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Worksheets

Bio 4th 6 Weeks Review

Total questions: 199

Worksheet time: 4hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has —

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chormosmes

2.

Which would be considered a somatic cell?

a)

Bone cell

b)

Muscle Cell

c)

Skin Cell

d)

Sperm cell

e)

Neuron (Brain cell)

3.
In which type of cells will mitosis occur?
a)
egg cells
b)
sperm cells
c)
jail cells
d)
Body cells except the sperm and egg cells
4.
In mitosis cells are genetically _______, but in meiosis cells are genetically ______.
a)
diverse, identical
b)
identical, diverse/different
5.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
6.

The diagram above shows the process of meiosis. The segregation that occurs during meiosis results in a —

a)

decrease in the total number of cells per organism

b)

reduction in the number of chromosomes per cell

c)

single fertilized egg cell

d)

group of genetically identical cells

7.

Which two biological processes would MOST LIKELY result in offspring genetically different from their parents?

Select TWO correct answers.

a)

DNA replication

b)

Independent assortment

c)

Mitosis

d)

Crossing-over

e)

Asexual reproduction

8.

Gametes produced by an organism contain a combination of genes from that organism. In every gamete, this combination is —

a)

the same because it is created from the same DNA

b)

the same because chromosomes are copied prior to meiosis

c)

different due to DNA replication prior to mitosis

d)

different due to independent assortment during meiosis

9.

Independent ​ (a)   occurs in metaphase I. This is where ​ (b)   are randomly ​ (c)   . Each ​ (d)   will have 1 of many different possible ​ (e)   of chromosomes.

Choose from the below words
assortment
chromosomes
shuffled
gamete
combinations
10.

Which diagram demonstrates how crossing-over contributes to genetic variety during meiosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

A cellular process is shown.

Which statement best describes the significance of this process?

a)

The process allows organisms to grow and heal.

b)

The process produces clones of the parent organism.

c)

The process copies DNA before cell division.

d)

The process creates genetic variation in the resulting cells.

12.

The diagram illustrates a process that occurs often during meiosis.

The most likely result of this process is —

a)

mutation in gametes

b)

genetically diverse gametes

c)

new types of cells forming

d)

cancer in the ovaries

13.

In the early 1900s, Thomas Hunt Morgan was among the first scientists to contribute to the chromosome theory of heredity. Morgan’s investigations into heredity in fruit flies led him to propose that the event represented in the diagram sometimes occurs. Which statement about the event represented in the diagram is valid?

a)

The event represents RNA translation in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

The event takes place in bacterial cells

c)

The event produces genetically identical daughter cells

d)

The event provides genetic diversity in eukaryotic cells.

14.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
15.
Crossing over occurs in which phase ?
a)
metaphase I
b)
anaphaseII
c)
telophaseII
d)
prohase I
16.

Which table headings should the student use for the two groups?

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.

Which structure can be found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleic acid

c)

nucleus

d)

chloroplast

18.

What additional characteristic (X) belongs in the central section of the Venn diagram?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

chloroplast

c)

ribosome

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

19.

Identify the Venn diagram section(s) which includes prokaryotic cells.

a)

I

b)

II, III, IV

c)

I, II, III, IV

d)

IV

20.

What type of cell is described below?

*contains mitochondria

*contains ribosomes

*reproduces by meiosis

*performs photosynthesis

a)

bacteria

b)

prokaryote

c)

virus

d)

eukaryote

21.

The cell structure labeled X is found only in –

a)

animal cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

c)

plant cells

d)

prokaryotic cells

22.

Which of these is a defining characteristic in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

presence of a membrane bound nucleus

b)

DNA is present

c)

absence of membrane bound mitochondria

d)

reproduces asexually

23.
These cells have DNA surrounded by a nuclear membrane...
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Neither
d)
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
24.

Is this a picture of a prokaryotic cell or eukaryotic cell?

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

25.

Is this a picture of a prokaryotic cell or eukaryotic cell?

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

26.

When does a concentration gradient occur?

a)

when a solute is equally concentrated in an area

b)

when a solute is more concentrated in one area than another

27.

Molecules always move down a concentration gradient in what direction ?

a)

high to low

b)

low to high

28.

Which of the following are examples of diffusion? (select all that apply

a)

oxygen is moved into the cell

b)

carbon dioxide is moved out the cell

c)

perfume is sprayed and the scent fills the room

d)

water travels across the cell membrane

e)

a large sugar molecule passes across the cell membrane

29.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane?

a)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

b)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

c)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

30.

What is the movement of particles with the concentration gradient using protein "helpers"?

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

31.

How is facilitated diffusion different from simple diffusion?

a)

facilitated uses membrane proteins for transporting things in and out of the cell

b)

facilitated does not use membrane proteins for transporting things in and out of the cell

32.

What is osmosis?

a)

The diffusion of water across a membrane

b)

The diffusion of gas across a memembrane

33.
A cell will _____________________ in a hypertonic solution.
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
will not change
d)
will explode
34.
A cell will __________________ in a hypotonic solution.
a)
swell and perhaps burst (lyse)
b)
shrink
c)
the size of the cell will not change
d)
the size of the cell will change from large to small and from small to large
35.

When a cell is in a hypotonic solution, there is _____ water on the outside of the cell, and ____ solutes (large molecules) on the inside of the cell

a)

more,

less

b)

less,

more

c)

equal,

equal

36.
What type of solution allows water to enter the plant cell?
a)
hypotonic solution
b)
hypertonic solution
c)
isotonic solution
d)
active transport
37.

What type of solution is this cell in? There is water coming in and the cell has burst.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

diffused

38.

This egg has shrunk, what type of solution was it placed in?

a)

hypotonic solution

b)

hypertonic solution

c)

isotonic solution

39.
Ideally, your cells should be in a(n) _______ solution
a)
isotonic
b)
hypertonic
c)
hypotonic
d)
isometric
40.
A person would never have pure water put into their veins in a hospital because their cells would...
a)
Shrink/Dehydrate
b)
Expand
41.

Nemo and other ocean dwelling fish cannot survive in freshwater because......

a)

freshwater is hypertonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water leaving them causing the cells to shrink

b)

freshwater is hypotonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water leaving them causing the cells to shrink

c)

freshwater is hypertonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water entering them causing the cells to swell and burst

d)

freshwater is hypotonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water enter them causing the cells to swell and burst

42.
Active transport requires ______, moves materials from __________________, and goes _______ the concentration gradient.
a)
No energy, low to high, against
b)
ATP, high to low, with
c)
ATP, low to high, with
d)
ATP, low to high, against
43.
Endocytosis is defined as
a)
the movement of large molecules from the inside of the cell to the outisde of the cell using channel proteins. 
b)
the movement of large molecules from the inside of the cell to the outisde of the cell membrane vesciles. 
c)
 the movement of large molecules from the outside of the cell to the inside of the cell using membrane vesciles.
d)
the movement of large molecules from the outside of the cell to the inside of the cell using channel proteins. 
44.

The cellular process known as the sodium-potassium pump was discovered in the 1950s by Jens Christian Skou, a Danish scientist. This process is a form of active transport that moves three sodium ions to the outside of a cell for every two potassium ions that it moves into the cell. Which of these best explains why energy is needed for active transport?

a)

Ions are moved against the concentration gradient.

b)

Ions are trapped inside the plasma membrane.

45.

A type of cellular transport is shown of energy being used to move a molecules across the cell membrane. Which description best identifies this type of cellular transport?

a)

Active transport, because energy is being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient

b)

Facilitated diffusion, because energy is being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

46.

A table comparing the characteristics of four samples is shown on the left.

Which sample most likely contains viruses?

Click on the image to enlarge.

a)

Sample 3

Viruses do not have a nucleus, chloroplast or ribosomes

b)

Sample 1

All viruses have a nucleus, chloroplast, and ribosome

c)

Sample 2

Viruses do not have a nucleus nor chloroplast but they have ribosomes

47.

Which structure do cells and viruses have in common?

a)

capsid (outer protein coat)

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

genetic material (DNA & RNA)

e)

nucleus

48.

Match the following

a)

Eukaryotic Cell

1.

nucleus

organelles

DNA

cytoplasm

ribosomes

proteins

b)

Prokaryotic cell

2.

DNA

ribosomes

cytoplasm

proteins

c)

Virus

3.

DNA/RNA

Capsid

proteins

49.

Viruses are much ​ (a)    than bacteria ​ (b)   . In fact, viruses called bacteriophages attack bacteria cells and use them as a ​ (c)   cell to ​ (d)   more ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
smaller
cells
host
replicate
viruses
50.

A student states that the capsid has a function similar to the nuclear membrane found in animal cells.

Which of these describes the similar functions of capsids and nuclear membranes? (click on image)

a)

Both transport proteins throughout the structures.

b)

Both provide energy for activities in the structures.

c)

Both protect genetic information for the structures.

d)

Both code for the proteins needed for reproduction of the structures.

51.

The picture shows a 3-D model of a virus called a bacteriophage. Bacteriophages can infect bacteria such as E. coli.

In what way are the bacteriophage and E. coli alike? Select all that apply.

a)

They lack membrane-bound organelles.

b)

They lack a nucleus.

c)

They have nucleic acids.

d)

They reproduce by mitosis. 

e)

They contain antibodies.

52.

Which are found in both viruses and cells? (Select all that apply)

a)

Nucleic Acids (DNA/RNA)

b)

Proteins

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Nucleus

53.

Match the following:

a)
1.

bacteria

prokaryotic cell

living

b)
2.

virus

not a cell

non-living

c)
3.

plant cell

eukaryotic cell

living

d)
4.

animal cell

eukaryotic cell

living

54.

The outer structure of a virus is called the ...

a)

capsid (protein coat)

b)

plasma membrane

c)

phospholipid bilayer

d)

cell membrane

55.

The ​ (a)   on the surface of the ​ (b)   are made out of ​ (c)   . Those structures are used to ​ (d)   to its host ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
projections
virus
glycoproteins
attach
cell
56.

A photograph of a virus is shown.

The projections on the surface of this virus allow the virus to —

a)

move inside a host cell

b)

attach to a host cell

c)

control a host cell’s DNA

d)

signal other viruses to infect a host cell

57.

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is an illness caused by a coronavirus. Symptoms including a high fever, headaches, and body aches typically occur two to seven days after infection by the virus. SARS is more serious in elderly patients. This information suggests that the reproductive cycle of the SARS virus is —

a)

lysogenic, because the virus is a coronavirus

b)

lytic, because of the quick onset of symptoms after infection

c)

lytic, because the virus causes respiratory illness

d)

lysogenic, because the virus primarily affects older people

58.

Can a virus stay in the lysogenic cycle for a long time?

a)

yes

b)

no

59.

During the lysogenic cycle, a virus can remain domrmant inside the cell for a long time. When it does activate, it will move into the_________ cycle.

a)

copy cycle

b)

lytic cycle

c)

lysogenic cycle

60.

When HIV initially infects a cell, the viral RNA is converted into DNA and then the newly formed DNA is integrated into the host cell’s own DNA. During this time, the infected person might feel flu-like symptoms. After the symptoms go away, the infected person may not have any other symptoms of HIV infection for many years. The integration process that the genetic information from HIV undergoes is part of the —

a)

lysogenic cycle 

b)

lytic cycle

61.

What are 2 main parts of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase and M phase

b)

telophase and anaphase

c)

mitosis and meiosis

62.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
63.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
64.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
65.

What phase is this cell in? Chromosomes condense and nuclear envelope breaks down.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

66.

What phase is this cell in? Chromosomes are lined up in the middle.

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

67.

What phase is this cell in? Chromosomes are being pulled apart towards opposite ends of the cell.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

68.

What phase is this cell in? Two nuclei are now visible, but cell has not yet divided.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

69.

What part of the cell cycle is this cell in? Cleavage furrow present , cytoplasm has divided.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Cytokinesis

70.

In what phase does chromatin condense and coil to form chromosomes?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

71.
At what stage during mitosis does the nuclear envelope break up?
a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

72.
In what phase do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

73.
In what phase do the chromosomes get pulled apart into sister chromatid to opposite sides of the cell?
a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

74.
the division of the cytoplasm is called
a)

mitosis

b)

interphase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

somatic

75.

Reorder the following stages of mitosis.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1)
2)
3)
4)
76.

Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?

a)

The DNA must be replicated.

b)

The chromosomes must be joined.

c)

The cytoplasm must be separated.

d)

The cell membrane must be expanded.

77.

What is the next phase of mitosis comes after this picture?

a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
78.

Which image shows anaphase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
79.
What is cancer?
a)
The heart does not receive enough blood.
b)
Sudden disruption of blood flow to part of the brain.
c)
Blood filled weak spot.
d)
Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells.
80.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
81.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP production is inhibited.

b)

Cell division is unregulated.

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited.

d)

Antibody activity is unregulated.

82.

What are mutations?

a)

changes in the cell's DNA

b)

changes in the cytoplasm

c)

normal DNA

d)

normal RNA

83.

Why are cancer cells never in the G0 phase?

a)

they are always dividing

b)

they never divide

c)

they divide too slowly

d)

they replicate their cytoplasm

84.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
85.
DNA is a polymer made of:
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Purines
d)
Pyrimidines
86.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
87.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
88.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
89.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
90.
What will the matching sequence be on a strand that reads AAGCTAT?
a)
AACGATA
b)
TTCGTTA
c)
CCTGATA
d)
TTCGATA
91.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
92.
DNA codes for...
a)
bases
b)
proteins
c)
amino acids
d)
phosphates
93.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
94.
Which two scientists are accredited with correctly deducing the double helix model of DNA?
a)
Watson and Crick
b)
Wilkins and Franklin
c)
Wilkins and Crick
d)
Watson and Franklin
95.

In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

96.

DNA double helix is unwound/unzipped by the enzyme ....

a)

helicase

b)

betaglactase

c)

lipase

d)

RNA polymerase

97.

What is the purpose of DNA replication?

a)

Cut the DNA

b)

Make more cells

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Make a copy (duplicate) the DNA

98.

What 3 things make up a nucleotide? (select 3)

a)

sugar (ribose or deoxyribose)

b)

nitrogen base

c)

phosphate group

d)

sulfur group

e)

magic

99.

Who took an X-ray diffraction pattern photo of DNA ?

a)

Rosalind Franklin

b)

James Watson

c)

Fredrick Grifiith

d)

Francics Crick

100.

The genetic code is based on the order and arrangement of

a)

nucleotides (specifically the nitrogen bases ATCG)

b)

the phosphate group

c)

the helical structure

d)

the proteins

101.

The DNA code consists of 4 nucleotides (determined by the bases )which are represented by the letters:

a)

GCTA

b)

ABCD

c)

GTCU

d)

AUTC

102.

Which of the following is a base pair?

a)

Adenine - Cytosine

b)

Cytosine - Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose - Cytosine

d)

Cytosine - Guanine

103.
What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
RNA
d)
DNA
104.
What do we call the process of turning DNA into mRNA?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription 
c)
Replication
105.
When DNA is transcribed to RNA.... 
a)
A pairs with U
b)
C pairs with U
c)
A pairs with T
d)
C pairs with T
106.
When the RNA gets to the ribosomes, which molecule transfers to the mRNA to amino acids?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
Replicated RNA
107.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
108.
What is a Codon?
a)
4 base pairs that transfer to amino acids
b)
3 base pairs that transfer to amino acids
c)
3 base pairs that transfer to DNA
d)
3 base pairs that transfer to mRNA
109.
What process is occurring in this photo?
a)
Transcription
b)
DNA unwinding
c)
Translation
d)
Transfer RNA is creating bases
110.
What process is occurring in this photo?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
mRNA is matching with amino acids
d)
tRNA is transcribing the DNA
111.
The job of tRNA is to...
a)
carry amino acids to the ribosomes 
b)
carry ribosomes to the ER
c)
carry mRNA out of the nucleus
d)
carry glucose to mitochondria
112.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA?
a)
 Met-Pro-Val-Stop
b)
Met-Pro-Arg-Stop
c)
 Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
113.

G = green, g = yellow

The genotype for a yellow plant is...

a)

GG (two capital G's)

b)

Gg ( a capital and lower case G)

c)

gg ( two lower case g's)

d)

all of the choices result in yellow

114.
A __________ is a segment of DNA that codes for a particular protein, which leads to a particular trait.
a)
Gene
b)
Allele
c)
Codon
d)
Nucleotide
115.
Different forms of a single gene are called a(n) _________.
a)
gene
b)
chromosome
c)
allele
d)
genotype
116.

An organism that has two identical (THE SAME) alleles for a trait (purebred)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

117.

An organism that has two different alleles for a trait (hybrid)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

118.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
green eyes
119.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
120.
What is called when a organism has  two different alleles for a trait. Tt or Rr
a)
Heterozygous
b)
Homozygous
c)
Domozygous
d)
Thermozygous
121.
Tall is dominant to short. What is the phenotype of this organism?
Tt
a)
tall
b)
short
122.

Enzymes are what biological biomolecule (macromolecule)?

a)

lipid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

protein

d)

carbohydrate

123.

Do enzymes lower or raise the activation energy?

a)

rasie

b)

lower

124.

What is the function of an enzyme?

a)

to speed up reactions

b)

to slow down reactions

125.

Can a change in pH alter the active site of an enzyme?

a)

yes

b)

no

126.

What does a lower temperature do to an enzyme?

a)

nothing

b)

just slows it down

c)

denatures it

127.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
128.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
129.

Enzymes speed up reaction rates by lowering the...

a)

activation Energy

b)
pH
c)

hydrogen Bonds

d)

kinetic Energy

130.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
131.
An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction in the cell but can only be used once.  True or False? 
a)
true
b)
false
132.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
133.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
134.

In the diagram, what is letter A? (click on picture to enlarge)

a)

product

b)

substrate

c)

enzyme-substrate complex

d)

active site

135.

Letter D is the ... (click on picture to enlarge)

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

136.

Letter B is the ... (click on picture to enlarge)

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

137.

Letter C is the... (click on picture to enlarge)

a)

active site

b)

enzymes

c)

substrate

d)

products

138.

Letter E is the... (click on picture to enlarge)

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

139.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
140.
Which enzyme is most efficient in a basic solution?
a)
A
b)
B
141.

A substance that lowers the activation energy of a reaction is referred to as a:

a)

catalyst

b)

deactivator

c)

inhibitor

d)

a lower activationer

142.

What is activation energy?

a)

minimum energy needed for a reaction to stop

b)

minimum energy needed for a reaction to get started

143.

The reactants in a chemical reaction are known as the ....

a)

substrate

b)

product

144.

A substrate that has been altered (changed) in a chemical reaction are known as the ....

a)

substrate

b)

product

145.

Although enzymes go into reactions, they are never used up. They are recycled. True or False?

a)

True

b)

Falsw

146.

The area where substrate binds to enzyme is called the ...

a)

active site

b)

binding site

c)

enzyme site

d)

catalyst site

147.

During a reaction, when the substrate(reactants) and enzyme come together, what is formed?

a)

enzyme-substrate complex

b)

binary fission

c)

an explosion

d)

substrate enzyme products

148.

Molecules that bind to enzymes and increase their activity are referred to as...

a)

activators

b)

inhibitors

149.

A molecule that binds to an enzyme and decreases its activity is called an...

a)

activator

b)

inhibitor

150.

Our stomachs use an enzyme called _________ that likes acidic environments, and helps break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids.

a)

pepsin

b)

amylase

c)

lactase

d)

termilase

151.

An alteration of a protein shape through some form of external stress is know as

a)

denature

b)

premature

c)

enzymatic

d)

hydrophobic

152.

In the CHNOPS abbreviation, what does the N stand for?

a)

Nickel

b)

Nitrogen

153.

All living things on Earth are based on which element?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

154.

In CHNOPS, what does the P stand for?

a)

Potassium

b)

Phosphorus

155.

In CHNOPS, what does the O stand for?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Orphium

156.

In CHNOPS, what does the C stand for?

a)

Calcium

b)

Carbon

157.

In CHNOPS, what does the S stand for?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Strontium

158.

In CHNOPS, what does the H stand for?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Hafnium

159.

What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?

a)

Speed up chemical reactions.

b)

Give immediate energy.

160.

A type of biological molecule that includes fats, oils, hormones, waxes, and components of cellular membranes ...

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

161.

Which polymer group is used as STORED, long term energy?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

162.

Which biomolecule helps form muscles?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

163.

Which macromolecule is found in grains, fruits, and vegetables in high amounts?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

164.

What are the 4 most abundant elements in living things?

a)

hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon

b)

carbon, manganese, iron, hydrogen

165.

The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.

a)

Carbon

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

166.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
167.

Sugars, starches and chitin are examples of

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

168.

Glycerol and fatty acids are the building blocks (monomers) of _____.

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

169.

The organic molecules that stores and transmits hereditary and genetic information are

_____________.

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Proteins

170.

What is the function of proteins?

a)

build skin, hair, nails, muscles

b)

store energy (long-term)

171.

What is the function of carbohydrates?

a)

store energy (short-term)

b)

store energy (long-term)

172.

What is the function of lipids?

a)

store energy (short-term)

b)

store energy (long-term)

173.
Another word for a building block is a __________________.
a)
polymer
b)
monomer
c)
dimer
174.
What are the four biological molecules?
a)
proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids
b)
A, T, C, G
c)
water, air, earth, and fire
d)
Joe, Nick, and Kevin Jonas
175.

Which biomolecule is also known as enzymes?

a)

Protein

b)

Lipid

c)

Nucleic Acid

176.
Which biomolecule are in starches and fibers?
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Carbohydrate
177.
Which biomolecule is made of nucleotides and contain you DNA?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipids
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
178.

Which of these are examples of carbohydrates?

a)

starches, glucose, chitin

b)

Fats, hormones

c)

amino acids

179.

Which is a Carbohydrate's monomer?

a)

Monosacharide

b)

Amino acids

180.

Besides being a quick source of energy, carbohydrates also provide:

a)

structural support

b)

long term energy storage

c)

genetic information

181.

Which biomolecule does the subunit amino acids belong to?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

182.

Which biomolecule is made of nucleotides and contain your DNA?

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Lipids

c)

Protein

183.

What are the polymers of proteins called?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

polypeptides

184.

What is the carbohydrate that gives plants support called?

a)

cellulose

b)

chitin

c)

glucose

d)

sucrose

185.

Which biomolecules catalyze chemical reactions (enzymes) ?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

proteins

186.

Which biomolecule provides protective waxy coatings, and make up hormones required for communication?

a)

lipids

b)

DNA

187.

Atom → molecule → organelle → cell→ tissue → organ

→ system → organism

→ population → community

→ ecosystem → biosphere.

a)

Taxonomic System

b)

Classification system

c)

Levels of Organization

d)

Periodic Table

188.

The smallest unit that makes up the known elements. (non living)

a)

Molecule

b)

Organelle

c)

Cell

d)

Atom

189.

The smallest unit

of a compound consisting of two or more atoms

bonded together.

a)

Organelle

b)

Cell

c)

Molecule

d)

Atom

190.

Structures in a cell that have specialized jobs.

Similar concept to organs for the human body.

a)

Elevated Chemical Beings

b)

Molecules

c)

Atoms

d)

Organelles

191.

The basic building block of living things, made up of organelles.

a)

Tissue

b)

Organelle

c)

Cell

d)

Atom

192.

Groups of cells with similar functions.

a)

Organs

b)

Molecules

c)

Tissues

d)

Organelles

193.

Group of tissues with similar functions.

a)

Organelles

b)

Cells

c)

Tissues

d)

Organs

194.

Group of organs with similar functions.

a)

Organism

b)

Cell

c)

Organ

d)

System

195.

Any single living individual, and can refer to a single human, animal, plant, Protista, bacteria, or fungi.

a)

Community

b)

Cell

c)

Population

d)

Organism/Individual

196.

Organisms who are members of the same species in an ecosystem.

a)

Organism

b)

Population

c)

Organ

d)

Community

197.

Group of populations in an area.

a)

Organism

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Community

d)

Biosphere

198.

A biological community that includes various species and their physical environment (Biotic and Abiotic Factors).

a)

Organism

b)

Community

c)

Biosphere

d)

Ecosystem

199.

Where life is found on earth.

a)

Community

b)

Habitat

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Biosphere

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