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Human Bodies Semester 2 Midterm review

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

______ refers to homeostasis or relative consistency of normal electrolyte levels in the body's fluids

a)

fluid balance

b)

electrolyte balance

c)

electrolyte

d)

negative feedback

2.

Endocrine diseases are usually a result of hormone

a)

hypersecretion

b)

hyposecretion

c)

hyper- or hypo-secretion

d)

none of these mechanisms

3.

Breaking down nutrient molecules into smaller molecules and the energy released during this process is referred to as

a)

assimilation

b)

anabolism

c)

catabolism

d)

glycolysis

4.

_____ refers to homeostasis, or relative constancy of body fluid levels- a condition required for healthy survival

a)

fluid balance

b)

electrolyte balance

c)

ions

d)

negative feedback

5.

All of the following are part of glucose catabolism, except

a)

glycolysis

b)

glycogenesis

c)

Citric acid / Kreb's cycle

d)

electron transport system

6.

Substances (like salts) which break apart or dissolve in a water solution to form electrically charged particles

a)

secretions

b)

diuretics

c)

solutes

d)

electrolytes

7.

positively charged ions

a)

cations

b)

nonelectrolytes

c)

anions

d)

solutes

8.

Which of the following types of hormone will most likely use a second messenger in the cell?

a)

steroid hormone

b)

non-steroid hormone

c)

carbohydrate hormone

d)

cholesterol hormone

9.

Hormones that are released right next to their target cells are referred to as

a)

exocrine agents

b)

endocrine agents

c)

steroid agents

d)

paracrine agents

10.

A cell which has specific receptors on its plasma membrane for a specific hormone is referred to as that hormone's

a)

signal transduction

cell

b)

target cell

c)

cyclic AMP cell

d)

messenger cell

11.

The dissociated particles of an electrolyte

(Hint: they carry either a + or - charge)

a)

solutes

b)

ions

c)

hormones

d)

solutes

12.

The hormone which acts as an antagonist to calcitonin is

a)

triiodothyronine

b)

thyroxin

c)

parathyroid hormone/ parathormone

d)

prolactin

13.

Which of the following individuals would typically have the highest percentage of water per body weight?

a)

baby

b)

25 yo female

c)

25 yo male

d)

75 yo female

14.

The formation of glucose or glycogen from protein or fat compounds is referred to as

a)

glycolysis

b)

glucagon

c)

gluconeogenesis

d)

glycogenolysis

15.

The extracellular fluid compartment is made up of all of the following except:

a)

plasma

b)

interstitial fluid and lymph

c)

transcellular fluid

d)

all are part of the extracellular fluid

16.

Which of the following "fluid compartments" makes up the majority of the body's fluid percentage?

a)

plasma

b)

lymph

c)

intracellular

d)

interstitial

17.

The intracellular fluid compartment makes up what percentage of the body's distribution of water?

a)

approx 10%

b)

approx 35%

c)

approx 65%

d)

approx 90%

18.

During normal temperature, our primary water output is from

a)

sweating

b)

urine

c)

respiration

d)

water in feces

19.

During prolonged exercise of hot weather, our primary mode of water output is through

a)

sweating

b)

urine

c)

respiration

d)

water in feces

20.

Which of the following is not one of the 3 main factors in regulating fluid volumes in the body?

a)

regulating fluid output

b)

regulating red cell production

c)

exchanging fluids between compartments in the body

d)

regulating fluid input

21.

If a patient is in metabolic acidosis (uncompensated), they will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

22.

This hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and promotes water reabsorption from the kidney tubule back into the blood

(Hint: it assists in reducing fluid output)

a)

norepinephrine

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

aldosterone

d)

atrial natriuretic hormone

23.

Which organ is responsible for metabolic imbalances?

a)

lung

b)

kidney

c)

heart

d)

liver

24.

Glucose anabolism is also referred to as

a)

glycogenesis

b)

glycogen

c)

gluconeogenesis

d)

glycogenolysis

25.

Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

a)

assists with acid removal from the body

b)

gas exchange at the alveolar and tissue levels

c)

assists with our sense of hearing

d)

assists with our sense of smell

26.

This hormone is released by the adrenal cortex and increases Na+ reabsorption by the kidney tubules

(Hint: it reduces water output from body)

a)

norepinephrine

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

aldosterone

d)

atrial natriuretic hormone

27.

This hormone promotes Na + (and therefore water) loss from the blood to kidney tubules

(Hint: it acts as a diuretic)

a)

norepinephrine

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

aldosterone

d)

atrial natriuretic hormone

28.

The fluid imbalance seen most often clinically is

a)

hypocalcemia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

overhydration

d)

dehydration

29.

Which of the following is not an electrolyte, and therefore will not dissociate in water?

a)

sodium

b)

glucose

c)

chloride

d)

potassium

30.

When capillary blood pressure increases at the arterial side of the interstitial capillary bed, what will result?

a)

decreased fluid exchange at interstitial level

b)

fluid balance between blood and interstitial tissue

c)

increased fluid exchange at interstitial level

d)

no change will occur

31.

Which of the following is not a typical reason for edema in the body?

a)

increase in capillary blood pressure

b)

water intoxication

c)

decrease in concentration of plasma proteins

d)

retention of electroltyes

32.

Sodium (Na+) over 145 mEq/L

(or 145mEq/L <)

a)

hypernatremia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

hyponatremia

d)

hypercalcemia

33.

Severe and repetitive vomiting can result in

a)

respiratory alkalosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

metabolic acidosis

d)

respiratory acidosis

34.

Which electrolyte imbalance would likely present with cardiac dysrhythmia and GI (gastrointestinal) motility problems

a)

hyponatremia

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

hypernatremia

d)

hypokalemia

35.

The Chvostek sign, an abnormal spasm of facial muscles, is seen in which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hyponatremia

c)

hypocalcemia

d)

hypokalemia

36.

Which of the following is not a pH control mechanism for the body?

a)

buffer mechanism in blood

b)

GI (gastrointestinal) mechanism

c)

respiratory mechanism

d)

urinary mechanism

37.

What enzyme, located in the RBCs, assists in the formation of carbonic acid (H2CO3)?

a)

carbonic anhydrase

b)

hemoglobin

c)

lactase

d)

lipase

38.

The pH scale ranges from

a)

0 to 12

b)

0 to 14

c)

1 to 15

d)

0-15

39.

A patient in metabolic alkalosis will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

40.

The more hydroxide (OH-) ions a substance has, the more _____ it is and the ______ it will be on the pH scale.

a)

basic/ alkaline,

higher

b)

acidic,

higher

c)

basic/alkaline,

lower

d)

acidic, lower

41.

Chemical substances that prevent a sharp change in the pH of a fluid when an acid or base is added to it

a)

capillaries

b)

ions

c)

electrolytes

d)

buffers

42.

The main buffer pair your book discusses is

a)

sodium bicarbonate and carbonic acid

b)

sodium bicarbonate and hydroxide

c)

hydrogen and hydroxide

d)

sodium chloride and carbonic acid

43.

After gas is exchanged in the lungs, the blood, the blood has fewer H+ ions, and therefore is a ______ pH than deoxygenated blood entering pulmonary circulation

a)

lower

b)

bigger

c)

neutral

d)

higher

44.

The term used to describe the effect of an increase in capillary blood pressure, with the result of a transfer of fluid from the blood to the interstitial fluid is called

a)

homeostasis

b)

fluid shift

c)

fluid swing

d)

blood flow

45.

The accumulation of ketone bodies results in a condition that causes the blood to become dangerously acidic

a)

metabolic acidosis

b)

water intoxication

c)

diabetic ketoacidosis

d)

respiratory acidosis

46.

The optimal pH range for human function

a)

7.35-7.45 pH

b)

6.5-9.5 pH

c)

7.0-8.0 pH

d)

5.5-7.5 pH

47.

Normal calcium ranges in the blood

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

3.5-5.1 mEq/L

c)

4.2-5.25 mEq/L

d)

7.35-7.45 pH

48.

Alkalosis is a term used to describe arterial blood with a pH of greater than:

a)

7

b)

7.45

c)

8

d)

8.35

49.

Acidic substances in the blood that results from excessive metabolism of fats are called

a)

ketone bodies

b)

ketone ions

c)

ketoacdiosis

d)

ketone nonelectrolytes

50.

Respiratory alkalosis will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

51.

A patient with carbonic acid (H2CO3) excess is experiencing

a)

metabolic acidosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

respiratory acidosis

d)

respiratory alkalosis

52.

A patient in respiratory acidosis will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

53.

Normal sodium range in blood

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

3.5- 5.1 mEq/L

c)

4.2-5.25 mEq/L

d)

7.35-7.45 pH

54.

Which organ is responsible for bicarbonate imbalances?

a)

lung

b)

kidney

c)

heart

d)

liver

55.

Normal potassium (K+) range in blood

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

3.5-5.1 mEq/L

c)

4.2-5.25 mEq/L

d)

7.35-7.45 pH

56.

Exchange of gases at the alveolar level occurs by which transport process?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Dialysis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Filtration

57.

Which of the following structures is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

a)

trachea

b)

larynx

c)

pharynx

d)

nose

58.

What is another name for an upper respiratory infection (URI)?

a)

chest cold

b)

head cold

c)

neck cold

d)

headache

59.

The membrane that lines MOST of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory system is:

a)

stratified squamous epithelium

b)

ciliated cuboidal epithelium

c)

simple columnar epithelium

d)

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

60.

What tissue type lines the alveoli in the lungs where gas exchange occurs?

a)

stratified squamous epithelium

b)

simple squamous epithelium

c)

ciliated cuboidal epithelium

d)

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

61.

The _________ is a membrane that lines most of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory system ( It is made up primarily of ciliated pseudostratified epithelium)

a)

lung mucosa

b)

respiratory liquid

c)

respiratory mucosa

d)

ciliary mucosa

62.

The millions of hair-like cilia which function to move inhaled contaminants upward, from the bronchial tree to the pharynx, are collectively called

a)

respiratory elevator

b)

ciliary escalator

c)

ciliary transporter

d)

respiratory transporter

63.

Which of the 4 paranasal sinuses is located most superiorly, at the forehead?

a)

frontal

b)

maxillary

c)

sphenoidal

d)

ethmoidal

64.

Which of the 4 paranasal sinuses is located most laterally?

a)

frontal

b)

maxillary

c)

sphenoidal

d)

ethmoidal

65.

Which of the following organs is not considered part of the lower respiratory tract?

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchus

c)

trachea

d)

larynx

66.

External nares are also known as

a)

eyes

b)

ears

c)

nostrils

d)

tongue

67.

The _______ ducts collect tears from the corner of each eyelid and drain into the nasal cavity

a)

lacrimal

b)

nasal

c)

ethmoid

d)

conchae

68.

Which of these is not part of the pharynx?

a)

nasopharynx

b)

bronchopharynx

c)

oropharynx

d)

laryngopharynx

69.

The 3 shelf-like structures located on each side of the nasal cavity which function to warm and humidify air, are known as

a)

turbinates

b)

conchae

c)

nasal turbinates and/or conchae

d)

no answer is correct

70.

The ________ connect the middle ears to the nasopharynx and permits equalization of pressure within the ear

a)

sphenoid tubes

b)

ethmoid tubes

c)

auditory tubes

d)

nasal tubes

71.

The substance which reduces surface tension in the alveoli and keeps alveoli from collapsing during respiration is known as

a)

mucus

b)

mucosa

c)

surfactant

d)

water

72.

Masses of ________ tissue make up tonsils

a)

skeletal

b)

muscle

c)

nervous

d)

lymphoid

73.

The prime mover of inspiration is

a)

diaphragm

b)

external intercostals

c)

internal intercostas

d)

rectus abdominus

74.

Another term for auditory tubes is:

a)

eustachian tubes

b)

equestrian tubes

c)

hearing tubes

d)

nasal tubes

75.

Movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion (examples are peristalsis and segmentation)

a)

ingestion

b)

digestion

c)

motility

d)

elimination

76.

The pharyngeal tonsils are also called _______ when swollen

a)

adenoids

b)

turbinates

c)

polyps

d)

conchae

77.

Excessive alcohol consumption, use of chewing tobacco, and eating heavily preserved foods increase the risk of

a)

enteritis

b)

stomach cancer

c)

esophageal varices

d)

ascites

78.

The voice box is also called the

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

trachea

d)

esophagus

79.

Regulation of voluntary swallowing occurs in the cerebrum. Where does regulation of involuntary or impulse swallowing occur?

a)

cerebellum and pons

b)

cerebellum and medulla

c)

pons and medulla

d)

pons and midbrain

80.

'Hay fever' and 'runny nose' are two examples of

a)

rhinitis

b)

pharyngitis

c)

laryngitis

d)

epiglottitis

81.

The more common name of epistaxis is

a)

difficulty breathing

b)

sore throat

c)

mouth ulcer

d)

nose bleed

82.

Which of the following lower respiratory structures does not contain cartilage rings?

a)

trachea

b)

primary bronchi

c)

secondary bronchi

d)

bronchioles

83.

The exchange of gases (O2 and CO2) between a living organism and its environment is

a)

pulmonary ventilation

b)

respiration

c)

perfusion

d)

hypoxia

84.

The single layer of simple epithelial cells found in the alveolus which function in gas exchange are called

a)

type A cells

b)

type B cells

c)

type 1 cells

d)

type 2 cells

85.

The neurologic control center of breathing RATE is located where?

a)

cortex

b)

midbrain

c)

pons

d)

medulla

86.

The space between the vocal cords that changes shape when we speak is the

a)

glottis

b)

larynx

c)

epistaxis

d)

diaphragm

87.

Surfactant, located in the alveoli, is made by what type of cell?

a)

type A cell

b)

type B cell

c)

type 1 cell

d)

type 2 cell

88.

The space, or barrier, located between the blood in the capillaries and the gas in the alveolus is called the

a)

lung membrane

b)

respiratory membrane

c)

pleural membrane

d)

breathing membrane

89.

The majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in what form?

a)

dissolved carbon dioxide

b)

bicarbonate

c)

carbamino-hemoglobin

d)

carbonic acid

90.

insufficient oxygen supply to the body's tissues is known as

a)

asthma

b)

atelectasis

c)

hypoxia

d)

pneumonia

91.

A life threatening condition caused by the Haemophilus influenza type B (hib) infection

a)

rhinitis

b)

pharyngitis

c)

laryngitis

d)

epiglottitis

92.

Hemoglobin molecules are large proteins that contain how many iron-containing heme components?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

93.

Alternating contraction of fibers of the muscularis within a single region of the GI tract that produces a 'back-and-forth' movement is called:

a)

segmentation

b)

peristalsis

c)

bolus

d)

ingestion

94.

Excessive mucus production and air tubes narrowing due to swollen bronchi and bronchioles are signs of

a)

chronic bronchitis

b)

emphysema

c)

asthma

d)

atelectasis

95.

cessation of respirations is known as

a)

eupnea

b)

hypoventilation

c)

Cheyne-stokes respiration

d)

apnea

96.

The volume that is moved into and out of the respiratory tract during a normal respiratory cycle is called

a)

vital capacity

b)

residual volume

c)

inspiratory reserve volume

d)

tidal volume

97.

During exercise as we are getting closer to our vital capacity, our residual volume will

a)

stay the same

b)

expand / increase

c)

diminish / decrease

d)

lengthen

98.

Breathing (moving air into the lungs) is also referred to as

a)

pulmonary ventilation

b)

pulmonary diffusion

c)

cellular respiration

d)

internal respiration

99.

The maximum volume that can be moved into the respiratory tract after a normal inspiration is called

a)

vital capacity

b)

inspiratory reserve volume

c)

expiratory reserve volume

d)

tidal volume

100.

A rhythmic, wavelike contraction of the gut wall caused by repeating waves of ring-like contraction along the circular muscle of the muscularis layer is called:

a)

segmentation

b)

peristalsis

c)

serosa

d)

bolus

101.

Eupnea is the term for

a)

normal breathing

b)

rapid, deep breathing

c)

slow, shallow respirations

d)

cessation of respirations

102.

What is a common symptom of hiatal hernia?

a)

gastric ulcer

b)

gastroesophageal reflux disease

c)

Barrett esophagus

d)

dental caries

103.

The volume remaining in the respiratory tract after maximal expiration is known as

a)

residual volume

b)

vital capacity

c)

expiratory reserve volume

d)

tidal volume

104.

During exercise as we move closer to our vital capacity, our inspiratory reserve volume will _________

a)

stay the same

b)

expand / increase

c)

diminish / decrease

d)

lengthen

105.

The chemoreceptors and baroreceptors that are sensitive to increases in blood carbon dioxide levels and decreases in oxygen levels are located where?

a)

carotid arteries and brachial arteries

b)

carotid arteries and aorta

c)

aorta and femoral arteries

d)

brachial and femoral arteries

106.

The largest amount of air we can breathe out in one expiration is known as

a)

tidal volume

b)

expiratory reserve volume

c)

vital capacity

d)

reserve volume

107.

Gas exchange at the tissue level is called

a)

superior inspiration

b)

inferior inspiration

c)

internal inspiration

d)

external inspiration

108.

Which nerves stimulate the diaphragm to contract?

a)

spinal accessory

b)

sciatic

c)

phrenic

d)

vagus

109.

Which obstructive pulmonary disorder is characterized by recurrent spasms of the smooth muscle in the walls of the bronchioles?

a)

bronchitis

b)

emphysema

c)

asthma

d)

atelectasis

110.

Enlargement and destruction of the alveolar walls progressing to alveoli that fuse into large air spaces occurs in

a)

bronchitis

b)

emphysema

c)

asthma

d)

atelectasis

111.

The lungs ability to stretch is referred to as lung

a)

homeostasis

b)

compensation

c)

compliance

d)

fusion

112.

Which pulmonary disorder would most likely have impaired lung compliance?

a)

COPD

b)

asthma

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

hemothorax

113.

Collapse or incomplete expansion of the lung is known as

a)

pleurisy

b)

hemothorax

c)

pneumonia

d)

atelectasis

114.

Which of the following is not a type of pneumonia that your book discusses?

a)

lobar pneumonia

b)

aspiration pneumonia

c)

respiratory pneumonia

d)

broncho-pneumonia

115.

When we breathe in (perform inspiration) our diaphragm will _________ and move ________ in the thoracic cavity

a)

contract, inferiorly

b)

contract, superiorly

c)

relax, inferiorly

d)

relax, superiorly

116.

inflammation of the parietal pleura, characterized by difficulty breathing and stabbing pain is referred to as pleuritis or

a)

myocarditis

b)

pneumothorax

c)

pleurisy

d)

pneumonia

117.

A highly contagious disease transmitted through inhalation or swallowing droplets contaminated with myobacterium tuberculosis is

a)

pneumonia

b)

tuberculosis

c)

bronchitis

d)

pleurisy

118.

Which primary mechanism of the digestive tract coordinates the digestive activity (motility, secretion, etc)?

a)

ingestion

b)

absorption

c)

elimination

d)

regulation

119.

The serosa is the outer most covering of the digestive tube, and in the abdominal cavity, it is also called

a)

greater omentum

b)

mesentery

c)

visceral peritoneum

d)

parietal peritoneum

120.

What structure prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities?

a)

frendulum

b)

uvula

c)

epiglottis

d)

papillae

121.

What structure of the tooth lines each tooth socket and anchors the tooth to bone?

a)

dentin

b)

root canal

c)

crown

d)

periodontal membrane

122.

Which of our salivary glands is the largest?

(Hint: It secretes a solution containing NaHCO3 that helps neutralize bacterial acids)

a)

parotid gland

b)

submandibular gland

c)

sublingual gland

d)

thymus gland

123.

The swallowing of a mass of chewed food is called

a)

ingestion

b)

deglutition

c)

bolus

d)

motility

124.

What type of pathogenic organism is most often the cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers?

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

prion

d)

fungus

125.

Which type of medication is most likely to cause a gastric or duodenal ulcer?

a)

acetaminophen

b)

beta blocker

c)

ibuprofen

d)

bismuth subsalicylate

126.

The inner lining of the small intestines which is made up of thousands of villi (and microvilli) is called __________

a)

lacteals

b)

mesentery

c)

plicae

d)

rugae

127.

Lymphatic capillaries embedded in the villi of the small intestines that function to absorb fats are called ___________

a)

lacteals

b)

mesentery

c)

plicae

d)

rugae

128.

What disorder involves a deficit of digestive enzymes or bile salts?

a)

gastroenteritis

b)

malabsorption syndrome

c)

maldigestion

d)

cholelithiasis

129.

A group of symptoms resulting from the failure of the small intestines to absorb nutrients properly is ________?

a)

gastroenteritis

b)

malabsorption syndrome

c)

maldigestion

d)

cholelithiasis

130.

This liver disease causes inflammation and is viral. It is associated with transfusion of contaminated blood or IV drug use. There is no vaccine.

a)

cirrhosis

b)

hepatitis A

c)

hepatitis B

d)

hepatitis C

131.

Inflammation of the large intestines is called:

a)

colitis

b)

enteritis

c)

hepatitis

d)

pancreatitis