wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

S1 Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do ice core samples in Antarctica reveal about Earth?

a)

Changes in the composition of the atmosphere

b)

Variations in the thickness of atmospheric zone

c)

The increasing and decreasing cycle of sea level

d)

The rate of surface ice melting due to global warming

2.

Coral bleaching is evidence of what change?

a)

a decrease in sea level

b)

a decrease in ocean salinity

c)

an increase in water temperature

d)

an increase in dissolved carbon dioxide

3.

Why is it important for scientists to study multiple systems on Earth at the same time instead of studying them separately?

a)

They save more time be studying similar parts of more than one system.

b)

They get better sense of what the boundaries of the systems are.

c)

They avoid errors because processes are similar in different systems

d)

They can observe how parts of the different systems affect each other.

4.

Which of these occurs because of instability in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Thunderstorms form and dissipate.

b)

A lake becomes warmer in daytime.

c)

Tectonic plates collide and form mountains.

d)

A boulder cracks when a tree root grows near it.

5.

How do Earth systems interact with each other?

a)

through matter and energy

b)

through specific components

c)

through scientific models

d)

through nonspecific components

6.

Which statement explains the type of system Earth is?

a)

It is an isolated system because it is separated in space from other objects.

b)

It is a closed system because energy but not matter flows into and out of it.

c)

It is an open system because both matter and energy flow into and out of it.

d)

It is a shielded system because its atmosphere reflects materials that strike it.

7.

The banded iron formation is evidence for which of these statements about Earth 2.6 billion years ago?

a)

Green plants were unable to photosynthesize at that time.

b)

The locations of the oceans currents were much farther north.

c)

The atmosphere and oceans contained much less oxygen

d)

Bits of magnetite in the ocean produced Earth's magnetic field.

8.

Rainwater washing away sediment on a hillside is primarily an interaction between which of Earth's spheres?

a)

biosphere and hydrosphere

b)

atmosphere and biosphere

c)

geosphere and atmosphere

d)

hydrosphere and geosphere

9.

What are the primary elements that make up Earth's atmosphere?

a)

nitrogen and oxygen

b)

hydrogen and nitrogen

c)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

carbon dioxide and hydrogen

10.

How can you determine which way a river is flowing on a topographic map?

a)

It flows parallel to the curves on the map.

b)

It flows perpendicular to the curves on the map.

c)

It flows from lines that are closer to lines that are farther apart.

d)

It flows from lines that are farther apart to lines that are closer.

11.

Snowpack is the buildup of snow from winter snowfalls. The amount of snowpack in an area each year depends primarily on the interaction between which of Earth's spheres?

a)

biosphere and hydrosphere

b)

atmosphere and geosphere

c)

geosphere and hydrosphere

d)

hydrosphere and atmosphere

12.

Which of these events is an example of how the water cycle includes interactions with the biosphere?

a)

Rainwater falls on a grassy slope.

b)

Strong waves wash away sand at a beach.

c)

Ocean water evaporates and forms clouds.

d)

Sediment on a mountainside is washed away.

13.

Which statement describes the interaction between sunlight and atmospheric ozone?

a)

Solar energy combines oxygen molecules and ozone molecules.

b)

Most of the sun's radiation is reflected by ozone back into space.

c)

The ozone layer expands when it absorbs the sun's infrared radiation.

d)

Ozone molecules break apart when they absorb the sun's ultraviolet radiation.

14.

Which of these statements correctly describes a benefit of ozone to people?

a)

It clears harmful pollutants from the air.

b)

It enhances the skin's production of vitamin D.

c)

It decreases the chance of developing skin cancer.

d)

It decreases the probability of developing respiratory problems.

15.

Kali listed important sources of energy in the Earth system. Which item does not belong on Kali's list?

a)

Water

b)

The Sun

c)

Radioactive Decay

d)

Collisional Heating

16.

What is the process that causes hot materials within Earth to move toward the surface?

a)

Rotation

b)

Convection

c)

Continental Drift

d)

Magnetic Reversal

17.

What is radioactivity?

a)

another form of magnetism

b)

contamination of organisms and minerals

c)

stable atomic nuclei decay over time, releasing particles and energy

d)

unstable atomic nuclei decay over time, releasing particles and energy

18.

Which statement summarizes the primary way in which ocean currents redistribute energy on Earth?

a)

Energy moves from equatorial regions toward the poles by convection

b)

Energy moves from equatorial regions toward the poles by conduction

c)

Energy moves from the poles toward equatorial regions by convection

d)

Energy moves from the poles toward equatorial regions by conduction

19.

After Earth absorbs solar radiation that heats the ground, what kind of energy does the atmosphere absorb from the ground?

a)

wind

b)

solar

c)

thermal

d)

mechanical

20.

Which of these drives evaporation?

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

Energy from the sun

c)

Carbon Dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

Earth's magnetosphere

21.

Which of these may decrease temperatures by reflecting sunlight back into space?

a)

Global Warming

b)

Orbital Change

c)

Sea-level Change

d)

Volcanic Activity

22.

Which of these is the term for the color of a mineral in powdered form?

a)

Luster

b)

Streak

c)

Fracture

d)

Cleavage

23.

Which of these is usually a quality of a mineral that is a natural solid?

a)

organic, with characteristic physical properties

b)

inorganic, with characteristic physical properties

c)

organic, with uncharacteristic physical properties

d)

inorganic, with uncharacteristic physical properties

24.

Which mineral is the hardest?

a)

talc

b)

gypsum

c)

fluorite

d)

diamond

25.

What is the term for how light is reflected from a mineral's surface?

a)

luster

b)

streak

c)

refraction

d)

radioactivity

26.

Which of these describes cleavage in minerals?

a)

the tendency to split jaggedly, forming regular surfaces

b)

the tendency to split jaggedly, forming irregular surfaces

c)

the tendency to break unevenly with surfaces that are irregular

d)

the tendency to split along specific planes, forming flat surfaces

27.

Which of these lists only minerals?

a)

quartz, coal, granite

b)

pyrite, halite, brass

c)

fluorite, feldspar, copper

d)

obsidian, gypsum, corundum

28.

What are metals, such as gold and silver, that can exist in Earth's crest as nuggets of pure metal called?

a)

ore

b)

native elements

c)

compounds

d)

placer deposits

29.

What type of rock texture results when extreme pressure causes minerals in metamorphic rock to realign, or when minerals separate out into dark and light bands?

a)

felsic

b)

mafic

c)

foliated

d)

nonfoliated

30.

Which of these is an example of a nonfoliated metamorphic rock?

a)

lava

b)

slate

c)

schist

d)

quartzite

31.

The melting of rock does not depend on which of these?

a)

pressure

b)

temperature

c)

the rock's color

d)

the presence of fluid

32.

What process changes sediments into rock due to burial, compaction, and cementation?

a)

eruption

b)

lithification

c)

metamorphism

d)

melting and cooling

33.

What is sedimentary rock that is made up of rock fragments that become compacted or cemented together?

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

inorganic

d)

chemical

34.

Which of these does not change the form of existing rock?

a)

light

b)

extreme heat

c)

chemical processes

d)

tremendous pressure

35.

Which of these elements is the least involved in the cycling of matter on Earth?

a)

gold

b)

carbon

c)

nitrogen

d)

phosphorus

36.

Which of these describes a process where plants capture and transfer solar energy?

a)

oikos

b)

ecology

c)

transpiration

d)

photosynthesis

37.

Which of these is the region in which carbon is stored as a type of rock called carbonate?

a)

geosphere

b)

biosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

hydrosphere

38.

Most increase in carbon in the atmosphere is in what form?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Monoxide

c)

Elemental Carbon

d)

Carbon in Methane

39.

What is Earth's greatest carbon reservoir?

a)

Biosphere

b)

Geosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Hydrosphere

40.

Which of these accurately describes an undesired product from the use of fossil fuels for energy?

a)

At the present rate, we will run out of fossil fuels in about 250 years.

b)

Burring fossil fuels releases large amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

c)

Fossil fuels account for 69 percent of the electricity generated in the United States.

d)

All of the above.

41.

A scientist is modeling the movement of water through the atmosphere. Which is an input into this system?

a)

rain or snow falling from a cloud

b)

water evaporating from the ocean

c)

water vapor rising higher in the sky

d)

rain droplets condensing from water vapor

42.

Which of these separates the outer planets from the inner planets?

a)

The Kuiper belt

b)

the asteroid belt

c)

the Great Red Spot

d)

a large magnetic field

43.

Aside from Mercury's slow rotation, what is a factor that contributes to the planet's daily temperature fluctuation of about 600 degrees Celsius?

a)

its denser atmosphere

b)

its core of rock and ice

c)

its close proximity to the sun

d)

its heavy, rocky, waterless terrain

44.

When early Earth's atmosphere formed, which gases were lost because Earth's gravity was too weak?

a)

oxygen and helium

b)

helium and nitrogen

c)

hydrogen and ozone

d)

helium and hydrogen

45.

Which of these are small bodies from which planets originated during the early formation of the solar system?

a)

comets

b)

asteriods

c)

planetesimals

d)

protoplanets

46.

Why does the moon have more impact craters on its surface than Earth does?

a)

Earth's gravity causes more objects to collide with the moon than with Earth.

b)

Most of Earth's impact craters have been destroyed by plate tectonics and erosion.

c)

Earth's magnetic field deflects more objects than the very weak magnetic field of the moon does.

d)

The rocks that compose the moon's surface are more easily deformed than Earth's surface rocks.

47.

Where did the materials that formed Earth come from?

a)

the Oort cloud

b)

The Crab nebula

c)

the solar nebula

d)

the remnants of a black hole

48.

In what way is Earth like the other inner planets?

a)

It has a relatively high density

b)

It has liquid water on its surface

c)

It has a mostly hydrogen and helium core

d)

It revolves around the sun in 24 hours or less

49.

Which law describes the speed at which objects travel at different points in their orbits?

a)

law of ellipses

b)

law of periods

c)

law of eccentricity

d)

law of equal areas

50.

What does Kepler's first law call the paths that planets follow as they orbit the sun?

a)

circles

b)

periods

c)

ellipses

d)

epicycles

51.

Kepler's third law describes the relationship between the average distance of a planet from the sun and which property of the planet's motion?

a)

inertia

b)

orbital period

c)

gravitational pull

d)

average temperature

52.

Kepler's second law states that equal areas are covered in equal amounts of time when an object does what?

a)

orbits the sun

b)

spins on its axis

c)

completes an eclipse

d)

travels one light-year

53.

What effect does the elliptical orbit of the moon around Earth have?

a)

The orbit is not predictable

b)

The orbit affects the changes in Earth's seasons

c)

The distance between Earth and the moon varies over a month's time

d)

The distance between Earth and the moon changes yearly

54.

According to Kepler's first law, the orbit of a planet is an ellipse with what object at or near the focus?

a)

its star

b)

its moon

c)

its center

d)

the galactic center

55.

What is happening to the orbital velocity of Earth as it gets closer to the sun?

a)

It is getting faster

b)

It is getting slower

c)

it remains the same

d)

it varies depending on the current cycle of the sun

56.

Which of these is the warming of the surface and lower atmosphere of Earth that occurs when carbon dioxide, water vapor, and other gases in the air absorb and re-radiate infrared radiation?

a)

radiation

b)

thermal heat

c)

greenhouse effect

d)

electromagnetic energy

57.

What does the Milankovitch theory attempt to explain?

a)

global warming

b)

causes of ice ages

c)

patterns of weather

d)

how great lakes formed

58.

What are northern lights?

a)

auroras

b)

coronas

c)

solar flares

d)

prominences

59.

Which of these materials would reflect the most sunlight at solar noon?

a)

soil

b)

slate

c)

water

d)

snow

60.

Assuming other factors remained unchanged, what would happen to the surface temperature on Earth if large amounts of carbon dioxide were removed from the atmosphere?

a)

Surface temperature would increase

b)

Surfaces temperatures would decrease

c)

There would be no change in surface temperatures.

d)

Surface temperatures would increase in the Northern Hemisphere but decrease in the Southern Hemisphere.

61.

If the axial tilt of Earth were to increase, how would summers change?

a)

Summers would be hotter

b)

Summers would be colder

c)

Summers would be shorter

d)

Summers would last longer

62.

If Earth's orbit of the sun was more circular, what would happen to the variation in the amount of solar energy Earth receives during the year?

a)

The variation in solar energy received would increase

b)

The variation in solar energy received would decrease

c)

The variation in solar energy received would decrease but only at high latitudes

d)

There would be no effect on the amount of solar energy received throughout the year.

63.

What happens to the spectrum of a start that is moving away from Earth?

a)

unchanged

b)

loses its color

c)

shifts toward red

d)

shifts toward blue

64.

What happens to the spectral lines of a star that is moving toward Earth?

a)

The waves spread out and the frequency of each line increases

b)

The waves spread out and the frequency of each line decreases

c)

The waves compress and the frequency of each line increases

d)

The waves compress and the frequency of each line decreases

65.

Scientists determine the composition and temperature of stars _________.

a)

through magnetic testing

b)

by analyzing the virbrations that stars emit

c)

through samples of matter on the surface of stars

d)

by analyzing the spectra of the light that stars emit

66.

What problem is solved by sending telescopes into space?

a)

interference of dry air in detecting electromagnetic radiation

b)

inability of Earth telescopes to detect invisible electromagnetic radiation

c)

interference of gamma rays in detecting electromagnetic radiation

d)

interference of Earth's atmosphere in detecting electromagnetic radiation

67.

How will the spectra lines recorded on Earth be shifted for a light-emitting object that is moving neither toward nor away from Earth?

a)

They will have redshift

b)

They will have a green shift

c)

They will have blueshift

d)

They will not be shifted at all

68.

What has happened to light that has been blueshifted?

a)

its amplitude has been increased

b)

its amplitude has been decreased

c)

its wavelength

d)

its wavelength has been shortened

69.

If a dense, non-light producing, interstellar gas were to move between a star and Earth, what would happen to the spectra of the light from the star as measured on Earth?

a)

The spectra would show greater redshift

b)

The number of absorption lines would likely decrease

c)

The spectra would become a continuous spectra

d)

The number of absorption lines would likely increase

70.

What is a small, hot, extremely dense core left after a star collapses called?

a)

red giant

b)

black dwarf

c)

red dwarf

d)

white dwarf

71.

During the main-sequence stage, how is energy generated in a star's core?

a)

Carbon fuses into oxygen

b)

Hydrogen fuses into helium

c)

Carbon fuses into hydrogen

d)

Helium fuses into hydrogen

72.

How long would a star with the sun's mass stay on the main sequence?

a)

Until it makes iron

b)

Until it makes uranium

c)

as long as it fuses helium

d)

as long as it fuses hydrogen

73.

After its temperature rises to 10,000,000 degrees celsius, when does a protostar become a star?

a)

nuclear fusion ends

b)

nuclear fusion begins

c)

nuclear fission ends

d)

nuclear fission begins

74.

What is a large, bright star whose hot core has used most of its hydrogen?

a)

nova

b)

giant

c)

pulsar

d)

supernova

75.

Which of these is not a characteristic of white dwarfs?

a)

a long period of existence

b)

a hot, extremely dense core

c)

a ring-like planetary nebula

d)

a position in the lower left of the H-R diagram

76.

What is the color of the hottest stars?

a)

yellow

b)

blue

c)

white

d)

red

77.

Which of these celestial bodies is not considered to be a major planet by scientists?

a)

Pluto

b)

Saturn

c)

Mercury

d)

Neptune

78.

Which of these is a region of the solar system that starts just beyond Neptune's orbit and that contains dwarf planets and other small bodies made mostly of ice?

a)

The Kuiper Belt

b)

the TNO

c)

The outer atmosphere

d)

The asteroid belt

79.

Which of these are objects that circle stars other than Earth's sun?

a)

moons

b)

exoplanets

c)

nebulas

d)

planetesimals

80.

What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?

a)

spiral

b)

elliptical

c)

irregular

d)

spherical

81.

What is an irregular galaxy?

a)

a galaxy that has vast areas without stars

b)

a galaxy shaped like a stretched-out football

c)

a galaxy with no particular shape

d)

a galaxy that has high mass and is rich in dust and gas

82.

Which of these lists objects from closest to farthest from Earth?

a)

Jupiter, Kuiper Belt, sun

b)

Jupiter, sun, Keiper Belt

c)

sun, Keiper Belt, Jupiter

d)

sun, Jupiter, Kuiper Belt

83.

Which description would most likely apply to an older star?

a)

Is composed mostly of lithium and is located in a galactic cluster

b)

Is composed of carbon and is located in a globular cluster

c)

Is composed mostly of helium and is located in a galactic cluster

d)

Is composed mostly of hydrogen and is located in a globulas cluster

84.

What is the temperature of cosmic background radiation?

a)

about 0 degrees Celsius

b)

about 270 degrees Celsius

c)

above 3,000 degrees Celsius

d)

almost absolute zero

85.

What is important about Hubble's discovery that there is a redshift in the spectra of galaxies?

a)

It proves the Big Bang Theory.

b)

It suggests the existence of black holes.

c)

It suggests that the universe is expanding.

d)

It suggests that the universe is contracting.

86.

What characteristic of the Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) provides evidence that the universe is expanding?

a)

The CMBR arriving at Earth has been blue shifted.

b)

The CNRB can be detected coming from all directions

c)

Any microwave radiation is an indication of expansion.

d)

The hydrogen-to-helium ratio in the CMBR matches predications made using the Big Bang Theory.

87.

How does the Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) mark an important milestone in the early history of the universe?

a)

The CMBR originated as the first visible light. It marks time when the universe transitioned from opaque to transparent.

b)

The CMBR originated from the initial force that triggered the Big Bang. It is the remnant energy from the previous universe.

c)

The CMBR originated when the first massive stars in the universe began exploding as supernovas shortly after the Big Bang.

d)

The CMBR originated as the first microwave radiation. It marks thetime the universe frist became energetic enough to produce microwaves.

88.

When did the universe begin?

a)

1 billion years ago

b)

10 million years ago

c)

14 billion years ago

d)

50 billion years ago

89.

During the first few minutes after the Big Bang, the universe was opaque. Light could not go through it. Why?

a)

All of the photons

b)

There was nothing to produce photons

c)

The mix of particles was so dense that photons could not get through

d)

The photons were attracted to other particles

90.

What determined the temperature, density, and ratio of hydrogen to helium of the universe soon after the Big Bang?

a)

the rate at which the universe expanded

b)

the rate of nuclear fusion in the first stars

c)

the density of the material the universe was expanding into

d)

the timing of the transition from an opaque to a transparent universe