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22-23 Chem 1 Sem 1 Exam Review

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Drinking water and eating is allowed in the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Chemicals should never be directly inhaled.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The teacher must be notified about spills.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Broken glass can be thrown away in the regular trash can.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Indicate the Number of Significant Figures in the following numbers:

 

0.000000210

a)

8

b)

3

c)

2

d)

10

6.

Indicate the Number of Significant Figures in the following numbers:

67891000

a)

5

b)

4

c)

8

d)

6

7.

Change 756670 to scientific notation with proper significant figures

a)

7.56670 x 105

b)

7.57 x 105

c)

7.57 x 104

d)

7.5667 x 105

8.

Change 0.0002990 to scientific notation with proper significant figures

a)

2.99 x 10-4

b)

2.990 x 10-4

c)

2.990 x 104

d)

2.99 x 104

9.

Change 5.680 x 102 to standard notation using correct significant figures

a)

568

b)

0.05680

c)

568.0

d)

0.0568

10.

Change 6.78 x 10-4 to standard notation using correct significant figures

a)

0.000678

b)

0.00678

c)

678000

d)

6780

11.

A micropipette is an important tool for delivering small amounts of liquid. Usually, the volumes are measured in µL (microliters). A scientist is testing a micropipette and wants to deliver a volume of 10 µL. Here are the following volumes delivered (in µL) when tested:

8.9       9.1       8.8       8.7       7.5       9.0       7.4       8.5       6.5       5.5       5.8

      Is the Following data Precise and/or accurate?

a)

Precise, Accurate

b)

Precise, Not Accurate

c)

Not Precise, Accurate

d)

Not Precise, Not Accurate

12.

Assuming the center of this target is the desired result,

      what does the data on the target depict?

a)

accuracy

b)

precision

c)

both

d)

neither

13.

Match the measurement to the proper SI Unit:

Mass   

a)

mol

b)

L

c)

m

d)

s

e)

g

14.

Match the measurement to the proper SI Unit:

Amount of Particles

a)

mol

b)

L

c)

m

d)

s

e)

g

15.

Match the measurement to the proper SI Unit:

Time

a)

mol

b)

L

c)

m

d)

s

e)

g

16.

Match the measurement to the proper SI Unit:

Volume

a)

mol

b)

L

c)

m

d)

s

e)

g

17.

Convert 256 mL (milliliters) to L (liters)

a)

2.56 L

b)

0.256 L

c)

256000 L

d)

25600 L

18.

Convert 658 km (kilometers) to cm (centimeters)

a)

65800 cm

b)

65800000 cm

c)

0.0000658 cm

d)

0.000658 cm

19.

Which state of matter has a definite volume but not a definite shape?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

20.

In which state(s) of matter can materials take the shape of their containers?

a)

solid and liquid

b)

solid and gas

c)

liquid and gas

d)

liquid only

21.

If the speed of an object increases, its kinetic energy

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

stays the same

22.

Which of these phase changes does not involve changing a liquid into a gas?

a)

sublimation

b)

vaporization

c)

evaporation

d)

boiling

23.

Which of the following phase changes is endothermic?

a)

Freezing

b)

melting

c)

condensation

d)

depositiondeposition

24.

_____________________ energy is energy of movement.

a)

thermal

b)

kinetic

c)

potential

d)

chemical

25.

During a phase change, temperature

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Fluctuates

d)

Remains Constant

26.

Which of the phases takes the shape of a container, but does not fill the entire volume of a container?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

27.

Aisha is using a computer model to explore what happens to the particles in water when it changes from a liquid to a gas. What will the model show about the motion of liquid water and water vapor?

a)

The motion of the particles is the same in both states, but they move faster in the gas state.

b)

The particles in the liquid do not move, but the particles in a gas can move back-and-forth.

c)

The particles in a gas can slide past each other, while the particles in a liquid are locked in place.

d)

The particles in a liquid can slide past each other, while the particles in a gas are free to move in all directions.

28.

Dry Ice turning directly into Carbon Dioxide Gas is called

a)

Deposition

b)

Melting

c)

Boiling

d)

Sublimation

29.

_______________ discovered the electron

a)

Dalton

b)

Rutherford

c)

Thompson

d)

Bohr

30.

Which scientist developed the “plum pudding” model of the atom?

a)

Democritus

b)

Dalton

c)

Thomson

d)

Rutherford

31.

_______________used the Gold Foil (discovered the electron) experiment to prove that _____________’s model of the atom was incorrect.

a)

Dalton; Thompson

b)

Thompson; Dalton

c)

Thompson; Rutherford

d)

Rutherford: Thompson

32.

___________’s model of the atom was a solid tiny sphere.

a)

Dalton

b)

Rutherford

c)

Thompson

d)

Bohr

33.

Which of the following was Dalton incorrect about?

A. Atoms are indivisible                                                 

B. Atoms combine in fixed ratios to make compounds

C. All atoms of a given element are identical    

D. Atoms are rearranged in chemical reactions to make new compounds

a)

A & B

b)

A & C

c)

A & D

34.

Which subatomic particle has a mass that is nearly zero?

a)

Neutron

b)

Electron

c)

Proton

35.

Which subatomic particle is neutrally charged?

a)

Proton

b)

Electron

c)

Neutron

36.

Which subatomic particle is outside the nucleus?

a)

Proton

b)

Electron

c)

Neutron

37.

True or False: The overall charge of an atom is neutral because the charge of protons and the charge of neutrons cancel out.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Isotopes have the same number of __________ but a different number of ____________.

a)

Protons; electrons

b)

Neutrons; protons

c)

Protons; Neutrons

d)

Neutrons; electrons

39.

1.      ________ is the isotope notation of carbon-12. _________ is the isotope notation of carbon-14

a)

612C ; 614C      

b)

1412C ; 1414C

c)

66C ; 86C

d)

126C ; 146C

40.

How many neutrons are in Hydrogen-3?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

41.

What is the isotope notation of an isotope with atomic number 74 and 110 neutrons?

a)

11074W

b)

74110W

c)

11074As

d)

18474W

42.

Which element has 33 protons?

a)

S

b)

As

c)

Ge

d)

Se

43.

How many protons, electrons, and neutrons are in Pm?

Atomic Number: 61

Mass: 147

a)

p: 61 e-: 61 n:86

b)

p: 61 e-: 61 n:147

c)

p: 61 e-: 86 n:61

d)

p: 147 e-: 61 n:61

44.

What is the isotope notation of a neutrally charged isotope with 92 electrons and a mass of 235?

a)

92235U

b)

14392U

c)

23592U

d)

92143U

45.

What is the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?

a)

Radiation

b)

oxidation

c)

decomposition

d)

none of the above

46.

42He is the symbol for which particle?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

electron

47.

The half-life of a radioisotope is the amount of time it takes for

a)

half the sample to decay

b)

all the sample to decay

c)

the age of an artifact to be calculated

d)

detectable radiation to be absorbed by a sample

48.

Which of the following is an advantage of using nuclear power plants to produce electricity?

a)

Nuclear power plants do not pollute the air

b)

Nuclear power plants produce wastes that are easy to dispose of.

c)

Nuclear power plants produce more stable wastes compared to fossil fuel combustion.

d)

All of the above

49.

Which of the following ranks the decay particles from least penetrating power to most penetrating power?

a)

gamma, beta, alpha

b)

alpha, gamma, beta

c)

alpha, beta, gamma

d)

beta, alpha, gamma

50.

Nuclear fusion __________ nuclei of unstable isotopes making __________ nuclei

a)

combines, larger

b)

splits, smaller

c)

combines, smaller

d)

splits, larger

51.

Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years. How many grams of a 4.0 g sample would be left after 17190 years?

a)

2.0 g

b)

1.0 g

c)

0.5 g

d)

0.25g

52.

Cobalt-60 has a half-life of 5 years. How long does it take for a 1.0g sample to decay to 0.0625g?

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

20 years

53.

Nuclear fission ____________ the nucleus of unstable isotopes making ____________ nuclei.

a)

combines, larger

b)

splits, smaller

c)

combines, smaller

d)

splits, larger

54.

What is the half-life of an isotope if a 500g sample decays to 125g of the isotope after 3 years?

a)

2.5 years

b)

1.5 years

c)

3.5 years

d)

4.5 years

55.

Balance the pictured nuclear reaction:

a)

230

91   Pa

b)

230

92   U

c)

230

89   Ac

d)

231

90   Th

56.

Fill in the missing piece of the pictured nuclear reaction:

a)

0

-1   e-

b)

4

2   He

c)

472

182   Ac

d)

0

0   n

57.

Which is the beta particle?

a)

0

-1   e-

b)

4

2   He

c)

472

182   Ac

d)

0

0   n

58.

Balance the pictured nuclear reaction by choosing the missing piece:

a)

230

91   Pa

b)

235

92   U

c)

227

88   Ac

d)

231

90   Th

59.

According to the wave-particle duality theory, electrons can act as a

a)

wave

b)

particle

c)

both

60.

When a wavelength increases the frequency _____________ and the energy _________________.

a)

increases ; increases

b)

increases; decreases

c)

decreases; decreases

d)

decreases; increases

61.

An electron produces light when it ________ to the _________.

a)

falls ; excited state

b)

jumps ; excited state

c)

falls ; ground state

d)

jumps; ground state

62.

Which letter corresponds to the s-block?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.

Which letter corresponds to the p-block?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.

How many electrons can the s-block hold?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

10

d)

14

65.

How many electrons can the p-block hold?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

10

d)

14

66.

Which letter corresponds to the d-block?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.

How many electrons can the d-block hold?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

10

d)

14

68.

Which letter corresponds to the f-block?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.

How many electrons can the f-block hold?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

10

d)

14

70.

How many valence electrons does Calcium Have?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

20

d)

40

71.

This is the correct Lewis dot structure for Carbon:

a)

True

b)

False

72.

This is the correct Lewis dot structure for Neon:

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Identify the element with the electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p3

a)

N

b)

P

c)

As

d)

Al

74.

Identify the element with the electron configuration. [Ne]3s23p4

a)

Ne

b)

O

c)

Cr

d)

S

75.

A barium atom _____ electrons when it forms a barium ion.  What is the symbol for a barium ion?

a)

gains; Ba2+

b)

gains; Ba2-

c)

loses; Ba2+

d)

loses; Ba2-

76.

A fluorine atom ______ electrons when it forms a fluorine ion.  What is the symbol for a fluorine ion?

a)

gains; F+

b)

gains; F-

c)

loses; F+

d)

loses; F-

77.

Group 1 on the periodic table are known as the ______________.

a)

Halogens

b)

Alkali Earth Metals

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Noble Gases

78.

Group 7 on the periodic table are known as the ______________.

a)

Halogens

b)

Alkali Earth Metals

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Noble Gases

79.

Group 2 on the periodic table are known as the ______________.

a)

Halogens

b)

Alkali Earth Metals

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Noble Gases

80.

Group 8 on the periodic table are known as the ______________.

a)

Halogens

b)

Alkali Earth Metals

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Noble Gases

81.

Group 3-12 or the d-block are also known as the __________________.

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Halogens

c)

Transition Metals

d)

Heavy Metal

82.

The order of the elements on the periodic table is based on the ________________.

a)

Atomic mass

b)

mass number

c)

neutrons

d)

atomic number

83.

Who incorrectly ordered the periodic table by increasing atomic mass and left blank spots for elements that weren’t discovered yet?

a)

Morgan Freeman

b)

JJ Thompson

c)

Dmitri Mendeleev

d)

Mosely

84.

Reactivity in a group _________________as you move down

a)

Increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

85.

The electronegativity of halogens is ____________than transition metals

a)

Higher

b)

lower

c)

the same

86.

A sodium ion is ____________than a sodium atom while a chlorine ion is ____________ than a Chlorine atom.

a)

Bigger, bigger

b)

bigger, smaller

c)

smaller, bigger

d)

smaller, smaller

87.

Which element is highest in electronegativity?

a)

Fluorine

b)

Francium

c)

Chlorine

d)

Oxygen

88.

Which element has the largest atomic radius?

a)

Francium

b)

Oxygen

c)

Chromium

d)

Radon

89.

Which subatomic particles are involved in bonding?

a)

Protons

b)

neutrons

c)

valence electrons

d)

non-valence electrons

90.

What types of elements are involved in Ionic bonding?

a)

Metals Only

b)

Non-Metals Only

c)

Metals & Non-Metals

d)

Metalloids

91.

Elements form ionic bonds by ________ electrons.

a)

Transferring

b)

sharing

92.

Cations form by __________ electrons and anions form by ________________.

a)

Gaining ; gaining

b)

losing ; losing

c)

Gaining ; losing

d)

losing ; gaining

93.

How many valence electrons does a sodium atom have?

a)

1

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

94.

How many valence electrons does an oxygen atom have?

a)

1

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

95.

How many valence electrons does a krypton atom have?

a)

1

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

96.

A roman numeral is used to indicate the _____________ of common transition metal ions.

a)

Number

b)

Charge

c)

Valence Electrons

97.

Write the name of the given formula:

Na2SO4

a)

Sodium Sulfide

b)

Sodium Sulfate

c)

Sodium (I) Sulfate

d)

Disodium sulfide

98.

Write the name of the given formula:

Al2O3

a)

Aluminum Oxide

b)

Dialuminum trioxide

c)

aluminum (II) oxide

d)

Aluminum (III) oxide

99.

Write the name of the given formula:

SnO (**Treat any metal in group 4(14) as a transition metal**)

a)

Tin Oxide

b)

Tin (I) Oxide

c)

Tin (II) Oxide

d)

Tin monoxide

100.

Write the name of the given formula:

K2S

a)

Potassium Sulfide

b)

Potassium Sulfate

c)

Potassium (II) sulfide

d)

Dipotassium monosulfide

101.

Write the name of the given formula:

(NH4)3PO4

a)

Ammonium Phosphide

b)

Ammonium (III) Phosphide

c)

Ammonium (III) Phosphate

d)

Ammonium Phosphate

102.

Write the name of the given formula:

ZnCl2

a)

Zinc Chloride

b)

Zinc (I) Chloride

c)

Zinc (II) Chloride

d)

Zinc dichloride

103.

Write the name of the given formula:

PbCO3 (**Treat any metal in group 4(14) as a transition metal**)

a)

Lead carbide

b)

Lead Carbonate

c)

Lead (II) Chlorate

d)

Lead (II) Carbonate

104.

Write the formula for the given compound:

Nickel (II) Oxide

a)

NiO

b)

Ni2O

c)

NiO2

d)

Ni2O2

105.

Write the formula for the given compound:

Calcium Carbonate

a)

CaC2

b)

CaCO3

c)

Ca(CO3)2

d)

Ca2CO3

106.

Write the formula for the given compound:

Potassium Nitrate

a)

K3N

b)

KNO3

c)

K3NO3

d)

K(NO3)3

107.

Write the formula for the given compound:

Gold (III) Iodide

a)

AuI

b)

Au3I

c)

AuI3

d)

Au3I3

108.

Write the formula for the given compound:

Lithium Sulfate

a)

LiS     

b)

Li2S    

c)

LiSO4

d)

Li2SO4

109.

What types of elements are involved in covalent bonding?

a)

Metals Only

b)

Non-Metals Only

c)

Metals and Non-Metals

d)

Metalloids

110.

Which bond tends to be stronger?

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

111.

Which of the following elements exist as a diatomic molecule? (HOFBrINCl)

a)

C

b)

H

c)

B

d)

Na

112.

Which of the following bonds involves two electrons being shared?

a)

Single Covalent Bond

b)

Double Covalent Bond

c)

Triple Covalent Bond

d)

Ionic Bond

113.

Why do some elements form double and triple bonds during bonding?

a)

To ensure that all atoms in the compound have an octet

b)

So that the charges of ions in the compound cancel out

c)

So that the electrons are shared equally amongst all atoms in the compound

d)

To make the strongest bond

114.

Write the missing formula:

carbon monoxide

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

CO4 

d)

C2O    

115.

Write the missing formula:

xenon tetrafluroide

a)

XeF3

b)

XeF 

c)

Xe4F

d)

XeF4

116.

Write the missing formula:

silicon dioxide

a)

SiO

b)

SiO2

c)

Si2O

d)

SO2

117.

Write the missing formula:

iodine pentachloride

a)

ICl 

b)

ICl6

c)

ICl5  

d)

I5Cl5

118.

Write the missing name:

P2O5

a)

Phosphorous Oxide

b)

Pentaphosphorous dioxide

c)

diphosphoride pentoxide

d)

diphosphorous  pentoxide

119.

Write the missing name:

SF7

a)

Sulfur heptafluoride

b)

Sulfur hexafluoride

120.

Write the missing name:

NI3 

a)

Nitrogen triiodide

b)

Trinitrogen Iodide

121.

How does intermolecular forces differ from intramolecular forces?

a)

Intramolecular forces are within a molecule while intermolecular forces are between molecules

b)

Intermolecular forces are within a molecule while intramolecular forces are between molecules

122.

Polar compounds tend to have __________ melting & boiling points than non-polar compounds because they have ________ intermolecular forces

a)

Higher; stronger

b)

Higher; weaker

123.

What is the strongest Intermolecular Force?

a)

Hydrogen Bonding

b)

Dipole-Dipole

c)

Polar

d)

London Dispersion Forces

124.

What is the weakest Intermolecular Force?

a)

Hydrogen Bonding

b)

Dipole-Dipole

c)

Polar

d)

London Dispersion Forces

125.

What is the orbital notation of carbon?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

126.

What is the shape of the s-sublevel?

a)

b)

c)

d)

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