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chapter 61: Psychobiological Disorders

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following is the primary focus of nursing care for patients with mental illness and their families

a)

helping them to cope with and manage mental illness

b)

administering mediations

c)

protecting other people from the patient

d)

controlling the patient's behavior

2.

which of the following are important characteristics of a therapeutic relationship

sata

a)

the purpose is to benefit both the patient and the nurse

b)

the relationship has a clear purpose and ending

c)

the relationship has not clear

d)

the relationship develops purposefully

3.

which statement best illustrates the strategy of clarifying in s nurse-patient interaction

a)

when you mention your son you look very sad

b)

what were you saying while I was on the telephone

c)

why do you get quiet when I ask about your husband

d)

are you saying that you are afraid of him

4.

In the mental status examination the nurse collects data on multiple areas including which of the following

SATA

a)

thought content

b)

mood and affect

c)

appearence

d)

memory and attention

5.

Mr. Brooks was hospitalized after a major automobile accident in which another person died. Mr. Books reports having no sensation in his legs and is unable to them. Diagnostic studies reveal no physical basis for his symptoms. The patient's symptoms are typical of the following

a)

illness anxiety disorder

b)

PSTD

c)

conversion disorder

d)

panic disorder

6.

john is a young collect student who has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. his concerned parents ask for information about his diagnosis. which would be correct and appropriate

a)

schizophrenia is a mental illness that affects a person's thinking and distorts his/her view of reality

b)

most people with schizophrenia eventually require permanent care in a psychiatric facility

c)

at this time, no medications or treatment are available for schizophrenia

d)

most episodes of schizophrenia resolve within 1 or 2 weeks

7.

nursing interventions to promote communication with the person who schizophrenia include which of the following

SATA

a)

let the patient know that you do not share his/her delusions

b)

encourage the patient to attend to activities in the environment

c)

point out the flaws in the patient's illogical environment

d)

inform the patient that hallucinations are part of the disease

8.

several residents in a long term care facility have been taking a first generation antipsychotic for a prolonged period of time. which data should the LVN/LPN collect related to this drug therapy

SATA

a)

dry mouth

b)

shuffling gait, faintness upon changing from a sitting to a standing position

c)

muscle rigidity

d)

abnormal movements

9.

people who are arrogant, need excessive administration and take advantage of others for their own gain may have which type of personality disorder is a narcissistic

t/f

a)

true

b)

false

10.

a patient with bipolar who is taking divalproex ( Depakote) is advised that blood samples will taken periodically to monitor for which adverse effect

a)

liver damage

b)

dystonic reaction

c)

kidney damage

d)

extrapyramidal syndrome

11.

frequently irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medication that develops after years of use; symptoms include involuntary movements of upper extremities, and tonic contractions of necks and back

a)

tardive dyskinesia

b)

psychosis

c)

biologic approach

d)

parkinsonian syndrome

12.

a state in which a person has a distorted perception of reality interfering with the capacity to function and relate to others

a)

tardive dyskinesia

b)

psychosis

c)

biologic approach

d)

parkinsonain syndrome

13.

assumes that mental disorders are related to physiologic changes within the central nervous system

a)

tardive dyskinesia

b)

psychosis

c)

biologic approach

d)

parkinsonian syndrome

14.

a condition that may occur after 1 - 2 weeks of treatment with antipsychotic medications consisting of mask-life face, rigid posture, shuffling gait, and resting tremor

a)

tardive dyskinesia

b)

psychosis

c)

biologic approach

d)

parkinsonian syndrome

15.

based on the theory that people function at different levels of awareness (conscious to unconscious) and that ego defense mechanisms, such as denial and repression, are used to prevent anxiety

a)

psychosis

b)

biological approach

c)

parkinsonian syndrome

d)

psychodynamic approach

16.

an individual may have impaired occupational functioning, restricted social contact, and difficulties with self-care

a)

schizoaffective disorder

b)

schizophrenia

c)

extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)

d)

interpersonal approach

17.

a term used to refer to a group of very serious, usually chronic thought disorders in which psychotic symptoms primarily impair the affected person's ability to interpret the world accurately

a)

schizoffactive disorder

b)

schizophrenia

c)

extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)

d)

interpersonal approach

18.

side effects of antipsychotic drugs on the portion of the central nervous system controlling involuntary movements

a)

schizoaffective disorder

b)

schizophrenia

c)

extrapyramidal side effects

d)

interpersonal approach

19.

components from this approach include:

1. anxiety is often communicated interpersonally

2. the patient learns new ways of coping or maturing in therapeutic relationship

3. the establishment of trust is an important first step in working with patients

a)

schizoaffective disorder

b)

schizophrenia

c)

extrapyramidal side effect

d)

interpersonal approach

20.

a state of feeling outside of oneself that is watching what is happening as if it were happening to someone else

a)

interpersonal approach

b)

depersonalization

c)

congitive behavior approach

d)

sensorium

21.

key ideas from this theoretical approach to mental disorders are

1. behavior is learned

2. behavior increases because of response to that behavior from the environment (reinforcement)

3. the way a person thinks about things (his/her thoughts) influences emotional states and behavior

a)

interpersonal approach

b)

depersonalization

c)

cognitive- behavior approach

d)

sensorium

22.

orientation in terms of time, date, place, person, and self, as well as the situation or circumstance the patient finds him or herself in

a)

interpersonal approach

b)

depersonalization

c)

cognitive behavior approach

d)

sensorium

23.

major or mild neurocognitive disorders that involve deficits in orientation, memory, language comprehension, and judgement

a)

dementia

b)

dissociative disorder

c)

bipolar disorder

d)

agoraphobia

24.

a mental disorder that involves a change in identity, memory or consciousness that enables patients to remove themselves from anxiety - provoking situations

a)

dementia

b)

dissociative disorder

c)

bipolar disorder

d)

agoraphobia

25.

patient experiences cycles of significantly elevated ( or very irritable) or depressed mood

a)

dementia

b)

dissociative disorder

c)

bipolar disorder

d)

agoraphobia

26.

fear of situations outside the home

a)

dementia

b)

dissociative disorder

c)

bipolar disorder

d)

agoraphobia

27.

a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect as well as marked impulsivity

a)

boderline personality disorder

b)

specific phobia

c)

panic disorder

d)

delirium

28.

patient experiences as marked persistent fear that is excessive or unreasonable and works hard to avoid the feared objects or situation

a)

specific phobia

b)

panic disorder

c)

delirium

d)

dementia

29.

patient experiences intense fear or discomfort reaching a peak within a few minutes

a)

specific phobia

b)

panic disorder

c)

delirium

d)

dissociative disorder

30.

disorders that invovles deficits in orientation, memory, language comprehension, and judgement and are usually reversible with rapid onset

a)

specific phobia

b)

panic disorder

c)

delirium

d)

dementia

31.

loss of body function (paralysis)

a)

dissociative disorder

b)

conversion disorder (functional neurologic symptom disorder)

c)

post-traumatic stress disorder

d)

acute stress disorder

32.

a disorder that is characterized by the patient experiencing one or more physical symptoms which they experience as distressing and/or result in significant disruption in their daily life

a)

post traumatic stress disorder

b)

illness anxiety disorder

c)

somatic symptom disorder

d)

acute stress disorder

33.

pervasie, chronic and maladaptive personality characteristics that interfere with normal functioning

a)

personality disorder

b)

post-traumatic stress disorder

c)

obsessive - compulsive disorder

d)

illness anxiety disorder

34.

a cluster symptoms after a distressing event in which the person experiences intense fears helplessness horror or a combination of those feelings

a)

personaity disorder

b)

post-trauma stress disorder

c)

obessive - compulsive disorder

d)

illness anxiety disorder

35.

difficulty establishing and sustaining close relationships associated with a pattern of preoccupation with orderliness perfectionism and control to the extend that the major part of the activity is lost

a)

personality disorder

b)

obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

illness anxiety disorder

d)

acute stress disorder

36.

preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness when medical finding are absent

a)

personality disorder

b)

post-traumatic stress disorder

c)

obsessive compulsive disorder

d)

illness anxiety disorder

37.

disorder that occurs after exposure to a recent distressing event that is characterized by detachment derealization depersonalization and dissociative amnesia

a)

personality disorder

b)

post traumatic stress disorder

c)

obsessive compulsive disorder

d)

acute stress disorder

38.

which features are assessed during the mental status examination

sata

a)

appearance

b)

mood and affect

c)

speech and language

d)

thought content

39.

which are interpersonal strategies of a therapeutic relationship

sata

a)

sharing observations

b)

accepting silence

c)

listening

d)

clarifying, being available

40.

antidepressant drug that affects serotonin and epinephrine/norepinephrine; may cause cardiac complications

a)

tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

b)

atypical neuroleptics

c)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

d)

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

41.

used in the treatment of bipolar disorder with narrow therapeutic range; may cause toxicity signs including tremors

- important to maintain hydration and monitor renal function and serum blood levels of drug

a)

tricyclic antidepressants

b)

lithium

c)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

d)

atypical neuroleptics

42.

antidepressants that can be taken once a day without being cardiotoxic; useful in treatment of panic disorder and obsessive compulsive disorder

a)

tricyclic antidepressants

b)

lithium

c)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

d)

atypical neuroleptics

43.

antipsychotic agent that treat both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia; example are Clozaril, Zyprexa, and Seroquel

a)

tricyclic antidepressant

b)

lithium

c)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

d)

atypical neuroleptics

44.

antidepressant drugs that require strict diet restriction to avoid hypertensive crisis

a)

atypical neuroleptics

b)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

c)

monoamine oxidase

d)

lithium

45.

mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorders

a)

atypical neuroleptics

b)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

c)

tricyclic antidepressants

d)

divalproex sodium (Depakote)

46.

repeated checking to see whether the door is locked is an example of

a)

obsession

b)

hallucination

c)

delusion

d)

compulsion

47.

many people with obsessive-compulsive disorders have considerably reduced their symptoms once therapeutic levels of which type of drug have been reached

a)

analgesics

b)

antihistamines

c)

antidepressants

d)

anticonvulsant

48.

conversion disorders and illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) are example of

a)

mood disorders

b)

somatic symptom disorder

c)

panic disorders

d)

post-traumatic disorders

49.

amnesia and dissociative identify disorder are examples of

a)

somatic symptom disorders

b)

dissociative disorders

c)

panic disorder

d)

post-traumatic stress disorder

50.

a symptom of dissociative disorders is

a)

depersonalization

b)

hypochondraisasis

c)

agitation

d)

hallucinations

51.

most patients with dissociative identify disorder report severe

a)

agoraphobia

b)

halluncination

c)

delusions

d)

childhood abuse

52.

the primary anti-anxiety medications are the

a)

benzodiazepines

b)

antihistamines

c)

thiazides

d)

salicylates

53.

withdrawal from antianxiety medications should be medically supervised because of effect(s) of

a)

amnesia and confusion

b)

negative feedback

c)

hormones and histamines

d)

physical and psychologic dependence

54.

one of the most common psychiatric disorders

a)

bipolar disorder

b)

major depression

c)

post-traumatic stress disorder

d)

conversion disorder

55.

as patients respond to antidepressant medication and their energy level increases, what risk may increase

a)

mutism

b)

panic

c)

suicide

d)

hypertension

56.

what symptoms can major depression include

sata

a)

appetite disturbance

b)

weight issues, fatigue

c)

sleep problems

d)

loss of interest in activities

57.

in its most severe form, major depression can also include what symptoms

a)

orthostatic hypotension

b)

psychosis

c)

tardive dyskinesia

d)

parkinsonian syndrome

58.

which are active signs of major depression in a patient

sata

a)

psychomotor retardation

b)

no spontaneous movement

c)

downcast gaze

d)

agitated movement of hand-wringing

59.

frequently assessing a patient's suicidal potential and maintaining continuous one to one contact, if indicated are interventions for depressed patients who are at risk for

a)

sleep disturbance

b)

anxiety

c)

harm to self

d)

low self esteem

60.

learning to limit self - criticism and to give and receive compliments are interventions for patients who are experiencing

a)

risk for harm to self

b)

low self-esteem

c)

anxiety

d)

unresolved greif

61.

the most common medication for patients with manic episodes is

a)

alprazolam (Xanax)

b)

fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac)

c)

lithium and divalproex

d)

benztropine mesylate (Cogentin)

62.

which herbal preparation is used by many people to relieve depression

a)

ephedra

b)

ginkgo

c)

ginseng

d)

st. john's wort

63.

what are common physical signs and symptoms of anxiety

sata

a)

elevated blood pressure, increase pulse

b)

trembling

c)

nausea

d)

chest pain, shortness of breath

64.

what are side effects of anti-anxiety medications that are associated with sedation

sata

a)

drowsiness

b)

fatigue

c)

dizziness

d)

confusion

65.

which are typical symptoms of schizophrenia

sata

a)

disturbed thought processes; emotional response

b)

delusions

c)

distorted perceptions of reality

d)

abnormal motor behavior

66.

anxiolytic medications which are given for anxiety disorders or as an adjunct medication for treating schizophrenia may have side effects such as drowsiness, loss of coordination, fatigue, confusion, blurred vision, and psychologic dependence

t/f

a)

true

b)

false

67.

although newer medication such SSRIs are safer to use in treating depression occasionally a patient may require the use of a tricyclic antidepressant. the side effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are drowsiness, fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. these are often difficult to tolerate in older adults

t/f

a)

true

b)

false

68.

older adults and medically compromised patient are exceptionally vulnerable to experiencing the side effects of all psychotropic medications especially postural hypotension, falls and confusion

t/f

a)

true

b)

false

69.

used in treatment of bipolar disorders

serum level must be monitor for therapeutic range: 50 - 100

a)

carbamazepine (tegretol)

b)

lamotrigine (Lamictal)

c)

lithium (carbonate, lithobid, Lithium SR)

d)

valproic acid

divalproex sodium. (Depakote, Depakene)

70.

what medication narrow therapeutic range of 0.5 - 1.5 mEq/L

watch for signs toxicity:

- tremulousness; nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, change in level of consciouness

a)

carbamazepine

b)

lamotrigine

c)

lithium

d)

valproic acid