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Year 10 Bio Revision

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

2.

Which of the following DNA nucleotides are paired with the correct corresponding DNA nucleotide? (mark all that apply)

a)

Adenine with Thymine

b)

Guanine with Cytosine

c)

Thymine with Cytosine

d)

Adenine with Uracil.

e)

Uracil with Thymine

3.

Which is the role of DNA polymerase?

a)

Unwinds the original DNA strand

b)

Lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

Builds new strands by bringing in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Remove Okazaki fragments for new nucleotides.

4.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
5.

What makes up the SIDES of a DNA ladder?

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

sugars & phosphates

c)

genes & chromosomes

d)

RNA

6.

If one strand of a DNA molecule has the following order of bases, what will be the correct order of bases on the complementary (matching) strand?

AATTGGCC

a)

AATTGGCC

b)

TTAACCGG

c)

GGCCAATT

d)

GACTGACT

7.

Choose the correct complementary nucleotide sequence for the following:

AAA - GTA - CCC

a)

CCC - TGA - AAA

b)

AAA - CAG - GGG

c)

TTT - CAT - GGG

d)

GGG - TGA - CCC

8.

Choose the correct complementary nucleotide sequence for the following:

CCC - ACT - GGG

a)

CCC - TGA - AAA

b)

AAA - CAG - GGG

c)

TTT - CAT - GGG

d)

GGG - TGA - CCC

9.
What percentage of chromosomes are contributed by a sperm cell?
a)
75%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
10.
Before a cell can divide, what must happen?
a)
Nothing, it is always ready to divide
b)
The number of chromosomes must be reduced by half
c)
The  chromosomes must replicate
d)
The number of chromosomes must triple.
11.
After meiosis,  the haploid number of chromosomes in a human sex cell is:
a)
46
b)
92
c)
22
d)
23
12.
At the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
13.
Meiosis creates how many cells?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
14.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
15.
Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
16.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
17.
If a somatic cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
18.
After meiosis is complete, the new cells:
a)
are all identical
b)
are all different
c)
are half identical and half different
d)
are all stretched out
19.

Crossing over occurs in meiosis, select the correct answer. Crossing over....

a)

increases genetic variation

b)

takes place in prophase I

c)

where genetic materials changes within homologous pairs

d)

all are correct

20.

Which part of meiosis produces diversity in gametes?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Prophase

c)

Crossing-over

d)

Cytokinesis

21.

Involved in growth and repair

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

22.
The process on the left is:
The process on the right is:
a)
Left: meiosis
Right: meiosis
b)
Left: meiosis
Right: cloning
c)
Left: mitosis
Right: meiosis
d)
Left: mitosis
Right: mitosis
23.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
24.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

25.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
26.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
27.

Point mutation is the chance of a SINGLE nucleotide

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Inserting or deleting

one or more

nucleotides indicated what type of mutation

a)

Chromosome

b)

Point

c)

Frameshift

d)

None of these

29.

a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

30.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
31.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
32.
Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.
a)
female
b)
male
33.

A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. What would you call this?

a)

Trisomy X

b)

Monosomy X

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Monosomy 15

34.

Identify the chromosomal disorder

a)

Monosomy

b)

Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)

c)

A missing sex chromosome

d)

Trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

35.

In pea plants, round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r). Which of the following represents the genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous?

a)

RR

b)

round

c)

Rr

d)

wrinkled

e)

rr

36.

In pea plants, round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r). Which of the following represents the genotype of a pea plant that is homozygous dominant?

a)

RR

b)

round

c)

Rr

d)

wrinkled

e)

rr

37.

In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to white fur (b). According to the Punnett square shown, the offspring in box 4 would:

a)

be white.

b)

be heterozygous.

c)

be gray.

d)

be homozygous.

38.

In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to white fur (b). According to the Punnett square shown, how many offspring would be black?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

39.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f).


Two people with freckles get married and give birth to three children. Two of the kids have freckles and one does not.


Both parents must have which genotype?

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

40.
A red flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
41.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
42.

For haemophilia, let H be the normal allele and h the mutant allele.


Which is the genotype of the unaffected male?

a)

XhY

b)

XHXH

c)

XHXh

d)

XHY

43.

Color blindness is carried by the X chromosome.


A mother is a carrier of color blindness. Her husband has normal vision.


The probability of having a color blind offspring is (a)   percent.

44.
Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked disease or disorder because
a)
males are the weaker sex
b)
males have less DNA
c)
males have 1 X chromosome, so the disorder is more likely to be expressed
45.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
46.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
47.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

48.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
49.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
50.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
51.
What does an open circle represent?
a)
Not Affected Male
b)
Not Affected Female
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
52.
In the second generation-how many people have the disease or display the physical trait?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
53.

This is a recessive disease pedigree. What is the genotype of the male in generation I?

a)

Rr

b)

RR

c)

R?

d)

rr

54.

This pedigree shows affected people with the recessive trait. What is the genotype of someone with a shaded in shape?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

A?

d)

aa

55.

The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population forms a

a)

phenotype

b)

gene pool

c)

population

d)

niche

56.

The variety of different types of genes in a species or population

a)

Speciation

b)

Genetic variation

c)

Artificial selection

d)

Evolution

57.

Evolutionary change on a small scale

a)

macroevolution

b)

microevolution

c)

coevolution

d)

parallel evolution

58.

Process by which unrelated organisms develop similarities due to living in similar environments

a)

family descent

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

convergent evolution

d)

divergent evolution

59.

Process by which closely related organisms develop differences due to living in different environments

a)

family descent

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

convergent evolution

d)

divergent evolution

60.

A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g. dropped the population from 8000 to 800). In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 of the remaining seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific Ocean. Which of the following statements would accurately describe the new population?  

a)

The new seal population is genetically less diverse than the original population 

b)

The new seal population is genetically more diverse than the original population

c)

There is equal genetic variety compared  to the original population 

d)

None of the answers

61.

Happens only in small populations, and is the change in the frequency of a gene variant (allele) in a population due to random sampling of organisms.

a)

Extinction

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Gene flow

d)

Mutations

62.

This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.

a)

Extinction

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Natural Selection

63.

If a new trait DOES help an organism survive, what may happen to it?

a)

It dies and its DNA is not passed on

b)

It survives and its DNA is passed on

c)

It changes its traits to adapt and survive

64.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.

65.

A random change in allele frequencies over generations brought about by chance.

a)

genetic drift

b)

gene flow

66.

When allele frequencies change due to individuals leaving a population

a)

genetic drift

b)

gene flow

67.

Phenotypic forms at both ends of the range are favoured and the intermediate forms are selected against.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

68.

 

Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...

a)

random chance

b)

natural selection

c)

non-random mating (sexual selection)

d)

artificial selection

69.

Select the best answer based on the image

a)

Gene flow

b)

Genetic drift

70.

Yellow toucan birds seek out one another to make babies together and tend to avoid the green toucan birds.

a)

Nonrandom mating

b)

gene flow

c)

mutation

d)

natural selection

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