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PRETREATMENT PHASE

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CDC infection control guidelines: Pre-operative mouth-rinse

a)

0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate

b)

0.12% chlorine dioxide

c)

0.12% cetylpyridinium chloride

2.

Explain the following to the patient:

a)

Nature of the treatment

b)

Risks of treatment

c)

Prognosis

d)

Consequences

3.

It must be freely given and all terms must be presented in a language that the patient understands.

a)

Anxiety management

b)

Informed consent

c)

Premedications

d)

Anti-anxiety regimen

4.

Conditions for it to be informed:

a)

The procedure and prognosis must be described.

b)

Alternative to be recommended treatment must be presented, along with their respective prognoses.

c)

Foreseeable risks and material risks must be described

d)

Patients must have the opportunity to have questions answered.

5.

HEART CONDITIONS: Key recommendations (AHA. 2017 Guidelines)

a)

Prosthetic cardiac valves

b)

Previous IE

c)

Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease or repaired congenital heart disease

d)

Cardiac transplant with valve regurgitation

6.

Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered in a ______ dose before the procedure.

a)

Single

b)

Double

c)

Triple

7.

However, in the event that the dosage of antibiotic is inadvertently not administered before the procedure. May be administered up to ______ the procedure.

a)

1 hour after

b)

2 hours after

c)

1 hour before

d)

1 hour after

8.

Identify letter A and B.

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

2g

c)

Ampicillin

d)

600 mg

9.

Identify C and D.

a)

Ampicillin

b)

2g IM* or IV*

c)

Clindamycin

d)

1g IM or IV

10.

Identify E and F.

a)

Cefazolin/ Ceftriaxone

b)

1g IM or IV

c)

Azithromycin/ Clarithromycin

d)

1g IM or IV

11.

Identify G and H.

a)

Cephalexin Φδ

b)

2g

c)

Clindamycin

d)

1g

12.

Identify I and J.

a)

Clindamycin

b)

600 mg

c)

Azithromycin

d)

500mg

13.

Identify K and L.

a)

Azithromycin/ Clarithromycin

b)

500mg

c)

Cefazolin/ Ceftriaxone

d)

600mg

14.

Identify M and N.

a)

Cefazolin or ceftriaxone δ

b)

1g IM or IV

c)

Clindamycin

d)

2g IM* or IV

15.

Identify O and P.

a)

Clindamycin

b)

600mg IM or IV

c)

Cephalexin

d)

500mg IM or IV

16.

Cephalosporins should not be used in an individual with a history of anaphylaxis, angioedema, or urticaria with ______ or ______.

a)

Penicillin

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Amoxicillin

17.

If behavioral solutions are not feasible and effective in a particular case.

a)

Misinformation

b)

Pharmacological approaches

c)

RCT

d)

Extraction

18.

Pharmacologic approaches include the need for good local anesthetic technique:

a)

Nitrous oxide plus oxygen sedation

b)

Oral sedation

c)

Intravenous

d)

Oral conscious sedation

19.

Oral sedation:

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Valium

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Clonazepam

20.

Due to extrusion of small amounts of pulp tissue remnants and dentin fillings during root canal cleaning and shaping.

a)

Pre treatment pain

b)

Post treatment pain

21.

Non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ________ mg of ibuprofen, ______ minutes before the procedure.

a)

200 to 400 - 30 to 60

b)

100 to 200 - 30 to 40

c)

200 to 300 - 20 to 30

d)

300 to 400 - 30 to 50

22.

The clinician must strive for a “painless” local anesthetic injection technique.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Contribute information important for the diagnosis and the various treatment phases and Help evaluate the success or failure of treatment.

a)

Bisecting technique

b)

Paralleling technique

c)

Bitewing technique

24.

Advantages of paralleling technique:

a)

Slight image distortion

b)

Crown-root ratio is preserved

c)

Image is consistent - highly reproducible

d)

Crown-root ratio isn’t preserved

25.

Bisecting technique:

a)

Image shape distortion

b)

Crown-root ratio isn’t preserved

c)

Image is inconsistent

d)

Slight image distortion

26.

Problems when taking radiographs during RCT:

a)

Reduced visibility due to rubber dam isolation

b)

Bows of the clamp

c)

Presence of root canal instruments

d)

Selection of suitable film holders and cone positioners

27.

Primary radiograph used in endodontics.

a)

Periapical radiograph

b)

Bitewing radiograph

c)

Cephalometric

d)

CMRS

28.

It is used to identify abnormal conditions in the pulp and periradicular tissues and used to determine the number of roots and canals, location of canals,, and root curvatures.

a)

Periapical radiograph

b)

Bitewing radiograph

c)

Cephalometric

d)

CMRS

29.

Major limitation of periapical radiograph:

a)

1-dimensional

b)

2-dimensional

c)

3-dimensional

30.

PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPH: At least ____ mm of bone at apex of tooth

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

31.

It needs vertical or horizontal angulation and should depict the tooth in the center of the film.

a)

Periapical radiograph

b)

Bitewing radiograph

c)

Cephalometric

d)

CMRS

32.

It indicates the relationship of remaining tooth structure to the crestal height of bone, a supplemental film and has less distortion.

a)

Periapical radiograph

b)

Bitewing radiograph

c)

Cephalometric

d)

CMRS

33.

BITEWING RADIOGRAPH: Provides critical information about the anatomic crown of the tooth

a)

Pulp chamber

b)

Recurrent caries

c)

Depth of restoration

d)

PDL

34.

Rubber dam is mandatory in RCT.

No rubber dam = No RCT

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Six principles of rubber dam isolation aside from:

1) Soft tissues are retracted and protected

2) The clinician is protected from litigation

a)

Patient is protected from aspiration or swallowing of instruments, tooth debris, medicaments, and irrigating solutions.

b)

A surgically clean operating field is isolated from saliva, blood, and other tissue fluids

c)

Efficiency is increased

d)

Visibility is improved

36.

Its thickness vary depending on the manufacturer and has shiny and dull sides. It may also be latex or non-latex.

Sizes: 5x5 or 6x6

a)

Rubber dam sheet

b)

Rubber dam template

c)

Rubber dam frame

d)

Rubber dam clamps

37.

It maintains border of rubber dam in position and supports the rubber dam sheet.

a)

Rubber dam frame

b)

Rubber dam punch

c)

Rubber dam sheet

d)

Rubber dam clamps

38.

Classifications of rubber dam frame:

a)

Young’s frame

b)

Nygaard-ostby frame

c)

Ivory frame

d)

Ainsworth frame

39.

It is used to produce clean-cut holes in the rubber dam sheet.

a)

Rubber dam forcep

b)

Rubber dam punch

c)

Rubber dam clamps

d)

Rubber dam sheet

40.

It has notches near the tips of their beaks in which to locate the holes of a rubber dam clamp.

a)

Ivory pattern

b)

Ash/Ainsworth pattern

41.

It allows a range of rotation for the clamp so that it may be positioned on teeth that are mesially or distally angled.

a)

Ivory pattern

b)

Ash/Ainsworth pattern

42.

It has stabilizers that prevent the clamp from rotating on the beaks.

a)

Ivory pattern

b)

Ash/Ainsworth pattern

43.

It limits the use of these forceps to teeth that are within a range of normal angulation.

a)

Ivory pattern

b)

Ash/Ainsworth pattern

44.

The distance between the holes is equal to the distance from the center of one tooth to the center of the adjacent tooth, at the level of gingival tissue. Approximate distance is ___ mm.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

7

45.

It is used to stretch the jaws of the rubber dam clamp open in a controlled manner during placement and removal.

a)

Rubber dam frame

b)

Rubber dam forcep

c)

Rubber dam clamps

d)

Rubber dam punch

46.

It provides convenience in marking the dam for punching.

a)

Rubber dam template

b)

Rubber dam sheet

c)

Rubber dam clamps

d)

Rubber dam frame

47.

It is used to hold rubber dam in place.

May be winged or wingless, metal or plastic, and single or double.

a)

Rubber dam clamps

b)

Rubber dam frame

c)

Rubber dam sheet

d)

Rubber dam template

48.

CLAMP SELECTION: Will impinge the soft tissues

a)

Too large

b)

Too small

49.

CLAMP SELECTION: Will not properly grasp the tooth surface, unstable

a)

Too large

b)

Too small

50.

Clamp selection should maintain 4 contact points.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Use clamps with subgingival designed jaws

➢ 2a, 8a, 14a

a)

Partially erupted tooth, subgingival margins

b)

Extended bow clamp

c)

Clamp placement

d)

Premolar clamp

52.

For preparation involving distal surface of clamped tooth.

a)

Extended bow clamp

b)

Clamp placement

c)

Partially erupted tooth, subgingival margins

d)

Premolar clamp

53.

In clamp placement, buccal jaws applied first to the tooth surface.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Clamp placement is positioned below the highest point on the lingual contour of the tooth.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

- Position the bow of the clamp through the hole in the dam and place the rubber over the wings of the clamp (a winged clamp is required).

- The forceps stretch the clamp to maintain the position of the damp in the dam.

- The dam is attached to the plastic frame, allowing for the placement of the dam, clamp, and frame in one motion

- Once the clamp is secured on the tooth, the dam is teased under the wings of the clamp with a plastic instrument.

a)

(Clamp + Tooth) + Dam + Frame or Clamp First Technique

b)

(Rubber dam clamp + Rubber dam + Frame) or Single motion + Tooth

c)

Split dam technique

56.

- Place the clamp, usually wingless, on the tooth.

- Then stretch the dam over the clamped tooth

- Place the frame

a)

(Rubber dam clamp + Rubber dam + Frame) or Single motion + Tooth

b)

(Clamp + Tooth) + Dam + Frame or Clamp First Technique

c)

Split dam technique

57.

May be used to isolate anterior teeth without using a rubber dam clamp and useful when there is insufficient crown structure.

a)

Split dam technique

b)

(Clamp + Tooth) + Dam + Frame or Clamp First Technique

c)

(Rubber dam clamp + Rubber dam + Frame) or Single motion + Tooth

58.

Prevents the possibility of the jaws of the clamp chipping the margins of teeth restored with porcelain crowns or laminates.

a)

(Clamp + Tooth) + Dam + Frame or Clamp First Technique

b)

(Rubber dam clamp + Rubber dam + Frame) or Single motion + Tooth

c)

Split dam technique

59.

For teeth with _____ restorations: Ligation with dental floss is recommended as an alternative method to retract the dam and tissues, or the adjacent tooth can be clamped.

a)

Porcelain

b)

Amalgam

c)

Composite

60.

In split dam technique, dental floss helps carry the dam down around the gingiva.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

If the dam has a tendency to slip, a _____ may be used on a tooth distal to the three isolated teeth or even on an adjacent tooth.

a)

Premolar clamp

b)

Molar clamp

c)

Anterior clamp

62.

Small holes can be blocked with:

a)

Cavit (3M)

b)

Rubber base adhesive

c)

"Liquid" rubber dam

d)

Periodontal packing

63.

- Proper selection and placement of the clamp

- Sharply punched, correctly positioned holes

- Use of a dam of adequate thickness

- Inversion of the dam around the tooth

a)

Leakage

b)

Loss of tooth structure

c)

Restorative procedures

d)

Periodontal procedures

64.

Excessive salivation can be reduced with an ______, such as atropine sulfate, propantheline bromide (Pro-Banthine), methantheline (Banthine), or glycopyrrolate.

a)

Anticholinergic drug

b)

Antihistamine drugs

c)

NSAIDS

d)

OTC drugs

65.

Anticholinergic drugs:

a)

Atropine sulfate

b)

Propantheline bromide

c)

Methantheline

d)

Glycopyrrolate

66.

Therapeutic doses of ______ for adults range from 0.3 to 1 mg per os, 1 to 2 hours before the procedure.

a)

Atropine sulfate

b)

Propantheline bromide

c)

Methantheline

d)

Glycopyrrolate

67.

Propantheline bromide for an adult is ______ mg taken orally 30-45 minutes before the appointment.

a)

7.5 to 15

b)

7.0 to 15

c)

8.5 to 14

d)

8.0 to 16

68.

These include partially erupted teeth, teeth prepared for crowns, and teeth fractured or broken down to the extent that their margins are subgingival.

a)

Unusual tooth shapes or positions that cause inadequate clamp placement

b)

Loss of tooth structure

c)

Leakage

d)

Periodontal procedures

69.

Management for unusual tooth shapes or positions that cause inadequate clamp placement:

a)

Use modified clamp

b)

Use of orthodontic band

c)

Gingivectomy

d)

Crown lengthening

70.

Must first determine whether the tooth is periodontally sound and restorable and may consider clamping of the attached gingiva and alveolar process.

a)

Loss of tooth structure

b)

Restorative procedures

c)

Leakage

d)

Unusual tooth shapes or positions that cause inadequate clamp placement

71.

Once a tooth is deemed restorable but the margin of sound tooth structure is subgingival, using a clamp with prongs inclined apically or using an _______, should be attempted.

a)

S-G clamp

b)

Molar clamp

c)

Anterior clamp

d)

Premolar clamp

72.

These are cemented over the remaining natural crown in restorative procedures.

a)

Preformed copper band

b)

Temporary crown

c)

Orthodontic band

d)

S-G clamp

73.

Disadvantages of restorative procedures:

a)

Inability to provide superior seal

b)

Particles of these soft metals or cement can block canal systems during access opening and instrumentation

c)

If displaced or are not properly contoured, can cause periodontal inflammation

74.

The uses of preformed copper band, a temporary crown, or an orthodontic band include:

a)

Enables the clamp to be retained successfully

b)

Serves as a seal for the retention of intracanal medicaments and the temporary filling between appointments

75.

Post placement then Crown after R.C.T.

a)

Temporary coronal build-up using composite

b)

Temporary coronal build-up using porcelain

c)

Temporary coronal build-up using amalgam

76.

Presence of gingival tissue results of excessive crown destruction or incomplete eruption.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Periodontal procedures include:

a)

Gingivectomy

b)

Electrosurgery

c)

Crown Lengthening Procedure

d)

Reduction of crown

78.

If the electrode contacts bone, significant destruction of bone can occur.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

It is not recommended when the distance between the crestal level of bone and the remaining tooth structure is minimal.

a)

Electrosurgery

b)

Gingivectomy

c)

Crown Lengthening Procedure

80.

It is done on tooth with margin below the crestal bone.

a)

Orthodontic Extrusion

b)

Electrosurgery

c)

Gingivectomy

d)

Crown Lengthening Procedure

81.

ORTHODONTIC EXTRUSION: To erupt the tooth to provide ____ mm of root length _____ crestal bone level.

a)

2-3; Above

b)

2-3; Below

c)

1-2; Above

d)

1-2; Below