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WorksheetsCTFL-120622a
Total questions: 28
Worksheet time: 42mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging?
a)
Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities
b)
Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures
c)
Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults
d)
Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures
2.
Which of the following is a typical objective of testing
a)
To find defects and failures
b)
To validate the project plan works as required
c)
Ensuring of complete testing
d)
Comparing actual results with expected results
3.
Which of the following BEST defines risk level?
a)
Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them
b)
Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage
c)
Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event
d)
Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system
4.
You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity?
a)
It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object
b)
It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool
c)
It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing
d)
It is a static test because static testing does not involve execution of the test object
5.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
6-10, 6-15, 7-12
b)
6-15, 9-11
c)
6-10, 6-15, 9-11
d)
6-15, 7-12
6.
Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?
a)
Budget limitations
b)
Test log
c)
Failure rate
d)
Use cases
7.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing
b)
Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design
c)
Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing
d)
Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing
8.
You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.</br>Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field?
a)
0.3, 10.0, 28.0
b)
0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24, 9, 25, 0, 25.1
c)
0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1
d)
0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0
9.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005
b)
01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003
c)
01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001
d)
01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005
10.
You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.</br>Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?
a)
10.0, 28.0
b)
0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1
c)
0.2, 0.9, 29.5
d)
12.3
11.
A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:
a)
The root-cause
b)
The failure
c)
The error
d)
The defect
12.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?
a)
The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture
b)
The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team
c)
The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements
d)
The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery
13.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
2
d)
4
14.
In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?
a)
It ensures that requirements are detailed enough
b)
Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality
c)
It ensures that standards in the organization are followed
d)
It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases
15.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse
b)
Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive
c)
Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative
d)
Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical
16.
Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing?
a)
More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing
b)
Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques
c)
The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance
d)
Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques
17.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C
b)
9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C
c)
10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C
d)
14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C
18.
You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more proficient at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that is MOST DIRECTLY related to the team’s increased velocity?
a)
Increasing total cost of quality
b)
Reducing testing cost
c)
Increasing development productivity
d)
Reducing total cost of quality
19.
Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?
a)
Test case status
b)
Defect find/fix rates
c)
Test environment preparation
d)
Estimated cost to find the next defect
20.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
1D, 2B, 3C, 4A
b)
1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
c)
1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
d)
1D, 2B, 3A, 4C
21.
In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?
a)
Facilitator
b)
Programmer
c)
Author
d)
Project manager
22.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
The activity of developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2
b)
The activity of testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5
c)
Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4
d)
The activity of developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1
23.
Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?
a)
Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing
b)
Review tests developed by others
c)
Prepare and acquire test data
d)
Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability
24.
Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?
a)
100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage
b)
100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage
c)
50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage
d)
Decision coverage can never reach 100%
25.
Which one of the following is TRUE?
a)
The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects
b)
The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment
c)
The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed
d)
The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed
26.
Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this self-testing activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively
a)
Good communication skills
b)
Code coverage
c)
Evaluating code defects
d)
Attention to detail
27.
Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?
a)
Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks
b)
Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness
c)
Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness
d)
Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost
28.
What is decision coverage?
a)
The coverage of condition outcomes
b)
Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage
c)
The coverage of executable statements
d)
The coverage of decision outcomes
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