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Grade 9 EndSem1 Review for exam

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a root hair cell?

a)

Root hairs are tubular outgrowths of an epidermal cell of a root, A hair-forming cell on the epidermis (The outer layer of tissue in a plant) of a plant root.

b)

Root hairs are the tiny spikes of a plant found in a cell. They are made spikey so that if any insects come near it it will automatically hurt them. They also have a special venom called ethomirtis.

c)

Root hairs are tiny little rubbery hairs which are on the stem of a plant.

2.

DIFFERENT CELLS HAVE DIFFERENT FUNCTIONS. NAME THE CELL THAT CARRIES OUT EACH FUNCTION.

(1) Move mucus up through the airways

a)

red blood cell

b)

root hair cell

c)

palisade cell

d)

neurone

e)

ciliated cell

3.

Absorbs water from the soil

a)

blood red cell

b)

root hair cell

c)

palisade cell

d)

neurone

e)

ciliated cell

4.

Makes food by photosynthesis

a)

neurone

b)

palisade cell

c)

ciliated cell

d)

root hair cell

e)

red blood cell

5.
4 lines
6.

Remember the functions of a plant cell. Write the function next to the part below.

4 lines
7.

What is the name of this cell?

4 lines
8.

What is the function of this cell?

4 lines
9.

Name the system in the human body that this cell is part of

4 lines
10.

In a complex organism, such as a human or a plant, similar cells are grouped together to form a __________

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

11.

The stomach is an example of .......................

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

12.

The heart and blood vessels are all part of the same ___________

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

13.

Heat energy from the movement of atoms

a)

Sound Energy

b)

Elastic Energy

c)

Chemical Energy

d)

Thermal Energy

14.

Movement of electrons to transmit electricity

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Electrical Energy

c)

Chemical Energy

d)

Elastic Energy

15.

Movement of electrons to transmit electricity

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Electrical Energy

c)

Chemical Energy

d)

Elastic Energy

16.

A rubber band pulled back

a)

Elastic Energy

b)

Sound Energy

c)

Thermal Energy

d)

Nuclear Energy

17.

The capacity to do work is the definition of . . .

a)

Energy

b)

Work

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Combustion

e)

Heat

18.

To overcome an opposing force, or to change the motion of an object, is the definition of . . .

a)

Work

b)

Energy

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Combustion

e)

Temperature

19.

Energy of motion is known as . . .

a)

Kinetic Energy

b)

Potential Energy

c)

Nuclear Energy

d)

Elastic Energy

e)

Temperature

20.

Energy of position, or configuration, is known as . . .

a)

Kinetic Energy

b)

Potential Energy

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Combustion

e)

Temperature

21.

The two most basic, or fundamental, forms of energy are . . .

a)

Chemical Energy and Nuclear Energy

b)

Gravitational Energy and Thermal Energy

c)

Kinetic Energy and Elastic Energy

d)

Potential Energy and Electric Potential Energy

e)

Potential Energy and Kinetic Energy

22.

Potential energy which results from the force of gravity is known as . . .

a)

Chemical Energy

b)

Nuclear Energy

c)

Gravitational Energy

d)

Kinetic Energy

e)

Electromagnetic Energy

23.

what adaptations help an animal hide?

a)

eating hot Cheetos

b)

camouflage

c)

long claws

d)

short attention spans

24.

What is the best definition of animal adaptation?

a)

Changes to an animal's diet.

b)

Characteristics that help animals survive.

c)

Characteristics of an animal's habitat.

d)

Skills learned in order to hunt.

25.

True or false: All animals have adaptations that help them survive in their habitat.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Partially true: Not all animals have adaptations

d)

Partially true: adaptations are not for surviving

26.

What does the flow of energy through an ecosystem always begin with?

a)

Primary Producers

b)

Primary Consumers

c)

Heterotrophs

d)

Grass

27.

Diagram shows a model of human respiratory system. K represents....

a)

lung

b)

rib cage

c)

diaphragm

d)

thoracic cavity

28.

What is X?

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchus

c)

Bronchiole

d)

Epiglottis

29.

Name structure Y.

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchus

c)

Bronchiole

d)

Alveolus

30.

Also also called the windpipe.

a)

a. larynx

b)

b. esophagus

c)

c. trachea

d)

d. bronchi

31.
Label B is...
a)
Trachea
b)
Diagphragm
c)
Bronchus
d)
Alveolus
32.
Label A is...
a)
Trachea
b)
Diagphragm
c)
Bronchus
d)
Alveolus
33.

What does the respiratory system release?

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

34.
What is the main function of the respiratory system?
a)
to provide oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the body
b)
to bring oxygen to the body
c)
to break down food and absorb nutrients
d)
to remove oxygen from the body and deliver carbon dioxide
35.
The substances listed on the right side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Yields
b)
Reactants
c)
Products
d)
Precipitates
36.

The process by which one or more substances change to produce one or more different substances

a)

Chemical Process

b)

Reactant

c)

Chemical Reaction

37.
What are Chemical Reactions?
a)
It's when you mix substances.
b)
a process in which atoms rearrange to form new substances
c)
When something bubbles.
d)
letter and numbers showing the types and number of atoms
38.

Which example provides evidence of a chemical change?

a)

Wood releases ash and smoke when burned.

b)

Rock particles separate when soil is being sifted.

c)

Boiling water bubbles when being heated.

d)

Sugar is not visible when dissolved in water.

39.

When vinegar and baking soda are combined, bubbles and foam are produced.

What evidence demonstrates that a chemical change has occurred?

a)

A color change occurs.

b)

A gas is formed.

c)

A solid is dissolved.

d)

A precipitate is formed.

40.

Students performed investigations using water and three chemicals, baking soda, calcium chloride, and phenol red solution.  The student observations are shown in the table.

Which investigations above provide supporting evidence that a new substance formed?

a)

Investigations 1, 2, and 3

b)

Investigations 1, 3, and 5

c)

Investigations 2, 3, and 4

d)

Investigations 3, 4, and 5

41.

In an endothermic reaction, heat is ...

a)

taken in

b)

given out

42.
In an exothermic reaction, heat is ...
a)
taken in
b)
given out
43.

6. Which of these processes is always exothermic?

a)

A. evaporation

b)

B. burning

c)

C. insulation

d)

D. melting

44.
If a chemical reaction is EXOTHERMIC, the temperature would....
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
45.
Baking bread and cooking an egg are examples of....?
a)
Endothermic processes
b)
Exothermic processess
c)
None of these 
46.
During an endothermic reaction in a beaker if we are part of the surroundings and touched the beaker, it would feel _______. 
a)
Warm
b)
Cold
47.

The change in an objects position from the final position to initial position.

a)

displacement

b)

distance

c)

motion

d)

reference point

48.

Q. The mixing of acids and alkalis in order to form salt and water is what we called (a)  

49.

2. What are the products formed when acid neutralises with alkali?

(a)  

50.
Pure water has a pH of 7. Pure water _______.
a)
is a base
b)
is a neutral substance
c)
could be either an acid or a base
d)
is an acid
51.

Complete the word equation below:

Acid + alkali --> ............... + water

a)

water

b)

salt

c)

gold

d)

metal

52.

.............................. + sodium hydroxide --> sodium chloride + water

a)

Nitric acid

b)

Sulphuric acid

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Ethanoic acid

53.

The data table shows the results of an experiment where a model car was modified and rolled down a track. Determine the relationship between Wheel Diameter and TIME.

a)

There is no direct relationship shown in the data.

b)

When the wheel diameter decreases the time increases.

c)

When the wheel diameter decreases the time decreases.

d)

When the wheel diameter increases the time increases.

54.

Which country had the longest average stay in Australia?

a)

New Zealand

b)

China

c)

United Kingdom

d)

Canada

55.

What does a graph allow us to see?

a)

Lines

b)

Data

c)

Patterns and trends

d)

Numbers

56.

What graph is needed to show the amount of rainfall over a 12 month period?

a)

Bar graph

b)

Line graph

c)

Scatterplot

d)

Pie chart

57.

The Y-Axis is which line?

a)

Vertical (up and down)

b)

Horizontal (left and right)

58.

What are intervals?

a)

The pattern you number the axis with

b)

The numbers on the axis

c)

The variables

59.

The image shows a PH scale. Which option indicates strong alkali?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

60.

The image shows a PH scale. Which option indicates strong acid?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

61.

What does the word 'alkali' means

a)

bitter

b)

The ashes

c)

sour

d)

burn

62.

These house hold items were made of ____________.

a)

acids

b)

alkalis

63.

What is the colour of litmus solution?

a)

blue

b)

purple

c)

green

d)

pink

64.

A purple colour when using universal indicator indicates the solution is _______________.

a)

neutral

b)

acidic

c)

alkali

d)

blackcurrant juice

65.

What is the range of pH scale?

a)

0 -14

b)

1 - 14

c)

1 - 6

d)

12 - 14

66.

What colour does litmus paper turn when added to an alkali?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Colourless

67.

Which chemical tastes bitter?

a)

Acid

b)

Base

68.

Acid mixed with a base will __________ the mixture.

a)

nullify

b)

neutralize

c)

balance

d)

naturalize

69.

A neutralisation reaction produces...

a)

Acids

b)

Bases

c)

neutral water

d)

pH > 7

70.

If all masses are 20g, which material has the GREATEST volume? (Volume = mass/density)

a)

Oil

b)

Kool-aid

c)

Sprite

d)

Vinegar

71.

If I cut a block of gold in half, what happens to its density?

a)

Density is cut in half.

b)

Density stays the same.

c)

Density doubles.

d)

Density cannot be determined.

72.

Can a single instrument measure density directly?

a)

Yes, the graduated cylinder.

b)

Yes, the scale.

c)

Yes, a ruler.

d)

No. You need mass and volume.

73.

What happens to the density of the balloon if volume is doubled?

a)

The density is cut in half.

b)

The density stays the same.

c)

The density doubles.

d)

Not enough information to tell.

74.

What is volume?

a)

The amount of a space a substance takes up.

b)

The amount of matter in a substance.

c)

The amount of substance packed into a given space.

d)

The mass of a substance divided by the space it takes up.

75.

What is mass?

a)

The amount of a space a substance takes up.

b)

The amount of matter in a substance.

c)

The amount of substance packed into a given space.

d)

The mass of a substance divided by the space it takes up.

76.

What happens to new traits that HELP organisms survive over time?

a)

Nothing

b)

That trait becomes MORE COMMON in the population

c)

That trait becomes LESS COMMON in a population

d)

Equally common

77.

The change in traits over time in a population is known as

a)

Evolution

b)

Mutation

c)

Selection

d)

Traits

78.

What most likely caused the finches on the Galapagos Islands to have beaks that were different from the finches on the mainland?

a)

There were different types of predators on the islands.

b)

The finches on the mainland could not fly high enough.

c)

There was no water on the islands.

d)

There were different food types on each island.

79.

Organisms with the best suited adaptations for their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce than organisms that are not very well adapted

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

creationism

80.

Select the word that goes best with the image

a)

camouflage

b)

survive

c)

theory

81.

Select the right word for this definition:

"removed from existence."

a)

mutated

b)

fossil

c)

extinct

82.

A giraffe has a long neck in order to better reach leaves to eat. This is an example of _____.

a)

an adaptation

b)

environment

c)

response

d)

stimulus

83.

What is a scientific theory?

a)

An explanation that makes a lot of sense

b)

An explanation that is supported by evidence

c)

An explanation that is popular among the public

d)

An explanation that has been proved and is now scientific law

84.

Who is Charles Darwin?

a)

An elected 1953 US President

b)

An English naturalist credited for the theory of Natural Selection

c)

The founder of gravitation and its laws

d)

The Father of Medicine who created the Hippocratic Oath

85.

Charles Darwin is most known for his...

a)

Discovery of Penicillin during the Industrialization Era

b)

Contribution towards the invention of computer technology

c)

Published Theory of Natural Selection during the late 1830s

d)

Calculation of pi and laws of exponents.

86.

"Only the _______ will survive."

Charles Darwin, 1809-1882.

a)

Adaptive

b)

Fittest

c)

Modern

d)

Smartest

87.
How many neutrons does the isotope of lithium have?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
88.
Found in the nucleus of the atom
a)
electrons only
b)
protons only
c)
neutrons and protons
d)
neutrons and electrons
89.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of __________ but different number of __________ . Therefore, isotopes of the same element have different masses. 
a)
protons, neutrons
b)
protons, electrons
c)
neutrons, protons
d)
electrons, protons
90.
An atom is electrically neutral when
a)
protons and neutrons are the same
b)
protons and electrons are the same
c)
neutrons and electrons are the same
d)
neutrons balance the protons and electrons
91.
What is an isotope? 
a)
A charged atom
b)
An atom with different amounts of neutrons
c)
An atom with different amounts of protons
d)
A neutral atom
92.
What is the atomic number of this atom?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
9
d)
none of the above
93.

Where are Group 1 elements on the Periodic Table?

a)

Far right

b)

Far left

c)

In the middle

d)

Top, horizontal row

94.

What happens to the density of Group 1 elements as you move down the group?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Increases then decreases

e)

Decreases then increases

95.

Group 1 elements have a high melting point compared to other metals, true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Group 1 elements consist of: lithium, potassium, caesium, rubidium, and francium. Which element have we missed out?

a)

hydrogen

b)

sulfur

c)

manganese

d)

sodium

97.

Aluminium is an element in the periodic table that always exists as a diatomic molecule

a)

True

b)

False

c)

I dont know

d)

will let you know

98.
I have an object that is dull, brittle, and an insulator, what is it?
a)
metalloid
b)
non-metal
c)
metal
d)
matter
99.
Non-metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. 
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
100.

Which particle has a positive electrical charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

101.

Which of the three particles has the smallest mass?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

102.

What is sub-atomic particle discovered by Rutherford?

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

103.

Who did gold foil experiment for the first time?

a)

Thompson

b)

Rutherford

c)

Chadwick

d)

Newton

104.

Which one is the result of Rutherford's gold foil experiment?

a)

atom is mostly empty space, with their particles packed into a dense nucleus at the centre

b)

the electrons are scattered

throughout the atom

c)

the electrons and the protons are grouped closely together in the center

d)

the protons and neutrons are scattered

throughout the atom

105.
Which best describes the process of convection?
a)
Convection is the primary way  heat travels  through rays.
b)
Convection is the primary way heat travels  through metals.
c)
Convection is the primary way heat travels  through appliances.
d)
Convection is the primary way heat travels  through liquids and gasses.
106.
How is heat transferred when boiling a pot of water on the stove?
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
combustion
d)
radiation
107.
What is the definition of CONVECTION
a)
When heat transfers through waves.
b)
When heat transfers from objects that are touching.
c)
a  hot liquid or air that  expands, becomes less dense, and rises or becomes more dense, and sinks.
d)
Heat traveling from the sun
108.

How does heat energy reach the Earth from the Sun

a)

Convection

b)

Radiation

c)

Conduction

d)

Insulation

109.
Which of the following is needed for convection to happen?
a)
Fluid/s
b)
Light in the form or rays
c)
Electromagnetic waves
d)
Fire
110.
What is the definition of CONDUCTION?
a)
When heat is transferred from objects like rays of light or electromagnetically.
b)
a  hot liquid or air that  expands, becomes less dense, and rises or becomes more dense, and sinks.
c)
When heat transfers from objects that are touching.
d)
When heat transfers through the heater or AC in your house.
111.
How many kinds of heat transfer are there?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4 or more
112.
Radiation= 
a)
physical contact
b)
warm air rising
c)
heat moving through empty space
d)
say what?
113.

The transfer of energy by waves or particles is called

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

insulation

114.

Which of the following is essential for the process but not a reactant in photosynthesis?

a)

light

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

115.

A student is planning to investigate photosynthesis. Select a suitable statement to explain her hypothesis.

a)

Plants need light for photosynthesis.

b)

Only the green parts of a plant carry out photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis needs light, so if the intensity of light changes, then the rate of photosynthesis should change too.

116.

A student's hypothesis is that light intensity affects the rate of photosynthesis. Which idea would be the most suitable way to test this hypothesis using the apparatus shown?

a)

Change the distance and see how that affects the temperature of the water.

b)

Change the distance and see how that affects the number of bubbles produced by the pondweed in 2 minutes.

c)

Change the type of plant and see how that affects the number of bubbles produced by the pondweed in 2 minutes.

117.

What is the independent variable (the thing you change) in this investigation?

a)

distance from the lamp to the pondweed

b)

number of bubbles of oxygen produced in 2 minutes

c)

temperature of the water

118.

What is the dependent variable (the thing you measure) in this investigation?

a)

distance from the lamp to the pondweed

b)

number of bubbles of oxygen produced in 2 minutes

c)

temperature of the water

119.

Which of the following variables could affect the number of bubbles produced in 2 minutes?

a)

light in the room other than the lamp

b)

all of the variables

c)

the temperature of the water

d)

the surface area of the pondweed

120.

The measurements in the table have been repeated three times. Why should you repeat measurements?

a)

to make it easier to spot anomalies

b)

to test a different range of values for the independent variable

c)

to be able to work out mean results

121.

Which cell contains an anomalous result?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

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