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KS3 SCIENCE ULTIMATE QUIZ 2022

Total questions: 183

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select the best description of digestion from the following:

a)

The absorption of nutrients into the body.

b)

The swallowing and absorption of food.

c)

The breaking down of food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body.

d)

The enlargement of the stomach to attract butterflies and repel evil forces from conquering our innocent minds.

2.

What is organ B?

(a)  

3.

What is organ F?

(a)  

4.

What is organ C?

(a)  

5.

What is organ D?

(a)  

6.

What is organ G?

(a)  

7.

What is organ I?

(a)  

8.

What is organ H?

(a)  

9.

What is organ E?

(a)  

10.

What is organ J?

(a)  

11.

What is organ A?

(a)  

12.

Food that we eat passes through the organs in this sequence:


mouth --> W --> X --> small intestine --> Y --> rectum --> Z


What is W?

(a)  

13.

Food that we eat passes through the organs in this sequence:


mouth --> W --> X --> small intestine --> Y --> rectum --> Z


What is X?

(a)  

14.

Food that we eat passes through the organs in this sequence:


mouth --> W --> X --> small intestine --> Y --> rectum --> Z


What is Y?

(a)  

15.

Food that we eat passes through the organs in this sequence:


mouth --> W --> X --> small intestine --> Y --> rectum --> Z


What is Z?

(a)  

16.

This organ breaks down food physically and contains amylase to digest starch.

a)

small intestine

b)

rectum

c)

mouth

d)

gallbladder

17.

The process that involves muscle contractions to push food through the alimentary canal.

a)

photosynthesis

b)

paralysis

c)

peristalsis

d)

hypostasis

18.

Name of the muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach.

(a)  

19.

Which of the following are true about the stomach.

(2 answers)

a)

It is where babies grow.

b)

Bacteria is killed there by hydrochloric acid.

c)

It is where bile is produced.

d)

It is one of the organs where protein is digested.

20.

This is where food is digested and absorbed into the bloodstream.

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

liver

21.

What is the function of amylase?

a)

to make the food softer

b)

to digest starch into smaller sugar molecules

c)

to digest protein

d)

it absorbs nutrients

22.

What is the function of organ I?

a)

to kill bacteria

b)

to absorb excess water

c)

to absorb digested food into the bloodstream

d)

to store faeces before it is released from the body

23.

What is the function of the organ shown in the image?

a)

digestion and absorption of food into the bloodstream

b)

to break down starch into amylase

c)

to produce hydrochloric acid to kill harmful bateria

d)

to absorb excess water

24.

Which of the following best describes the function of digestive enzymes?

a)

To kill harmful bacteria.

b)

To absorb nutrients from the bloodstream.

c)

To break down food into smaller molecules to be absorbed by the body.

d)

To release nutrients into the bloodstream.

25.

After the food has passed through the large intestine, it is stored in the ___________ before it is released through the ___________.

a)

anus, rectum

b)

rectum, anus

c)

oesophagus, mouth

d)

mouth, oesophagus

26.

What is the function of the pancreas?

a)

Produces enzymes

b)

Produces hydrochloric acid

c)

Produces bile

d)

Produces starch

27.

The muscular tube that begins at the mouth and ends at the anus is known as the...

a)

oesophagus

b)

small intestine

c)

large intestine

d)

alimentary canal

28.

Digestion is all about...

a)

releasing nutrients from the body into the environment.

b)

killing harmful bacteria in the food that enters our body.

c)

producing starch for good health.

d)

breaking food down into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body.

29.

Which of the following best describes adaptation shown by living organisms?

a)

a process of reproduction

b)

the way an organism lives its life

c)

features developed for an organism to better suit its environment for survival

d)

characteristics of an organism that makes it attractive

30.

"White appearance, thick layers of fat and fur."

These are likely adaptations for organisms __________

a)

in the desert

b)

in a tropical rainforest

c)

in cold climate

d)

at a white-sand beach

31.

Which of the following are correct adaptations shown by elephants? (Multiple answers)

a)

long trunk to propel themselves into the air like organic helicopters

b)

they are large sized to discourage other wild animals from attacking them

c)

they flap their large ears to help themselves stay cool

d)

they move in herds to protect their young

32.

Which of these are adaptations shown by carnivorous animals? (Multiple answers)

a)

Eyes in front of the head to better judge distance.

b)

Have large and sharp canine teeth.

c)

Have bright colours so that they stand out.

d)

Able to move silently.

33.

This squirrel is feasting on an insect. What does this tell you about squirrels? They are...

a)

Herbivores

b)

Carnivores

c)

Omnivores

d)

Detritivores

34.

Which of the following are true about this hare? (Multiple answers)

a)

It is using camouflage.

b)

It has large ears to keep its body cool.

c)

It is trying to prevent itself from being detected by predators.

d)

It has thick fur to keep warm.

35.

What are some adaptations shown by a cactus in its dry environment? (Multiple answers)

a)

It has a thick waxy covering to prevent water loss.

b)

Deep and extensive roots.

c)

Small spines instead of leaves to reduce water loss.

d)

Large, smelly flowers to trap flies.

36.

Bears and bats eat a lot in the autumn so that... (multiple answers)

a)

they can go into hibernation.

b)

they can go into aestivation.

c)

they have enough energy to sleep through winter without any food.

d)

they have enough energy to go on a rampage in winter.

37.

Crocodiles can bury itself in mud and go into a deep sleep during the hot and dry season (aestivation). When they do this, their breathing rate and heart rate slows down so that...

a)

the body produces more water

b)

they conserve more energy

c)

they only need to eat a little during that period

d)

they keep themselves warmer

38.

Camels have thick padded feet. This is an adaptation to which feature of its habitat?

a)

Temperature

b)

Wind speed

c)

Acidity

d)

Air pressure

39.

Having large movable ears and eyes at the side of the head are typical characteristics exhibited by...

a)

Herbivores

b)

Carnivores

c)

Omnivores

d)

Vorvores

40.

Which of the following are true about deciduous trees?

a)

They lose their leaves during winter.

b)

They stay green throughout the year.

c)

They die in winter.

d)

Their leaves turn yellow during autumn.

41.

Why is biological adaptation important?

a)

For the survival of the various species in the world.

b)

For the elimination of harmful organisms.

c)

To prevent climate change.

d)

To accelerate ozone depletion.

42.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
43.
A dichotomous key for insects is given. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Heteroptera
c)
Diptera
d)
Lepidoptera
44.
What is the name of bird W?
a)
Certhidea
b)
Geospiza
c)
Camarhynchus
d)
Platyspiza
45.
What is the name of bird Z?
a)
Certhidea
b)
Geospiza
c)
Camarhynchus
d)
Platyspiza
46.

Choose the 3 steps that need to be taken for selective breeding.

a)

Breed the selected varieties together.

b)

Allow the species to adapt naturally over several generations.

c)

Choose the offspring with the desired traits and breed them together.

d)

Repeat the process for several generations.

47.

You are a farmer with 4 tomato plant varieties.

Which two varieties will you choose to cross breed to produce a new variety that is profitable?

a)

Variety A: Large size and sour

b)

Variety B: Medium size and salty

c)

Variety C: Small size and sweet

d)

Variety D: Small size and bitter

48.

The purpose of selective breeding is to

a)

get bigger animals

b)

get smaller animals

c)

create animals with desirable traits

d)

create animals with bad traits

49.
When an organism of a species has an adaptation, it will compete for resources better, survive longer and pass that adaptation on to it's offspring. This process is called
a)
evolution by natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
inbreeding
d)
outbreeding
50.
The English naturalist that developed the theory of how evolution works.
a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Charles M. Schulz
c)
Charles Dickens
d)
Charles Norris
51.
Which of these is an example of natural selection?
a)
The largest animal in a population will have more opportunities for reproduction.
b)
Several species of organisms work together so that they all succeed.
c)
One species takes all the resources in an environment leaving none for others.
d)
Organism that are best suited to an environment tend to survive and reproduce more often.
52.

The following is the word equation for photosynthesis.

Z   +   H      M   +   BZ\ \ \ +\ \ \ H\ \ \ \longrightarrow\ \ \ M\ \ \ +\ \ \ B  



What is Z and M?

a)

Z: carbon dioxide, M: water

b)

Z: water, M: oxygen

c)

Z: glucose, M: water

d)

Z: oxygen, M: carbon dioxide

53.

Photosynthesis is the process in which chlorophyll absorbs ____________ to combine ____________ with water to produce ___________ in the leaves.

a)

sunlight, oxygen, glucose

b)

sunlight, carbon dioxide, glucose

c)

water, carbon dioxide, starch

d)

water, oxygen, starch

54.

What is the name of the gas produced in photosynthesis?

(a)  

55.

Boiling Water

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

56.

Curling Iron

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

57.

Weather Patterns

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

58.

Sun Bathing

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

59.

Feet on Hot Sand

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

60.

Which of the following are key points about heat transfer through a solid?

a)

Convection

b)

Particles absorb heat and vibrate faster

c)

Conduction

d)

Hot air rises, cold air sinks

e)

Vibration is transferred from one particle to another.

61.

Which of the following are key points about heat transfer through a fluid?

a)

Convection

b)

Hot air is less dense than cold air

c)

Conduction

d)

Hot air rises, cold air sinks

e)

Vibration is transferred from one particle to another.

62.

Which of the following are key words about heat transfer that does not involve particles?

a)

Convection

b)

Involves waves

c)

Radiation

d)

Vibration of particles

e)

Infrared

63.

What are the characteristics of a good absorber and good radiator of infrared radiation?

a)

shiny

b)

dull

c)

glossy

d)

dark coloured

64.

What are the characteristics of a good reflector and poor absorber of infrared radiation?

a)

shiny

b)

dull

c)

glossy

d)

white

65.

Based on the particle theory of matter, when liquid water is heated up to the boiling point, the water particles will ____________ heat energy, become more energetic and move ____________. When the energy that is absorbed by the particles overcomes the forces of ______________ between the water particles, the bonds between water particles will _____________ and the water particles will escape into the air as water vapour (gas).


Write your answers separated by commas without spaces in between.


Example for how to write your answers:

xxx,yyy,zzz,ggg,hhh

(a)  

66.

Based on the particle theory of matter, when liquid water is cooled down to the freezing point, the water particles will ____________ heat energy, become ___________ energetic and move ____________. The particles then begin to move ___________ to one another due to the attractive forces between the particles and form ___________ to become ice (solid).


Write your answers separated by commas without spaces in between.


Example for how to write your answers:

xxx,yyy,zzz,ggg,hhh

(a)  

67.

Copper + Sulfuric acid   \rightarrow   (a)   + Hydrogen

68.

Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid   \rightarrow   (a)   + Hydrogen

69.

Zinc + Hydrochloric acid   \rightarrow  Zinc chloride + (a)  

70.

Iron + (a)      \rightarrow  Iron sulfate + Hydrogen

71.

Lithium + Oxygen  \longrightarrow   (a)    

72.

When a metal reacts with an acid, a salt and (a)   gas is produced.

73.

Potassium carbonate + Hydrochloric acid  \rightarrow   (a)   + Carbon dioxide + Water

74.

Calcium carbonate + Sulfuric acid  \rightarrow   (a)   + Carbon dioxide + Water

75.

Lead sulfate + Sodium   \rightarrow  

a)

Lead + Sulfate + Sodium

b)

Sodium sulfate + Lead

c)

Lead Sodium + Sulfate

d)

Lead sulfate sodium

76.

Zinc chloride + Magnesium   \rightarrow  

a)

Magnesium chloride

b)

Magnesium zinc + Chloride

c)

Magnesium chloride + Zinc

d)

Magnesium + Zinc + Chloride

77.

Calcium chloride + Lead   \rightarrow  No reaction


Why is there no reaction?

a)

Lead is more reactive than chlorine. 

b)

Chlorine is more reactive than lead.

c)

Lead is more reactive than calcium.

d)

Calcium is more reactive than lead.

78.

Tin sulfate + Aluminium  \rightarrow

a)

No reaction

b)

Aluminium sulfate

c)

Aluminium sulfate + Tin

d)

Tin aluminium + Sulfate

79.

Potassium nitrate + Iron  \rightarrow

a)

No reaction

b)

Iron nitrate

c)

Iron nitrate + Potassium

d)

Potassium iron + Nitrate

80.

The image shows a distance time graph of a car journey. How many times did the car stop during this journey?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

d)

The car didn't stop. Checkmate!

81.

The image shows a distance time graph of a car journey. How far did the car travel in km after 9 minutes?

a)

9 km

b)

0 km

c)

8 km

d)

10 km

82.

The image shows a distance time graph of a car journey. What is the speed of the car in km/minutes in the first 4 minutes of its journey?

a)

1 km/min

b)

2 km/min

c)

3 km/min

d)

4 km/min

83.

The image shows a distance time graph of a car journey. At which period was the car travelling the fastest?

a)

0 - 4 minutes

b)

4 - 7 minutes

c)

7 - 10 minutes

d)

5 - 8 minutes

84.

The image shows a distance time graph of John's journey. At which point was John on his way back to where he started?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.

The distance-time graph shows the graphs of three boys.

Gerald: Green line

Billy: Blue line

Rando: Red line

Between Billy and Rando, who reached the 40 metre mark first?

a)

Billy

b)

Rando

86.

The distance-time graph shows the graphs of three boys.

Gerald: Green line

Billy: Blue line

Rando: Red line

Who did not reach the 100 m finish line?

a)

Gerald

b)

Billy

c)

Rando

87.

The distance-time graph shows the graphs of three boys.

Gerald: Green line

Billy: Blue line

Rando: Red line

Who stopped and ran back to the starting line?

a)

Gerald

b)

Billy

c)

Rando

88.
What is the equation used to calculate pressure?
a)
pressure= force/mass
b)
pressure =mass/volume
c)
pressure=area/force
d)
pressure=force/area
89.

Choose two correct applications that exert high pressure.

a)

Tractors have big and wide wheels

b)

Press a thumbtack into a plank

c)

Studs on the sole of football boots

d)

Shoulder pad for a school bag

90.

Choose two factors that affect air pressure

a)

mass

b)

volume

c)

area

d)

temperature

91.

What pressure will be exerted by a 10 N box that has equal sides of 1 meter?

a)

1 Pa

b)

2 Pa

c)

5 Pa

d)

10 Pa

e)

20 Pa

92.

The higher the temperature, the .................................. the movement of air particles.

a)

slower

b)

faster

c)

neither

d)

same

93.

Which factors affect the rate of a reaction?

a)

temperature

b)

concentration

c)

size

d)

pressure

e)

catalyst

94.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

it increases the frequency of collision

95.

Grinding an effervescent tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increase of

a)

concentration

b)

total surface area

c)

temperature

d)

size

96.

Why does breaking up a solid reactant increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it creates more solid

b)

it creates more energy

c)

it increases the total surface area

d)

it increases the concentration

97.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of collisions

98.
Living things do all the following EXCEPT:
a)
Respond to stimulus
b)
Grow and develop
c)
Maintain homeostasis
d)
They do not change
99.

Which of the following is the function of the circulatory system in animals?

a)

For respiration.

b)

To conduct photosynthesis more efficiently.

c)

Transport substances throughout the body using blood as a medium.

d)

To prevent constipation.

100.

Which of the following are substances transported by the circulatory system?

a)

oxygen

b)

nutrients

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

waste materials

101.

Humans use the ______________ circulatory system.

a)

Open

b)

Single

c)

Double

d)

Triple

102.

Insects use the ____________ circulatory system, while fish usually use the ____________ circulatory system.

a)

single, double

b)

double, single

c)

single, open

d)

open, single

103.

Name the type of blood vessel that transports blood away from the heart.

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

d)

vena cava

104.

Name blood vessel B.

(a)  

105.

Name the organ where gaseous exchange occurs.

(a)  

106.

Which of the following is an artery?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

None of them

107.

The _________ is the largest artery that transports blood to ____________.

a)

pulmonary artery, heart

b)

pulmonary artery, lungs

c)

aorta, heart

d)

aorta, the different parts of the body

108.

Which of the following is a capillary?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

None of them

109.

Name the type of blood vessel that transports blood to the heart.

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

d)

aorta

110.

The type of blood that flows in the aorta has:

a)

high concentration of oxygen

b)

low concentration of oxygen

c)

high concentration of carbon dioxide

d)

low concentration of carbon dioxide

111.

Which of the following has valves in them?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

All of them

112.

Which of the following is the aorta?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

113.

What is E?

(a)  

114.

The type of blood that flows to the lungs has:

a)

high concentration of oxygen

b)

low concentration of oxygen

c)

high concentration of carbon dioxide

d)

low concentration of carbon dioxide

115.

Name blood vessel A.

(a)  

116.

What is the name of the part labelled '5'?

(a)  

117.

Which of the following is a vein?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

None of them

118.

Which of the following are true about capillaries?

a)

They are where substances diffuse between the blood and body tissues.

b)

They have valves.

c)

They have very thin walls.

d)

They have thick muscular walls.

119.

Why do arteries have a thicker muscular wall compared to veins? (2 answers)

a)

blood is pumped through it to reach all over the body

b)

it transports a lot of blood to the lungs

c)

to withstand the high pressure

d)

it is a strong pump

120.

Name blood vessel C.

(a)  

121.

Which of the following can a pulse be felt?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

None of them

122.

What are valves in veins for?

a)

to ensure that blood stops flowing.

b)

to ensure that blood can flow in all directions.

c)

to ensure that blood only flows in one direction.

d)

to ensure that blood flows backwards.

123.

Why do arteries have a thicker elastic wall compared to veins?

a)

to prevent blood from flowing backwards.

b)

to pump blood throughout the body.

c)

so that they can stretch and allow a pulse.

d)

to ensure that blood only flows in one direction.

124.

What is the DEPENDENT variable (effect) in this experiment?


"Does eating breakfast improve test scores?"

a)

eating breakfast or not

b)

the grade you got on the test

c)

what time you get up in the morning

d)

how tasty the breakfast is

125.

You are testing how the amount you water a plant affects its growth. What would be the INDEPENDENT VARIABLE in this experiment.

a)

They type of pot you put the plants in.

b)

The amount you water each plant.

c)

The amount of sunlight the plants get.

d)

The amount the plant grows.

126.

A scientist is testing which flavor of ice cream melts the fastest. What would his controlled variables be? (choose ALL that apply)

a)

The flavor of ice cream

b)

the kind of cone the ice creams are in

c)

the place in the room where the ice cream is

d)

the size of the scoop

e)

the time it takes to melt

127.

Sadie is testing how the age of a seed affects how fast plants grow. Look at the picture to see if you can figure out what makes her experiment unfair. Mark all that apply.

a)

She used different types of seeds/plants.

b)

The plants are in different kinds of pots.

c)

She did not plant very many plants.

d)

Seed age might not make a difference.

128.

What is the DEPENDENT variable (effect that is measured) in this experiment?

"Do tall people jump further than short people?"

a)

height of the person

b)

weight of the person

c)

how fast the person runs

d)

how far the person jumps

129.

Complete the word equation:

lithium + silver nitrate →

a)

lithium + silver nitrate

b)

lithium + silver nitrite

c)

silver + lithium nitrate

d)

silver + lithium nitrite

130.

Aluminium is more reactive than ....

a)

Calcium and Zinc

b)

Sodium and Gold

c)

Magnesium and Copper

d)

Lead and Iron

131.

What type of circuit is show in the image?

a)

Series Circuit

b)

Parallel Circuit

132.

What kind of circuit is this?

a)

series

b)

parallel

133.

In which of the following circuits will all of the remaining light bulbs go out if bulb 3 burns out?

a)
b)
c)
d)
134.
In a parallel circuit if one of the light bulbs burns out the rest _________.
a)
stop the flow of electricity
b)
 can still light up
c)
 will go out
d)
of the light bulbs burn out also
135.
Choose the correct sentence.
a)
This circuit will work because it is an open circuit.
b)
This circuit will work because it is a closed circuit.
c)
This circuit will NOT work because it is an open circuit.
d)
This circuit will NOT work because it is a closed circuit.
136.

What can you say about the current in the series circuit?

a)

it splits across the components

b)

it changes constantly

c)

it is different in different places

d)

it is the same everywhere

137.

If the ammeter says the current is 5A, what is the current flowing through one bulb?

a)

2.5A

b)

10A

c)

5A

d)

0

138.

If one bulb was broken, what would happen?

a)

current would no longer flow, so everything would be off

b)

the ammeter would measure a current from the other bulb

c)

the switch would keep the current flowing

d)

the cell would burn out and catch fire

139.

What is the name of the device which measures current?

(a)  

140.

What causes a decrease in current?

a)

Adding another bulb

b)

increasing resistance

c)

decreasing voltage from the supply

d)

decreasing the resistance

141.

If the current flowing through the cell is 2A, what is the ammeter reading?

a)

5A

b)

1A

c)

6A

d)

2A

142.

Sound is caused by (a)   . (answer without punctuation)

143.

Sound needs a ________________ to be transmitted.

a)

mantle

b)

median

c)

medium

d)

mountain

144.

Sound cannot travel through a (a)   . (answer without punctuation)

145.

Sound can travel through....

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

outer space

146.

Sound waves are caused by the vibration of p (a)   . (answer without punctuation)

147.

What is the function of an oscilloscope?

a)

It is like a telescope but for ears.

b)

It allows us to listen to low frequency sounds.

c)

It allows us to see sound waves.

d)

It functions like a speaker.

148.

Which of the following best describes how sound travel from one place to another?

a)

Sound floats from one place to another.

b)

From the vibration of particles that form a sound wave.

c)

Sound flies from one place to another.

d)

From the electrical pulses of sound.

149.

The lower the amplitude, the ___________ the sound.

a)

louder

b)

softer

c)

higher pitched

d)

lower pitched

150.

The higher the frequency, the ___________ the sound.

a)

louder

b)

softer

c)

higher pitched

d)

lower pitched

151.

Both sound waves P and Q shown were recorded in the same period of time (1 second). Which of the following are true about them?

a)

P and Q have the same frequency.

b)

P and Q have the same amplitude.

c)

P has lower frequency.

d)

Q has a higher amplitude.

e)

P sounds softer.

152.

Both sound waves X and Y shown were recorded in the same period of time (1 second) with the same loudness. Which of the following are true about them?

a)

X and Y have the same frequency.

b)

X and Y have the same amplitude.

c)

X has lower frequency.

d)

Y has a higher amplitude.

e)

Y has a higher pitch.

153.

Both sound waves A and B shown were recorded in the same period of time (1 second). It was observed that B has higher crests (peaks) than A. Which of the following are true about them?

a)

A and B have the same frequency.

b)

B is louder than A.

c)

A has a lower pitch.

d)

B has a frequency of 10 Hz

e)

A has a frequency of 2 Hz

154.

Lee looks at different sound traces with an oscilloscope. Describe what is happening to the sound from A to B. The pitch of the sound ________________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

155.

Lee looks at different sound traces with an oscilloscope. Describe what is happening to the sound from A to B. The frequency of the sound ________________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

156.

Lee looks at different sound traces with an oscilloscope. Describe what is happening to the sound from A to B. The volume of the sound ________________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

157.

Lee looks at different sound traces with an oscilloscope. Describe what is happening to the sound from A to B. The amplitude of the sound ________________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

158.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of how we hear with our ears?

a)

The ear receives the sound waves and deciphers the sound.

b)

The ear receives the sound waves and it causes the brain to vibrate.

c)

The ear converts sound vibrations into nerve impulses to be deciphered at the brain.

d)

The ear receives the sound waves and digests it.

159.

Why is it important for us to have two ears?

a)

So that we look balanced.

b)

So that sound waves can pass through the head easily.

c)

So that water can pass through easily.

d)

So that we can detect where a sound is coming from.

160.

What is the name of the device that enables us to see sound waves?

a)

sounderscope

b)

ampliscope

c)

oscilloscope

d)

organoscope

161.

The number of vibrations per second is called _______________ and it is measured in _________________.

a)

frequency, decibels (dB)

b)

frequency, Hertz (Hz)

c)

amplitude, decibels (dB)

d)

wavelength, centimeter (cm)

162.

Which of the following is caused by light dispersion?

a)

swimming pool looking shallower than it really is

b)

pencil that looks bent in a cup of water

c)

rainbow

d)

seeing reflection in the mirror

163.

When we combine the colours of the rainbow, we get ___________ light.

a)

indigo

b)

red

c)

violet

d)

white

164.

Which of the following are true about light dispersion?

a)

it involves refraction

b)

it involves reflection

c)

different wavelengths of light have different colours

d)

different wavelengths of light changes speed differently when entering a medium

165.

Which of the following are true about light?

a)

White light consists of all the primary colours.

b)

Visible light with the longest wavelength is violet

c)

Visible light with the longest wavelength is red

d)

Visible light with the shortest wavelength is red

e)

Visible light with the shortest wavelength is violet

166.

Light with longer wavelength bends less than light with shorter wavelength when it enters a denser medium.

a)

True

b)

False

167.

Tiny water droplets in the sky act like ___________ that disperse the white light from the sun into a rainbow.

a)

mirrors

b)

torchlights

c)

prisms

d)

glass blocks

168.

Which of the following are primary colours?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

green

e)

purple

169.

Which of the following are secondary colours?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

magenta

e)

cyan

170.

Which colours add up to give magenta?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

green

171.

Which colours add up to give cyan?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

green

172.

Which colours add up to give yellow?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

green

173.

Why does a blue coat look blue to us?

a)

It reflects blue colour.

b)

It absorbs blue colour.

c)

It reflects all colours except for blue.

d)

It absorbs all colours except for blue.

174.

Why does a red cloth look red to us?

a)

It reflects red colour.

b)

It absorbs red colour.

c)

It reflects all colours except for red.

d)

It absorbs all colours except for red.

175.

Why does a magenta ball look magenta to us?

a)

It reflects red colour.

b)

It reflects blue colour.

c)

It absorbs red colour.

d)

It absorbs blue colour.

e)

it reflects green colour.

176.

Why does a yellow sword look yellow to us?

a)

It reflects red colour.

b)

It reflects blue colour.

c)

It absorbs red colour.

d)

It absorbs green colour.

e)

It reflects green colour.

177.

If white light is shone past a cyan filter and a green filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

cyan

d)

red

e)

no light

178.

If white light is shone past a cyan filter and a red filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

cyan

d)

red

e)

no light

179.

If white light is shone past a yellow filter and a magenta filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

cyan

d)

red

e)

no light

180.

If white light is shone past a yellow filter and a cyan filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

cyan

d)

red

e)

no light

181.

If white light is shone past a green filter and a magenta filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

white

d)

red

e)

no light

182.

If white light is shone past a green filter and a blue filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

cyan

b)

magenta

c)

yellow

d)

white

e)

no light

183.

If white light is shone past a green filter and a yellow filter, what coloured light emerges at the end?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

white

e)

no light