What is a characteristic of a niche specialist?

Humans drained the Everglades in the early 20th century because ________________.

Which of the following groups can undergo photosynthesis to generate energy?

The sensitivity of a species to changes in the environment is often what makes it a useful _________________ for the management of an ecosystem.

A. keystone species

B. consumer species

C. indicator species

D. apex predator

E. edge species

6. The difference between a food chain and a food web is that ________________.

A. a food web includes only a single line of species consuming other organisms among trophic levels

B. a food chain always shows how much energy is passed from one organism to the next

C. producers are the first species in a food web, while secondary consumers begin a food chain

D. a food web shows interactions between all the species of a community, instead of just a single line of energy transfer among trophic levels

E. There is no difference between a food chain and a food web.

7. In the Everglades, what organism is an example of a consumer?

A. periphyton

B. sawgrass

C. applesnail

D. Bladderwort

E. all of the above

8. The concept of the trophic pyramid reflects ________________.

A. the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 90%

B. the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 10%

C. the fact that biomass increases as you move up the food web

D. the number of decomposers found in a system

9. Organisms that eat dead organic matter are known as ________________.

A. producers

B. decomposers

C. detritivores

D. consumers

E. both detritivores and consumers

10. In the Everglades food chain below, which organism is a secondary consumer?

sawgrass → insect → frog → raccoon → alligator

A. sawgrass

B. insect

C. frog

D. raccoon

E. alligator

11. Species diversity is measured in which two ways?

A. species richness and niche availability

B. number of producers and consumers

C. species richness and species evenness

D. species evenness and resilience

E. species richness and number of trophic levels

12. Which of the following options includes two of the other options?

A. species evenness

B. edge effects

C. core species

D. species diversity

E. species richness

13. Regions of distinctly different physical areas that serve as boundaries between different communities are called __________________.

A. ecotones

B. ecological zones

C. buffers

D. core habitat

14. Human alterations of the Everglades system resulted in ________________.

A. a reduction in the sheet flow of water

B. changes in food webs

C. reductions in wading bird populations

D. all of these choices are correct

E. none of these choices are correct

15. Owls hunt for field mice in a field at night. Foxes hunt for field mice in the same field during the day. The term that best describes the interaction between the owls and the foxes is ________________.

A. mutualism

B. commensalism

C. parasitism

D. resource partitioning

E. predation

16. In mutualism, one organism is ________________, and the other organism is ________________.

A. harmed; harmed

B. harmed; benefited

C. benefited; benefited

D. benefited; harmed

E. neither benefited nor harmed; neither benefited nor harmed

17. The American alligator is considered a keystone species in the Everglades system because its presence leads to an increase in the ________________.

A. availability of aquatic habitat

B. abundance and diversity of fish

C. abundance and diversity of wading birds

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

18. What is it called when two species use different parts of a resource instead of competing directly for that resource?

A. predation partitioning

B. habitat partitioning

C. resource sharing

D. resource symbiosis

E. resource partitioning

19. What was the purpose of the Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan?

A. introduce new species to the area for increased biodiversity

B. give scientists a place to test the impacts of disturbances in ecosystems

C. restore the flow of water back to the wetlands and raise water levels

D. silence environmentalists by vowing to no longer interfere with the Everglades

E. take over the U.S. sugar industry

20. ______________ ecology is the science that deals with the repair of damage or disturbed ecosystems

A. Restoration

B. Remediation

C. Adaptive

D. Landscape

E. Corrective

21. Human activities in the Everglades has ______________.

A. reduced species richness

B. reduced species evenness

C. fragmented habitats

D. polluted natural water sources

E. All of these answer choices are correct

22. The historic flow of water in South Florida was from Lake Okeechobee, with the main flow moving ________________.

A. south through the Everglades and into Florida Bay

B. east–west across Florida

C. southeast through the Everglades to Miami and the Atlantic Ocean

D. north to Orlando

E. east through West Palm Beach and into the Atlantic Ocean

23. The process by which one community replaces another is known as ________________.

A. species regression

B. ecological succession

C. successive diversification

D. pioneer colonization

E. ecological replacement

24. An example of secondary succession is ________________.

A. an old agricultural field that has been abandoned

B. the extirpation of mangrove forests

C. a tropical rainforest being cleared and replanted with non-native grasses for cattle grazing

D. coastal erosion due to lost wetland

E. succession on a recent volcanic lava flow

25. During ecological succession in the Everglades, __________________ will move in as the sediment layer becomes thicker through time, outcompeting the ________________.

A. floating and submerged plants; cypress and willow trees

B. floating and submerged plants; sawgrass

C. cypress and willow trees; floating and submerged plants

D. cypress and willow trees; sawgrass

26. Early in primary succession, lichens and mosses colonize bare rock and become the first ecological community. Why are they critical to later stages of succession?

A. They deplete nutrients.

B. Decomposing lichen and moss biomass create soil.

C. They outcompete pioneer species, allowing succession to progress.

D. They limit the ability of climax species to colonize the area.

27. Which of the following would describe commensalism?

A. several male lions fighting over their prey

B. an elephant and giraffe drinking from the same watering hole

C. giraffes and impalas feeding from different areas of vegetation

D. hyenas feeding on the remains of the lions’ prey

28. __________________ is the complete loss of a species from the Earth.

A. Endangering

B. Threatening

C. Extirpation

D. Endemic

E. Extinction

29. The second leading cause of species endangerment worldwide is __________________.

A. habitat loss

B. invasive species

C. habitat fragmentation

D. pollution

E. climate change

30. ________ are stretches of DNA that influence traits of an individual.

A. Proteins

B. Imprints

C. Genes

D. Founders

E. Constraints

31. The two main sources of genetic variation are __________.

A. genetic mutations and genetic similarity

B. genetic recombination and coevolution

C. genetic mutations and genetic recombination

D. coevolution and extirpation

32. Natural selection acts on ________, while ________ evolve.

A. populations; individuals

B. communities; individuals

C. species; individuals

D. individuals; populations

E. communities; populations

33. The more genetically diverse a population is, the more likely ___________.

A. favorable traits will be selected for evolution

B. the population will survive

C. the population will be lost to global climate change

D. favorable traits will be selected for evolution AND the population will survive

E. favorable traits will be selected for evolution AND the population will be lost to global climate change

34. A genetic mutation that allows lions to better hunt their prey (gazelles) becomes prevalent in a population. In order to survive, a gazelle population must _________.

A. increase their numbers through immigration to the area

B. find a new food source

C. individually adapt to the threat

D. coevolve to avoid the lions more effectively

E. move to an area where lions are not the keystone species

35. A species is considered _______ to an area if it is not found anywhere else on Earth.

A. extinct

B. extirpated

C. exiled

D. endemic

E. elected

36. _______ happens when there is a decrease in the frequency of a particular trait due to random mating.

A. The founder effect

B. The bottleneck effect

C. Genetic drift

D. Natural selection

E. Extirpation

37. If some members of a bird population had been able to escape Guam and colonize another island, which genetic concept would likely have happened?

A. genetic drift

B. the founder effect

C. speciation

D. the bottleneck effect

E. genetic recombination

38. What is a characteristic seen in many endangered species?

A. high reproductive rates

B. long generation times

C. fast generation times

D. produce many offspring per breeding cycle

39. Which of the following are human activities that could cause an increase in extinction rates?

A. habitat destruction

B. pollution

C. anthropogenic climate change

D. habitat destruction, pollution, and anthropogenic climate change

E. habitat destruction and pollution

40. The most famous major extinction event that occurred on Earth was the _________ extinction, which resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.

A. Ordovician

B. K-T boundary mass

C. Devonian

D. Permian

E. Triassic

41. Compared with the background rate of extinction, currently ___________.

A. species are going extinct much faster than in the past

B. the rate of extinction is more than 100 times higher

C. humans are greatly enhancing the rate of extinction

D. species are going extinct much faster than in the past AND the rate of extinction if more than 100 times higher

E. All of these choices are correct.

42. Why is artificial selection likely bad for the ultimate survival of a species?

A. It reduces the genetic diversity of the population and thus makes the population more susceptible to disruptions.

B. Only nature can decide what is best for a population.

C. There are not as many individuals in each population, that is, small population sizes.

D. It decreases the rate at which individuals reproduce.

E. There are no adverse effects of artificial selection.

43. Which of the following human activities has the potential to influence selection and affect evolution?

A. use of pesticides

B. use of antibiotics

C. use of herbicides

D. use of pesticides, antibiotics, and herbicides

44. Palm oil can be found in which of the following products?

A. chocolate

B. shampoos

C. toilet cleaner

D. peanut butter

E. Palm oil can be found in all of the above products.

45. What percentage of palm oil comes from plantations in Southeast Asia?

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

E. 95%

46. Which of the following is TRUE of the biodiversity on Earth?

A. There are more categorized than uncategorized species on Earth.

B. There are more uncategorized than categorized species on Earth.

C. There are no uncategorized species on Earth.

D. There are more known species of plants than any other group of organisms.

E. There are more species of mammals than species of insects.

47. What percentage of mammal species originally found in the natural forest can be found on palm oil plantations?

A. 10

B. 95

C. 5

D. 50

E. 75

48. Biodiversity has many benefits, including ____________.

A. the regulation of ecosystems

B. the selection of particular species to survive

C. the ability to predict which species will go extinct in an ecosystem

D. the propagation of disease-carrying organisms

49. Biodiversity is important in a population because ____________.

A. individuals in that population need a variety of mates.

B. it allows the population to be more resistant to disruptions.

C. it increases the population’s vulnerability to extinction.

D. it increases the chances that each member of the population will be identical to each other member.

E. it measures the species’ richness but not the genetic diversity in the population and is therefore a great predictor of ecosystem stability.

50. What is NOT an example of an ecosystem service?

A. fuel made from forest materials

B. water purification

C. decomposition of organic material

D. camping

E. All of these choices are examples of ecosystem services.

51. Not killing a spider because it scares you is an example of what kind of value?

A. instrumental

B. intrinsic

C. genetic

D. ecosystem

52. Which population would be the most likely to survive a disturbance in their ecosystem?

A. one with high genetic diversity

B. one with low genetic diversity

C. one with no genetic diversity

D. one with medium genetic diversity

53. Which type of diversity provides the raw material that allows populations to adapt to their environment?

A. ecosystem

B. species

C. genetic

D. community

E. population

54. Habitat fragmentation can be detrimental to species because ____________.

A. populations of the same species may be separated and would no longer be able to mate

B. there are no livable habitats left after fragmentation

C. it increases the chance that species will breed with other species out of necessity

D. it decreases the isolation of particular populations

E. it encourages genetic diversity, which leads to species diversity

55. If a species is extirpated, this means that ____________.

A. it does not exist in any ecosystem—it is extinct

B. its close relatives, but not the same species, will continue to exist

C. it is extinct in one ecosystem but still exists in others

D. it has grown in numbers and disrupts the evenness of the species diversity for that ecosystem

56. What is one major motivation for companies to source sustainably grown palm oil?

A. The palm oil is cheaper.

B. The palm oil tastes better.

C. Their customers demand sustainably grown palm oil.

D. Their customers demand cheaper prices on palm oil products.

E. The government requires them to.

57. Which of the following is NOT a reason the global growth rate surged as a result of the Industrial Revolution in the 1700s?

A. greater use of vaccines

B. access to cleaner water

C. improved nutrition

D. improvements to the educational system

58. Zero population growth occurs when the population reaches ____.

A. demographic transition

B. the replacement fertility rate

C. the total fertility rate

D. the infant mortality rate

E. population momentum

59. Which of the following is NOT a good predictor of population growth in a country?

A. the land mass of a country

B. crude death rate

C. crude birth rate

D. population momentum

E. All of these answer choices are good predictors

60. Which event 10,000 years ago resulted in a dramatic growth spurt in global human population?

A. an agricultural revolution

B. the Bronze Age

C. the Computer Age

D. the Industrial Revolution

E. the Black Death in Europe

61. The global population in 2017 was approximately _________.

A. 700,000

B. 7 million

C. 7.5 billion

D. 700 million

E. 70 billion

62. Emigration is the movement of individuals ____.

A. out of an area

B. closer to urban areas

C. into an area

D. closer to coastal areas

E. into more populated areas

63. Cultural and economic forces that encourage women to have more children are called __________.

A. pronatalist pressures

B. population momentum

C. total fertility rates

D. demographic transitions

64. The average number of children that a woman has over her lifetime is called the _______.

A. replacement fertility rate

B. total fertility rate

C. crude birth rate

D. population momentum

E. desired fertility

65. A country with a growing population will have a ________ age structure diagram, while a country with a shrinking population will have a ________ age structure diagram.

A. pyramid-shaped; bottom-heavy

B. evenly distributed; pyramid-shaped

C. bottom-heavy; top-heavy

D. evenly distributed; top-heavy

E. top-heavy; bottom-heavy

66. Japan’s population is fairly stable and is represented by an age structure diagram that looks like a(n) ________.

A. pyramid

B. inverted pyramid

C. column

D. circle

E. square

67. Today, the United States and France each exhibit an aging population. Why is this such a concern for demographers?

A. Too many babies are being born.

B. People are dying earlier.

C. More people are retiring with fewer younger people to support them.

D. There isn’t enough housing for the people.

E. The aging population is producing more waste than younger people.

68. As a country progresses from the preindustrial stage to the postindustrial stage, what will happen to the birth rate and death rate?

A. Both will increase.

B. Both will decrease.

C. Both will remain unchanged.

D. Birth rate will increase, and death rate will decrease.

E. Birth rate will decrease, and death rate will increase.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding

69. In which stage of the demographic transition does most population growth occur?

A. preindustrial

B. industrializing

C. mature industrial

D. transitional industrial

E. postindustrial

70. Addressing which of the following will help countries lower their total fertility rates?

A. poverty

B. high infant mortality

C. lack of education for women

D. lack of job opportunities for women

E. All of the answer choices are correct.

71. In terms of reaching Earth’s carrying capacity, developing countries exacerbate the problem due to their ________, while developed countries also aggravate the situation due to their ___________.

A. unsustainable resource use; high fertility rates

B. high fertility rates; overconsumption

C. high immigration rates; low emigration rates

D. gendercide; overconsumption

E. use of nonrenewable energy; high death rates

72. The theory of Island Biogeography indicates that patches of various size and distances have differing rates of extinction and species accumulation. Which statement would be supported by this theory?

A.    The most extinction prone habitat fragments are those which are the most isolated

B.     The highest species diversity will be found in the smallest islands closest to a mainland

C.     The lowest species diversity will be found on the largest islands closest to a mainland

D.    The most extinction prone habitat fragments are those which are highly connected to other fragments