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Science Olympiad Physics and General Science Questions

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 4hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Bouncing of a light ray when it strikes a reflecting surface is called.........

a)

Refraction

b)

Dispersion

c)

Reflection

d)

Diffraction

2.

which of the following is not a property of the image formed by a [lane mirror?

a)

virtual and erect

b)

Object size = image size

c)

object distance = image distance

d)

Real and inverted

3.

Which of the following is a concave mirror?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in the figure 10.6?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.

Convex mirror is also called as

a)

converging mirror

b)

diverging mirror

c)

plane mirror

d)

silver mirror

6.

The relation between focal length and radius of curvature is

a)

R = 2f

b)

1/f = 2R

c)

f = R/2

d)

R = 2/f

7.

The point on the spherical mirror at the middle of the surface is called

a)

focus

b)

centre of curvature

c)

pole

d)

radius of curvature

8.

The focal length of a plane mirror is ........

a)

infinite

b)

zero

c)

1m

d)

100m

9.

A convex mirror has a focal length 12 cm. Then its radius of curvature is ........ cm

a)

24

b)

12

c)

6

d)

1.2

10.

When the object is in between the centre of curvature (C) and focus (F) of a concave mirror, then the position of the image is ...........

a)

At focus

b)

At the centre of curvature

c)

at infinity

d)

beyond the centre of curvature

11.

Which of the following characteristic of an image formed for a convex mirror?

a)

Enlarged size

b)

virtual image

c)

Real image

d)

inverted image

12.

Which mirror is shown in the figure?

a)

convex mirror

b)

concave mirror

c)

plane mirror

d)

silver mirror

13.

When the object is at infinity, a point sized image is formed at ................ by the convex mirror

a)

focus behind the mirror

b)

focus in front of the mirror

c)

radius of curvature

d)

principal axis

14.

The angle of incidence of a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is ........... degree

a)

105

b)

180

c)

90

d)

0

15.

According to laws of reflection,

a)

angle of incidence > angle of reflection

b)

angle of incidence < angle of reflection

c)

angle of incidence = angle of reflection

d)

both 1 and 2

16.

Where will be the images of the Sun or the moon are formed by a concave mirror?

a)

Focus

b)

Pole

c)

centre of curvature

d)

beyond centre of curvature

17.

What is the size of the image formed when an object is kept at the focus in front of concave mirror?

a)

enlarged

b)

diminished

c)

highly enlarged

d)

highly diminished

18.

An object is placed 20 cm in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved 2 cm towards the object. The distance between the positions of the original and final images seen in the mirror is:

a)

2 cm

b)

4 cm

c)

10 cm

d)

20 cm

19.

Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?

a)

Convex mirror

b)

Plane mirror

c)

Concave mirror

d)

Combination of convex and concave mirror

20.

The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of object should be : ----------

a)

at the focus

b)

at the centre of curvature

c)

between focus and centre of curvature

d)

beyond centre of curvature

21.

A virtual image formed by a mirror of an object which is less than the size of an object . Name the mirror_______

a)

Concave Mirror

b)

Convex Mirror

c)

Plane Mirror

d)

Both Concave and Convex

22.

What is sound ✨?

a)

Vibration of molecules produced by vibrating objects

b)

Vibration of molecules produced by items that don't Vibrate .

23.

In solid particles sound travel faster than liquid

a)

True✨

b)

False🔰

24.

Transverse Waves move horizontally !

a)

True 💫

b)

False 🔰

25.

longitudinal move horizontally ✨

a)

True 🟩

b)

False 🟥

26.

What is Compression? ✨

a)

means the part of the sound wave where air particles are close together

b)

means when the part of the wave where the air particles are most spread out

27.

Sound is about Vibration of molecules produced by an object that is stable and not moving objects and detected by your ear Example of stuff that vibrate and produce sound .

a)

True 🟩

b)

False 🟥

28.

Sound travels fastest in

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

All of the above

29.

Sound is a

a)

Wave

b)

Mechanical Wave

c)

Longitudinal Wave

d)

Transverse Wave

30.

Which part of human ear converts sound vibrations into electrical signals

a)

Hammer

b)

Stirrup

c)

Tympanic membrane

d)

Cochlea

31.

What can force do to an object?

a)

Accelerate an object

b)

Slow down an object

c)

Have the object remain in place

d)

Have the object change shape

e)

All of the above

32.

What is the measure of force?

a)

Newtons

b)

Light years

c)

Inches

d)

Gallons

33.
If these boys are pulling with the same amount of force.  What will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
34.
Jupiter has about 317 times more mass than Earth. What can you infer from this fact? 
a)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much weaker than on Earth’s gravitational force.
b)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much stronger than Earth’s gravitational force.
c)
That Jupiter’s and Earth’s gravitational forces are equal.
d)
Mass has no effect on the gravitational force between two objects
35.
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
36.

___________ is an opposing force that makes objects in motion slow down.

a)

force

b)

speed

c)

friction

d)

mass

37.
What will cause an object to move?
a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
38.

The force you get when an object moves

    through air

a)

Gravity

b)

Nuclear

c)

Air resistance

d)

Electrostatic

39.

The sum of all forces acting on an object and direction is called the

a)

Balanced Force

b)

Net Force

c)

Unbalanced Force

d)

Contact Force

40.

Are the forces balanced or unbalanced?

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

41.

Name the missing force.

a)

Normal Force

b)

Push/Pull Force

c)

Friction Force

d)

Tension Force

42.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
43.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
44.
What is the net force?
a)
30 N 
b)
25 N 
c)
5 N 
d)
55 N 
45.

What is the resultant force?

a)

17 N, Left

b)

6N, Right

c)

11N, Left

d)

23N

46.

Which one of Newton's laws is shown

a)

3rd law

b)

2nd law

c)

1st law

47.

What does this picture represent

a)

Force,magnetism,acceleration

b)

Force, money, Apples

c)

Force, Mass, Acceleration

d)

Funny, monkeys, Arrive

48.

Which one of Newton's laws are displayed

a)

2nd law

b)

1st law

c)

3rd law

49.

Which of Newton's laws is shown

a)

1st law

b)

3rd law

c)

2nd law

50.

If there is a big mass, it would need a stronger force to accelerate it. Which law does this describe?

a)

3rd law

b)

1st law

c)

2nd law

51.

Distance divided by time is how this is calculated.

a)

Average Speed

b)

Instant Speed

c)

Acceleration

d)

Velocity

52.

Suppose you walked 80 meters in 40 seconds. What is your average speed?

a)

80 n/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

1 m/s

d)

0.5 m/s

53.

Suppose you are running at 8 mph for a race but then encounter a nice downhill. Which of the following is a likely instant speed during any part of the downhill portion of the race?

a)

0 mph

b)

8 mph

c)

9.5 mph

d)

7 mph

54.

A high speed power tool known as a floor burnisher is used to give floors a nice luster (soft glow). This tool contains an abrasive pad that rotates at 2000 rpm clockwise, which is an example of a ___________.

a)

distance

b)

acceleration

c)

speed

d)

velocity

55.

How fast an object is traveling in a certain direction is the definition of __________.

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

d)

position

56.

If you are jogging and your speed doesn't change, then you are traveling at a ____________ speed.

a)

constant

b)

instant

c)

slow

d)

fast

57.

On a distance-time graph, slope is used to calculate

a)

average speed.

b)

instant speed.

c)

instant velocity.

d)

acceleration.

58.

Which section shows an object decreasing in speed?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

What is the average speed for the first section of the graph?

a)

0 km/h

b)

30 km/h

c)

15 km/h

d)

-15 km/h

60.

During which time interval is the object not moving?

a)

9:00 to 11:00

b)

11:00 to 12:00

c)

12:00 to 12:30

d)

12:30 to 14:00

61.

Which of the following time intervals shows an object moving at a constant speed toward the reference point?

a)

9:00 to 11:00

b)

11:00 to 12:00

c)

12:00 to 12:30

d)

12:30 to 14:00

62.

What electrical quantities are related in ohms law?

a)

Current, Resistance & Power

b)

Current , Voltage and resistivity

c)

Current, Resistance & Resistance

d)

Voltage, resistance and current density

63.

What is the formula for quantity of electricity (Q)?

a)

Current * Time

b)

Voltage * Current

c)

Current * Resistance

d)

Voltage * Resistance

64.

Which is the semiconductor material?

a)

Eureka

b)

Ebonite

c)

Manganin

d)

Germanium

65.

Calculate the electrical energy in unit consumed by 500W lamp for 5h?

a)

0.5 Unit

b)

1.0 Unit

c)

2.0 Unit

d)

2.5 Unit

66.

Calculate the total power of the circuit of two lamps are rated as 200W/240V are connected in series across 240 Unit supply?

a)

50W

b)

100W

c)

280W

d)

400W

67.

What is the change of resistance value of the conductor as its diameter is doubled?

a)

Increase to two times

b)

Decrease to four times

c)

Decrease to half of the value

d)

No change in value of resistance

68.

Which conductor is good conductor?

a)

Iron

b)

Aluminium

c)

Copper

d)

P.V.C

69.

Select all that apply as Conductors

a)

Metal

b)

Gold

c)

Rubber

d)

Feathers

70.

Select all that are insulators

a)

Insulation

b)

Feathers

c)

Rubber

d)

Fur

71.
Current is...
a)
moving protons
b)
moving electrons
c)
measured in volts
d)
measured in ohms
72.
current is measured in....
a)
volts
b)
amps
c)
watts
d)
mph
73.
The two types of current are...
a)
AC/DC
b)
Alternating Current
c)
Direct Current
d)
All of the above
74.
Voltage is simply defined as...
a)
what 'pushes' electrons
b)
what 'stops' electrons
c)
moving electrons
75.
In the U.S most electrical outlets supply a voltage of....
a)
240 Volts
b)
120 Volts
c)
100 watts
d)
60 amps
76.
Resistance is...
a)
What "slows down" electrons
b)
What "speeds up" electrons
c)
Moving electrons
d)
What "pushes" electrons
77.
Good conductors are _______ resistors
a)
bad
b)
good
78.
Good insulators are _______ resistors
a)
good
b)
bad
79.
What characteristics impact resistance of a material?
a)
Thickness 
b)
Temperature
c)
Length
d)
All of these
80.
If the voltage stays the same, but the resistance goes up, the current will....
a)
increase (speed up)
b)
decrease (slow down)
c)
stay the same
81.
If the current increases it could be because of...
a)
increasing voltage
b)
decreasing resistance
c)
both
82.
A 120 w light bulb uses more ____________ than a 60 w light bulb.
a)
thermal energy
b)
electrical energy
83.
A light bulb is an example of a _______.
a)
current
b)
resistor
c)
battery
84.
Electrical energy is converted to _______ energy in a hair dryer.
a)
heat 
b)
light
85.
If you turn on all of the lights in your house, the electric meter measuring Kilowatt-hours outside your home will read a ________ value than if the lights are off.
a)
higher
b)
lower
86.
The process of plants losing water through their leaves is called ____.
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
transpiration
d)
exhaling
87.
What is the only process that removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
combustion
b)
cellular respiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
decomposition
88.
These gases, such as carbon dioxide, trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere causing global warming
a)
Global warming gases
b)
Hot House gases
c)
Green House gases
d)
Thermal pollution
89.
What converts nitrogen into a useable form for plants and animals?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
rain
90.
Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by
a)
Burning fossil fuels 
b)
Cellular respiration
c)
Decomposing organic matter
d)
All answers are correct
91.

The water cycle is driven by

a)

water

b)

wind

c)

the sun

d)

Earth's rotation

92.
Plants and animals cannot use nitrogen directly from the air.
a)
True
b)
False
93.
Nitrogen is essential for living organisms to make:
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Fats
94.
What part of the water cycle does this picture show?
a)
condensation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
95.
Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples of  ________________. 
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
accumulation
d)
precipitation
96.

All living things on earth are part of the....

a)

Biosphere

b)

Geosphere

c)

Hydrosphere

d)

Cryosphere

97.

Earth is divided into four different spheres. Which statement is true about the interaction between two of these spheres?

a)

Weather is an interaction between the hydrosphere and the geosphere.

b)

A plant receiving water from precipitation is an interaction between the biosphere and the hydrosphere.

c)

An ice cap providing shelter for an arctic animal is an interaction between the biosphere and the hydrosphere.

d)

The formation of the Grand Canyon is an example of an interaction between the geosphere and the atmosphere.

98.
This sphere is any part of the Earth covered by water.
a)
atmosphere
b)
biosphere
c)
hydrosphere
d)
lithosphere
99.
The main gas that makes up our atmosphere is...
a)
oxygen
b)
nitrogen
c)
hydrogen
d)
helium
100.
All water on Earth is recycled through ____.
a)
the water cycle
b)
pockets of nitrogen
c)
exhaled gas
d)
dead organic material
101.

How do plants and animals interact in the carbon dioxide/oxygen cycle?

a)

Plants release oxygen into the atmosphere which animals inhale. Animals exhale carbon dioxide into the atmosphere which is taken in by plants.

b)

Animals release oxygen into the atmosphere which plants inhale. Plants release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere which is breath in by animals.

c)

Plants and animals don't need each other.

d)

Plants and animals take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

102.

Does evaporation happen before or after condensation?

a)

before

b)

after

c)

during

103.

Water is...

a)

wet

b)

dry

104.

The process in which nitrogen circulates and is recycled is called

a)

The nitrogen cycle

b)

The carbon cycle

c)

The water cycle

d)

The phosphorus cycle

105.

Gas that makes up 78% of our atmosphere.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

106.
Burning fossil fuel has which effect in the carbon cycle?
a)
It removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
b)
It puts carbon dioxide under the ground.
c)
It adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
d)
It has no effect in the carbon cycle.
107.
What is happening at 1?
a)
respiration: releasing CO2
b)
decomposing CO2 in the soil
c)
photosynthesis: absorbing CO2
d)
turning CO2 from the atmosphere into organic molecules
108.

Which of the following could lead to the gradual extinction of a species? (Choose 2)

a)

Meteor Strike

b)

Rising Sea Levels

c)

Massive Volcanic Eruption

d)

Glaciation

109.

An example of a catastrophic event that could lead to mass extinction.

a)

Large Meteor Strike

b)

Rising Sea Levels

c)

Global Warming

d)

Falling Sea Levels

110.

Scientist believe that the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused in part by a large meteor strike. What is the most likely sequence of events following the meteor strike?

a)

Global Warming, Rising Sea Levels, Dinosaurs Drown

b)

Sun cannot penetrate the atmosphere, photosynthesis stops, dinosaurs starve

c)

Hurricanes, flooding, dinosaurs go extinct

d)

Earthquakes, ice age, dinosaurs freeze.

111.

Global cooling and glaciation would lead to _______________.

a)

Rising sea levels

b)

Falling sea levels

c)

Hurricanes

d)

Earthquakes

112.

Which two events could lead to mass extinction?

a)

An ice age

b)

Hurricane

c)

Massive volcanic eruption

d)

Tsunami

113.

True or False: Evidence from the fossil record shows that species change gradually over time.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

How do most fossils form?

a)

An insect becomes trapped in amber.

b)

An entire organism becomes frozen in ice.

c)

A dead organism becomes buried in sediment.

d)

A dead organism becomes buried in tar.

115.

What evidence is most important when using relative dating?

a)

the half-life of a radioactive element

b)

the position of sediment in petrified rock

c)

the types of minerals in a petrified fossil

d)

the position of fossils in sedimentary rock layers

116.

How do scientists determine the actual age of fossils?

a)

relative dating

b)

sedimentary dating

c)

radioactive dating

d)

mold and cast dating

117.

What theory proposes that evolution occurs steadily in tiny changes over long periods of time?

a)

gradualism

b)

relative dating

c)

natural selection

d)

punctuated equilibria

118.

Index fossils must meet two criteria, they must have existed for a short period of time and ...

a)

be few in numbers

b)

lived for a long time

c)

be widely distributed

d)

be really old in age

119.

How does the fossil record help to support the theory of evolution?

a)

the fossil record shows that organisms slowly change over time

b)

The fossil record shows that species evolve very quickly

c)

The fossil record does not support the theory of evolution

120.

What can scientists learn from studying the relationships between fossils?

a)

how old all rock layers are

b)

how life changed over time

c)

how many relatives fossils had

121.

Which rock layer most likely contains fossils of the oldest organisms?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

122.

If scientists found this fossil, what could they infer?

a)

what fish are like today

b)

that this fish lacked oxygen

c)

that water once covered the area where this fossil was found

123.

According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found

a)

At the top of the rock layers

b)

Near the bottom of the rock layers

c)

Somewhat near the surface

124.

Which rock layer contains the newest fossils?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

e)

F

125.
In what kind of rock can fossils be found?
a)
Sedimentary Rocks
b)
Igneous Rocks
c)
Metamorphic Rocks
d)
Granite
126.
Finding the fossils of trees in an area that is currently a desert without much life might tell us that the area, millions of years ago - 
a)
was heavily eroded by strong winds
b)
received enough rain to support a forest
c)
suffered very powerful earthquakes
d)
was destroyed by the impact of meteorites
127.
What event marks the end of each geologic area?
a)
1 million years
b)
burst of new life forms
c)
mass extinction
d)
ice age
128.

Why are coal, oil, and natural gas classified as nonrenewable resources?

a)

They are limitless

b)

They exist in many places on Earth.

c)

They are originally from once-living things.

d)

They take millions of years to form.

129.

One benefit of geothermal energy is that ________________________________.

a)

a plant can be built ANYWHERE

b)

it doesn't cost a lot of money to build

c)

it can provide power 24 hours a day

d)

it harms ecosystems where it's built

130.

Which of these is a true statement about nuclear power?

a)

It's waste can destroy habitats and ecosystems.

b)

It doesn't cost a lot of money to build.

c)

It does not produce radioactive waste.

d)

It produces very little amounts of energy.

131.

Which statement is true about coal and natural gas?

a)

Both are renewable resources

b)

Both require wind in order to work

c)

Both lead to greenhouse gases and climate change

d)

Neither one causes global warming

132.

What is a disadvantage to Hydroelectricity?

a)

lots and lots of pollution

b)

Kills wild bird population

c)

Radioactive waste

d)

Increases potential for flooding

133.

What are two advantages of geothermal energy?

a)

cheap and a lot pollution

b)

expensive and a lot of pollution

c)

cheap and little pollution

d)

expensive and little pollution

134.

If a river is located in a deep canyon, and has changing amounts of water , how can this be developed as an energy source?

a)

A dam could be built to store water

b)

A well could be dug to hold the water

c)

Wind turbines could be built on the banks.

135.

Why is solar energy considered renewable energy?

a)

It's cheaper than fossil fuels

b)

The sun's energy would not run out for billions of years

c)

Solar energy recharges batteries

d)

All of them

136.

Which renewable resource uses the natural resource in the picture below to produce energy?

a)

wind

b)

tidal

c)

biomass

d)

geothermal

137.

Which of the following is an advantage of using coal as an energy resource?

a)

There is not an abundant supply of coal.

b)

Coal is less expensive than oil.

c)

Burning coal contributes to global warming.

d)

Coal can be used to produce electricity.

138.

What are the advantages of Geothermal energy?

a)

Is a nonrenewable resource

b)

Can only be used in specific places in the world

c)

It comes from the Earth

d)

Takes months to build the machines to extract energy

139.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of fossil fuels?

a)

Not easily available

b)

causes pollution when burned

c)

only available at certain times

d)

creates long lasting waste

140.

Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of a nuclear power plant?

a)

It's waste can destroy habitats and ecosystems.

b)

It costs a lot of money to build.

c)

It produces radioactive waste.

d)

It produces large amounts of energy.

141.

Another advantage of using hydropower is that

a)

it's able to produce a steady flow of energy 24 hours a day

b)

it's very cheap to build a dam

c)

no ecosystems are destroyed by damming up a river

d)

dams cause flooding

142.

Why do most of the power plants in the US burn coal as an energy source?

a)

They haven't developed the technology to use anything else.

b)

Mining for coal does not harm any habitats or ecosystems.

c)

Coal is a non-polluting source of energy.

d)

Coal is a renewable energy source.

143.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
144.
The greenhouse gas having the greatest role in human-caused global warming is
a)
methane
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons)
d)
ozone
145.

Why is the increase of Greenhouse gases a big issue?

a)

It causes climate change and increase in the global temerature

b)

It can lead to a major increase in Greenhouses

c)

It leads to more factories

d)

It causes a major decrease in people

146.
The gradual increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is known as ________________.
a)
Greenhouse Effect
b)
Global Warming
c)
Carbon Dioxide Gases
d)
Methane
147.
How can global warming cause sea levels to rise? Choose the best answer.
a)
by causing it to rain more often
b)
by melting glaciers and ice caps
c)
by increasing the number of undersea volcanic eruptions
d)
by creating bigger and more powerful hurricanes
148.

Why does cutting down trees increase global warming?

a)

trees absorb carbon dioxide

b)

trees provide shade which counteracts global warming

c)

trees absorbs the sun's energy without radiating back into the atmosphere

d)

trees drain greenhouse gases like methane from soil

149.
What happens to the temperature if more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere?
a)
Temperature goes up
b)
Temperature goes down
150.
Things you can do to help decrease global warming include:
a)
Eat more ice cream.
b)
Keep your freezer door open.
c)
Keep your air conditioner on high.
d)
Turn off your lights when you’re not using them.
151.

How is the greenhouse effect produced?

a)

When solar energy trespasses the atmosphere.

b)

When some energy is reflected back to earth.

c)

When the green house is burned.

d)

When the sun doesn't emit radiation.

152.

How are greenhouse gasses harming our environment?

a)

They aren't

b)

Less heat is able to escape causing the Earth to cool down

c)

Less heat is able to escape causing the Earth to warm up

d)

More heat is able to escape

153.

Which of the following could increase the amount of greenhouse gasses in our atmosphere?

a)

Burning fossil fuels

b)

Planting trees

c)

Walking to school and work

d)

Cutting down trees

154.
The greenhouse gas having the greatest role in human-caused global warming is
a)
methane
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons)
d)
ozone
155.
What is recycling?
a)
is to use materials again and again to make something new.
b)
is produce new brand products and sell them.
c)
is living in the developed world but taking care of the nature.
d)
is classify garbage in different colors.
156.
Do we need greenhouse gases on Earth?
a)
Yes - they keep the Earth warm
b)
Yes - they keep all the gases on our planet
c)
No - they only cause terrible climate change
d)
No - they only block some of the Sun's rays
157.
Which of the following are greenhouse gases?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Methane
c)
Nitrous Oxide
d)
All answers are correct
158.
Which one of the choices below is NOT a  cause for global warming?
a)
Having too many cows
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Planting new trees
159.
Without the Greenhouse Effect the Earth would be too
a)
warm 
b)
cold
c)
dead
d)
funny
160.
Which of the following is NOT an effect of Global Warming?
a)
Polar ice caps will melt.
b)
Coastal regions will be covered with rising sea levels.
c)
Some areas will experience serious droughts
d)
The Earth's rotation will slow down and eventually stop
161.

All of the following are greenhouse gases except

a)

water vapor

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrous oxide

162.

The 3Rs of reducing global warming mean __________.

a)

Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

b)

Receipt, Reverse, Renewal

c)

Retreat, Repeat, Reverse

d)

None of the above.

163.

The circle that devides the globe into day and night is called

a)

Circle of darkness

b)

Circle of day and night

c)

Circle of illumination

d)

None of the above

164.

The perioed of one rotation of earth is known as

a)

Sun day

b)

Earth day

c)

Moon day

d)

None of the above

165.

Which one of the following is the source of light on earth

a)

Sun

b)

Moon

c)

Space

d)

Satellite

166.

Motion of the earth on its axis in about 24 hours is called

a)

Revolution

b)

Rotation

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

167.

Motion of the earth around the sun is called

a)

Revolution

b)

Rotation

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

168.

A year with 366 days is called

a)

Normal year

b)

Leap year

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

169.

What will happen if earth did not rotate

a)

Cold conditions on earth's half surface

b)

Warm conditions on earth's half surface

c)

No life possible in such extreme climatic conditions

d)

All of the above

170.

When do longest day and shortest night occure in northern hemisphere

a)

21 june

b)

23 September

c)

22 December

d)

21 march

171.

Days and night occure on earth due to

a)

Revolution

b)

Rotation

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

172.

When do equinoxes occure on earth

a)

21 march

b)

22 December

c)

21 june

d)

21 February

173.
Terrestrial planets are usually:
a)
closer to their star than gas giants.
b)
less dense than ice giants.
c)
larger than gas giants.
d)
older than ice giants.
174.
As you move further away from the center of the solar system:
a)
the planets get smaller.
b)
the planets get less dense.
c)
the planets get warmer.
d)
all of the above.
175.
Scientists are able to determine how the Earth formed by:
a)
radioactive dating of meteorites.
b)
analyzing craters on the Earth and Moon.
c)
studying the size an composition of other planets.
d)
all of the above.
176.
Based on current scientific evidence, how old is the Earth?
a)
6,000 years old
b)
460 million years old
c)
4.6 billion years old
d)
46 billion years old
177.

What are the small bodies in the early stages of development of the solar system called?

a)
inertia
b)
planetesimal
c)
terrestrial planet
d)
gas giant
178.
The moon probably formed when...
a)
A piece of the Earth broke off due to it's fast rotation
b)
A Mars-sized object rammed into the Earth
c)
Earth captured the moon gravitationally as it attempted to pass by.
d)
the molten bubble of the Earth budded.
179.

How did water get to earth?

a)

It was naturally here when earth was forming

b)

Icey Comets collided with earth

c)

Meteorites (Carbonaceous Chondrite) collided with earth

d)

The accretion disk from the solar systems origin had high levels of water

180.

What was an source of heat on the early earth?

a)

Radioactivity

b)

Gravitation Pressure

c)

Accretion (collisions with other materials)

d)

All of the above

181.

In the earliest stages of Earth's development, our planet was made of what?

a)

Cotton Candy

b)

Molten rock

c)

Molten rock with a thin, hard crust

d)

Water

182.
Erosion:
a)
can be caused by wind, water, or aliens.
b)
only occurs on planets that have an atmosphere.
c)
may cause planets to have more craters.
d)
all of the above.
183.

What is the force that pulls all things in the universe together?

(a)  

184.

What is the process called that allowed dust to progress to planetesimals, then protoplanets, and finally planets

(a)  

185.
Earth does not have nearly as many craters as the Moon because:
a)
the Moon protected the Earth from many asteroid impacts.
b)
the Earth's magnetic field deflects incoming asteroids.
c)
many of the Earth's craters have eroded away.
d)
the Earth isn't as old as the Moon.

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