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AP BIO UNIT 4

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

2.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following is not directly involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

3.

Describe what occurs when a ligand binds to a receptor.

a)

confirmational change in shape of receptor

b)

phosphorylation of ligand

c)

ligand passes through the membrane

d)

receptor binds additional ligands

4.

An example of LOCAL cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

5.

An example of DIRECT cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

6.
What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?
a)
size
b)
polarity
c)
ability to cross the membrane
d)
all of these are correct
7.

The binding of a ligand to a ligand-gated ion channel can cause the channel to ___.

a)

open

b)

close

c)

both answers can be correct

8.

A cell converting a chemical signal into a cellular response is known as __.

a)

energetics

b)

transduction

c)

ligand response

d)

transformation

9.

Signal amplification is most often achieved by

a)

a signaling cascade

b)

binding of multiple signals

c)

branching pathways

d)

action of adenylyl cyclase

10.

What do secondary messengers, like cAMP, do?

a)

transport a signal through the lipid bilayer

b)

relay & amplify a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell

c)

relay & amplify a message from the inside of the membrane throughout the cytoplasm

d)

dampen the message

11.
What does a protein kinase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme
12.

What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?

a)

gated ion channel

b)

G-protein receptor

13.

What event would activate a G protein?

a)

replacement of GDP with GTP

b)

hydrolysis of GTP to GDP

c)

hydrolysis of GDP to GTP

d)

phosphorylation of GTP to GDP

14.

Testosterone does not affect all cells of the body because __________.

a)

testosterone cannot cross the plasma membrane

b)

not all cells have intracellular receptors for testosterone

c)

it is a local regulator

d)

it affects only cells that have ion-channel receptors

15.

Cell communication is critical for the function of both unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following is likely true of cell signaling?

a)

Cell signaling uses the highest molecular weight molecules found in living cells.

b)

Cell signaling has largely been replaced by other cell functions in higher mammals.

c)

Similar cell signaling pathways in diverse eukaryotes are evidence of conserved evolutionary processes.

d)

Cell signaling functions mainly during early developmental stages.

16.

Direct cell communication in animal cells takes place through ___, while in plant cells, direct cell communication takes place through ___.

a)

membrane receptors, cell wall receptors

b)

plasmodesmata, gap junctions

c)

membrane receptors, plasmodesmata

d)

gap junctions, plasmodesmata

17.

Protein ____ ADDS a phosphate group to turn a signal cascade ON, while protein ____ REMOVES a phosphate to turn a signal cascade OFF.

a)

phosphatase, kinase

b)

kinase, phosphatase

c)

phosphorylase, hydrolase

d)

hydrolase, phosphorylase

18.

What is the point of a feedback loop?

a)

To provide the body with more energy

b)

To provide the body with more food

c)

To make sure the conditions in the body are always changing

d)

To make sure the conditions in the body remain stable

19.

According to the feedback loop, what does high blood sugar promote?

a)

Insulin Release

b)

Glucagon Release

c)

Insulin Uptake

d)

Glycogen Uptake

20.

What happens if stretch receptors are activated in the uterus?

a)

Oxytocin will cause uterine muscles to relax

b)

Contractions will get weaker

c)

The baby will be born later than normal

d)

The brain will signal for the release of oxytocin

21.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
22.
The process of childbirth is an example of:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
23.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
24.
The "effect" of a given stimulus is the...
a)
response
b)
stimulus
c)
cause
d)
result
25.
When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
26.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
27.
Rapid growth during puberty causes your body to release more and more growth hormones. As you grow, more and more growth hormones are released until puberty is reached, and then the hormones stop.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
28.

In a feedback loop, the sensory organ responsible for detection is the ___.

a)

stimulus

b)

effector

c)

response

d)

receptor

29.

In a feedback loop, the responding organ (usually a muscle or gland) is the ___.

a)

stimulus

b)

effector

c)

response

d)

receptor

30.

Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?

a)

hormone

b)

local regulator

c)

endocrine cell

d)

neurotransmitter

31.

Cancer can result from a variety of different mutational events. Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in the initiation of a cancerous tumor?

a)

A receptor mutation results in activation of a cell-division pathway in the absence of the appropriate ligand.

b)

A mutation results in the loss of the ability to produce a tumor-suppressor protein.

c)

A defect in a cell-cycle checkpoint prevents a cell from entering the S phase

d)

At the anaphase checkpoint, separation of chromatids occurs without all centromeres being attached to kinetochore microtubules from both poles.

32.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
33.

Interphase:

a)

occupies the majority of the cell cycle

b)

includes DNA replication

c)

includes growth of cell

d)

all are correct

34.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
35.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
36.
Metastasis is
a)
the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another.
b)
the growth of tumors in the lungs
c)
cancer of the blood cells
d)
cancer that is found in connective tissues
37.

G1 is associated with what event?

a)

doubling of cell content

b)

DNA replication

c)

The beginning of mitosis

d)

breakdown of the nuclear membrane

38.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
39.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
40.

A

a)

Kinetochore

b)

Chromosome

c)

Sister Chromatids

d)

Centromere

e)

Cleavage Furrow

41.

E (whole structure)

a)

Kinetochore

b)

Chromosome

c)

Sister Chromatids

d)

Centromere

e)

Cleavage Furrow

42.

C (each of these is called)

a)

Kinetochore

b)

Chromosome

c)

Sister Chromatids

d)

Centromere

e)

Cleavage Furrow

43.
This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes sure DNA has been replicated correctly during S phase.
a)
G1 Checkpoint
b)
G2 Checkpoint
c)
M Checkpoint
d)
I Checkpoint
44.
This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes sure the correct number of chromosomes are present and attached to microtubules.
a)
G1 Checkpoint
b)
G2 Checkpoint
c)
M Checkpoint
d)
I Checkpoint

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