Substances Labeling Act

c)

The Drug Listing Act

d)

Drug Addiction Treatment Act

30.

The abbreviation ADE means:

a)

adverse drug effect

b)

adversarial drug effect

c)

adverse drug element

d)

adversarial drug element

31.

The abbreviation DEA means:

a)

Drug Enforcement Administration

b)

Drug Execution Agency

c)

Drug Enforcement Activity

d)

Drug Enforcement Agency

32.

The abbreviation DUR means:

a)

drug utilization review

b)

drug use review

c)

drug usage review

d)

drug usage reassessment

33.

The abbreviation UNG means:

a)

ointment

b)

lactated Ringer's

c)

no known allergies

d)

syrup

34.

The abbreviation NKA means:

a)

no known allergies

b)

no known adversaries

c)

no negative allergens

d)

no known answers

35.

 The abbreviation MRSA means:

a)

methicillin-resistant staph aureus

b)

medication-resistant sodium ammonium

c)

methicillin-resistant sodium ammonium

d)

medication-resistant staph activity

36.

The abbreviation MOM means:

a)

milk of magnesia

b)

microanalysis of microbiology

c)

methicillin or magnesium

d)

medication or mythology

37.

The abbreviation N/V means:

a)

nausea and vomiting

b)

not valid

c)

no validity

d)

no vitamins

38.

What does the abbreviation gtts mean?

a)

Drops

b)

Grain

c)

Microgram

d)

Teaspoon

39.

Which of the following agencies is responsible for publishing and updating the list of dangerous abbreviations?

a)

Food and Drug Administration

b)

Joint Commission

c)

State Board of Pharmacy

d)

Drug Enforcement Agency

40.

The sig code "QS" means:

a)

quantity sufficient

b)

immediately

c)

at bedtime

d)

both ears

41.

The sig code "PRN" means:

a)

as needed

b)

at bedtime

c)

both ears

d)

immediately

42.

A pill-like substance that contains no active ingredients:

a)

Placebo

b)

Herbal

c)

Prescription

d)

Homeopathic

43.

Identical substances all use the same ______________ name.

a)

Trade

b)

Brand

c)

Generic

d)

Trademarked

44.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to select an extended-release medication?

a)

Patients will take more of the medication throughout the day.

b)

Patient compliance will increase.

c)

The medication is administered over a slow, consistent period.

d)

Adverse reactions and side effects are reduced.

45.

Which medications are designed to melt at body temperature?

a)

suppositories

b)

creams

c)

ointments

d)

lotions

46.

Which of the following protects the tablet from stomach acid?

a)

Enteric-coated

b)

Effervescent

c)

Chewable

d)

All of the above

47.

What does parenteral mean?

a)

any administration route that bypasses the GI tract

b)

medication injected into the tissue just below the skin

c)

medication injected into the top layers of the skin

d)

medication injected directly into the muscle

48.

Pharmacy technicians are allowed to use reference materials to aid in answering patient questions.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

All reference materials convey the same information, it is just organized differently for ease of comprehension.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

One of the most common sources used for drug information and referencing:

a)

Monographs

b)

Prescription bottles

c)

Stock bottles

d)

The Internet

51.

The most commonly used reference book in community pharmacies:

a)

Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference

b)

Drug Facts and Comparisons

c)

PDR

d)

AHFS

52.

This reference book is used mostly by physician's offices:

a)

Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference

b)

Drug Facts and Comparisons

c)

Physician's Desk Reference

d)

AHFS

53.

This two-part reference set contains standards that are enforceable by the FDA:

a)

USP-NF

b)

AJHP

c)

PDR

d)

AHFS

54.

 This reference identifies drug products approved on the basis of safety and effectiveness by the FDA and also includes prescription and OTC names listed by trade name:

a)

Red Book

b)

Orange Book

c)

Facts and Comparisons

d)

PDR

55.

This reference contains product information on more than 200,000 prescription and OTC items with a focus on the latest average wholesale price and cost:

a)

Red Book

b)

Orange Book

c)

Facts and Comparisons

d)

PDR

56.

This reference is a dictionary-style book including drug container and storage requirements, lab values, and vaccine information:

a)

Merck Index

b)

American Drug Index

c)

Facts and Comparisons

d)

PDR

57.

This reference book is often referred to as "Chemistry's constant companion":

a)

American Drug Index

b)

Merck Index

c)

Facts and Comparisons

d)

Injectable Medications

58.

Which of the following describes Micromedex?

a)

Groups together many of the leading apps used by physicians, nurses, and pharmacists

b)

Bibliographic database containing more than 19 million references to journals

c)

Provides access for up to 600 medical resources

d)

Adverse drug event reporting

59.

Which of the following describes Medline?

a)

Bibliographic database containing more than 19 million references to journals

b)

Groups together many of the leading apps used by physicians, nurses, and pharmacists

c)

Provides access for up to 600 medical resources

d)

Adverse drug event reporting

60.

 Which of the following describes Medmarx?

a)

Adverse drug event reporting

b)

Bibliographic database containing more than 19 million references to journals

c)

Provides access for up to 600 medical resources

d)

Groups together many of the leading apps used by physicians, nurses, and pharmacists

61.

Medications purchased at the pharmacy that do not require a prescription:

a)

Behind-the-counter

b)

Over-the-counter

c)

Durable medical equipment

d)

Testing supplies

62.

Per DEA regulations, any medication on this control schedule must be locked up at all times:

a)

II

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

All schedules

63.

The agency that registers and regulates retail pharmacy facilities, pharmacists, and technicians:

a)

DEA

b)

CMS

c)

FDA

d)

SBOP

64.

This agency has the ability to regulate the sale and usage of narcotics:

a)

DEA

b)

CMS

c)

FDA

d)

SBOP

65.

This agency regulates Medicare, Medicaid, and State Children's Health Insurance Programs:

a)

DEA

b)

CMS

c)

FDA

d)

SBOP

66.

Poison control centers receive about ________ calls yearly regarding accidental poisoning in children younger than 5.

a)

Two million

b)

One million

c)

One-half of a million

d)

Three-fourths of a million

67.

Identification numbers assigned to each drug product:

a)

NDC

b)

UPC

c)

DEA

d)

Item Code

68.

Is the following DEA number valid or not valid?

Dr. Haley Epsy, BE3456781

a)

Valid

b)

Not valid

69.

Is the following DEA number valid or not valid?

Dr. Matt Johnson, AJ4631789

a)

Not valid

b)

Valid

70.

What would the last digit be to make this a valid DEA number?

AB172524____

a)

7

b)

0

c)

4

d)

2

71.

What would the last digit be to make this a valid DEA number?

BD931486___

a)

4

b)

7

c)

0

d)

2

72.

What would the last digit be to make this a valid DEA number?

AZ637894____

a)

2

b)

4

c)

7

d)

0

73.

Auxiliary labels are brightly colored labels used to educate the patient about a particular warning.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Which of the following is a tell-tale sign of a forged prescription?

a)

Writing is too hard to read.

b)

Abbreviations are not used.

c)

Large quantity that is within dosing recommendations

d)

Unknown prescriber

75.

You should inform the pharmacists of possible fraud when:

a)

The patient seems to know a lot about their medication.

b)

The patient runs out of medication a day sooner than indicated.

c)

The patient returns to the pharmacy several times in one week for refills.

d)

The patient is aware of doctors in the area.

76.

Pharmacists often work with dieticians, nurses, and lab personnel to discuss drug therapy for a patient.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

This type of pharmacy is regulated by the Joint Commission, The State Board of Pharmacy, Centers for Medicaid and Medicare, and the Department of Public Health:

a)

Hospital

b)

Community

c)

LTC

d)

Hospice

78.

This agency registers and regulates pharmacists, technicians, and community pharmacies:

a)

SBOP

b)

TJC

c)

CMS

d)

FDA

79.

Pharmacy expiration dates on bulk pack items need to be ________ from the date of bulk packing or one-fourth of the remaining manufacturer expiration date, whichever is sooner.

a)

4 months

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

9 months

80.

A medication bulk-packed on May 20, 2012, came from a stock bottle with an expiration date of February 2014. What date will you place on the labels?

a)

November 2012

b)

May 20, 2012

c)

February 2014

d)

May 20, 2013

81.

An order was bulk-packed on January 5, 2013, using a stock bottle with an expiration date of October 2013. What expiration date will you place on the labels?

a)

July 2013

b)

January 5, 2013

c)

October 2013

d)

July 2014