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CNA Practice Exam

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Long Term Care is for people who...

a)

are mostly independent

b)

need 24 care

c)

need skilled care

d)

have an ongoing condition

e)

require only some supervision

2.

what is home health care?

a)

care given in a LTC facility

b)

care provided in an assisted living facility

c)

care provided in a person's home for people older or chronically ill. Sometimes after recent hospital stay

d)

care provided only by family members within one's home

3.

who is acute care for?

a)

people who require short-term, immediate care for illnesses or injuries. People also admitted for short stays for surgery

b)

people who have had treatments, procedures, or surgeries and need short-term skilled care

c)

people who need some assistance and supervision

d)

people who do not need 24 hour skilled care, yet they live in a living facility

4.

What is hospice?

a)

care given by specialists. Physical, occupational, and speech therapists help restore or improve function after injury/illness

b)

care given in hospitals or surgical centers for immediate care for illness or injury

c)

care given in facilities or homes for people who have approx 6 months or less to live. Physical and emotional care and comfort are high priority to resident and support to families

5.

Common Policy: True or False-

Nursing assistants must report important events or changes in residents to a nurse

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Common Policy: True or False

Nursing assistants can do tasks that are not included in the job description

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Common Policy: True or False-

All resident information must remain confidential

a)

True

b)

False

8.

When surveyors visit a facility, what do they study and observe?

a)

how well staff care for residents

b)

staff completing nutritional, physical, social, emotional, and spiritual needs

c)

review resident charts

d)

break room environment

9.

Who does Medicare insurance cover?

a)

People 65 and older. Also covers people of any age with permanent kidney failure or certain disabilities

b)

people with low-income and are qualified based on special circumstances

10.

Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?

a)

Writing a note in a patient's chart

b)

Giving an oral report to a supervisor

c)

Smiling at a new resident

d)

Speaking in an encouraging tone of voice to a resident

11.

If a resident is difficult to understand, a nursing assistant should:

a)

Pretend to understand even when she does not so the resident won't be embarrassed

b)

Restate what the resident is saying in her own words

c)

Avoid communicating with the resident

d)

Use cliches to make things easier for the resident

12.

A nursing assistant's responsibility with a resident's medical chart is to:

a)

Keep the chart open for later use.

b)

Make changes to the care plan.

c)

Suggest the best treatment for the resident.

d)

Record observations and care.

13.

When should documentation be recorded?

a)

Immediately after care is given.

b)

At the end of the shift.

c)

Whenever there is time to document fully.

d)

Before the care is given while there is extra time.

14.

What is the first thing a nursing assistant should do after getting a work assignment?

a)

Set up residents for the next mealtime.

b)

Ask the supervisor to change one of the assignments.

c)

Check his assigned residents to see if immediate care is needed.

d)

Take vital signs on all residents assigned to him.

15.

Which of the following is the best way for an NA to respond to an angry resident?

a)

Ignore the resident until he calms down.

b)

Try to find out what is causing the resident's anger.

c)

Ask the resident to stop being angry and yelling.

d)

Restrain the resident until he has calmed down.

16.

When is it appropriate for an NA to hit a resident?

a)

When the resident is uncooperative during care.

b)

When the resident threatens the NA or others.

c)

When the resident hits the NA first and she needs to defend herself.

d)

It is never appropriate under any circumstances.

17.

When a resident is confused, the NA should:

a)

Leave the resident alone until she is oriented again.

b)

Avoid telling the resident about plans for the day.

c)

Speak quickly and try to distract the resident.

d)

Provide a quiet environment and reduce stimuli.

18.

A person in a coma may still be able to:

a)

Hear

b)

Speak

c)

See

d)

Walk

19.

When communicating with a resident with a functional barrier (like an oxygen mask), the NA should:

a)

Remove the barrier so the resident can speak clearly.

b)

Give the resident extra time to speak or use yes/no questions.

c)

Insert a tracheostomy tube so the resident can speak.

d)

Strongly encourage the resident to speak as much as possible.

20.

1 ounce is the same as

a)

3 cc

b)

300cc

c)

.3 cc

d)

30cc

21.

Abduction

a)

movement away from the center (midline of body)

b)

toward the center of the body

22.

Adduction

a)

away from the center of the body

b)

toward the center of the body

23.

Flexion

a)

to straighten out

b)

to bend

c)

to over extend

24.

What are the purposes of ROM

a)

increase circulation

b)

help prevent osteoporosis

c)

prevent atrophy/contractures

d)

prevent halotosis

25.

T/F Exercise the joint as many times as ordered; usually 3-5 times

a)

true

b)

false

26.

T/F Never exercise or stretch joint to the point of pain.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

Before meals

(a)  

28.

Two times a daily

(a)  

29.

With

(a)  

30.

bedtime

(a)  

31.

It is acceptable to discuss a resident's condition in:

a)

The elevator with another CNA

b)

The cafeteria with a co-worker.

c)

Your home with your family.

d)

A private area with the assigned licensed nurse.

32.

The body's first line of defense is the:

a)

Lungs

b)

Skin

c)

Blood

d)

Kidneys

33.

The most important measure health care workers use to prevent the spread of infection is:

a)

Wearing face masks

b)

Wearing gloves

c)

Handwashing

d)

Sterile Technique

34.

To make sure your resident is safe during a bath, you should:

a)

Close the tub room door

b)

Undress the resident in the tub room

c)

Check the water temperature

d)

Remove all your jewlery

35.

Using good body mechanics will help you

a)

get all your work done before your shift ends

b)

lose weight

c)

avoid injuries

d)

develop stronger muscles

36.

You should check the resident's vital signs:

a)

only on the first day of each month

b)

whenever a change occurs that might signal an illness

c)

everyday at the beginning of your shift

d)

whenever you feel like it

37.

When placing a resident on their side, their legs should normally be positioned

a)

with two pillows between them

b)

however you think

c)

with both legs straight and slightly apart

d)

with one leg straight and one leg slightly bent

38.

Which of the following techniques is helpful when you are dealing with an agitated resident?

a)

yelling

b)

distraction

c)

reality orientation

d)

clapping your hands in their face to get their attention

39.
The vital sign that is easiest for a patient to consciously control is?
a)
blood pressure
b)
pulse
c)
respiratory rate
d)
temperature 
40.
You are taking a BP for a group of patients.  The first sound that you hear is the :
a)
systole
b)
diastole
c)
tinnitus
d)
murmur
41.
Which of the following patient observations must be reported to the nurse?
a)
Your preschool pt is not drinking at least 30 ounces of milk each day
b)
Your elderly homecare pt reports to you that she fell last week
c)
Your teenager pt in a group home is more interested in peers that patients
d)
Your toddler patient is striving for autonomy and doing things on their own
42.
One of the musculoskeletal hazards of bed rest and immobility is
a)
high calcium in the bones
b)
joint contractures
c)
pneumonia
d)
sensory loss
43.
Which intervention can prevent contractures?
a)
heat application
b)
using the lateral position
c)
turning and repositioning Q 4 h
d)
ROM
44.
Your pt is blind and not able to see their food items on a plate.  Otherwise, the person is physically well and without any other emotional problems.  You should. 
a)
feed the pt because they cannot see the food
b)
ask the nurse to ask the MD for tube feedings.
c)
tell the patient where each item on the plate is
d)
place the person in a restorative dining program
45.
The best way to manage disturbed behavior is to
a)
prevent it
b)
give meds for it
c)
restrain the person
d)
lock the person in their room
46.
Which statement about spiritual needs is true?
a)
Almost all people are religious and church going
b)
Religion and spirituality are the same
c)
CNAs should pray with all their patients 
d)
Spiritual needs and beliefs vary among people
47.
Which type of question gives the CNA the most information?
a)
Open ended questions
b)
Close ended questions
c)
Yes or No questions
d)
Complex, technical questions
48.
Autonomy is a person's right to 
a)
make their own decisions
b)
a fair and accurate bill
c)
free care and medicine
d)
a patient advocate
49.
Patient's have a right to how much of the information about their health problems?
a)
Only enough so they can comply with care
b)
A small amount so they do not get nervous
c)
A moderate amount unless they are old
d)
They have a right to ALL of the information
50.
If a person chooses to not eat or drink, the CNA must?
a)
force them to eat and drink
b)
trick them into food and water
c)
respect their choice
d)
scold them about this
51.

What standards does OSHA provide?

a)

blood

b)

hygiene

c)

safety

d)

profit

52.
Advance directives:
a)
Must be done by all patients
b)
are done only when the person is dying
c)
are done by family members
d)
can be done at any time by the patient
53.

How do you determine which type and color of uniform or scrubs to wear in your place of employment?

a)

Operating Room (OR) staff always wear green scrubs

b)

Follow standards established by place of employment

c)

You can wear the type and color of your choice depending upon your income

d)

Uniform should always be colorful and with print to help alleviate fear from patients

54.

This type of goal usually takes days, weeks,or months to accomplish.

a)

short-term goal

b)

long-term goal

55.

Physical disabilities, psychological attitudes & prejudice, and cultural diversity are common causes of?

a)

stress

b)

communication barriers

c)

nonverbal communication

d)

factors contributing to good health

56.

What does the abbreviation HIPAA mean?

a)

Health Insurance Portability Act

b)

Health Insurance for Patients Accountability Ace

c)

Health Insurability Portal Accountability Administration

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

57.

Why should a health care professional keep fingernails short and clean?

a)

prevents fatigue and puts less stress on muscles

b)

avoid injuring patients

c)

avoid transmitting germs

d)

shows lack of interest

58.

When a resident is combative and trying to hit the nurse aide, it is important for the nurse aide to

a)

show the resident that the nurse aide is in control.

b)

step back to protect self from harm while speaking in a calm manner.

c)

explain that if the resident is not calm a restraint may be applied.

59.

During lunch in the dining room, a resident begins yelling and throws a spoon at the nurse aide. The best response by the nurse aide is to

a)

remain calm and ask what is upsetting the resident

b)

begin removing all the other residents from the dining room.

c)

remove the resident’s plate, fork, knife, and cup so there is nothing else to throw.

60.

Which of the following questions asked to the resident is most likely to encourage conversation?

a)

Are you feeling tired today?

b)

What are your favorite foods?

c)

Do you want to wear this outfit?

61.

Before touching a resident who is crying to offer comfort, the nurse aide should consider

a)

whether the resident has been sad recently.

b)

whether the resident has family that visits routinely.

c)

the resident’s cultural background.

62.

A nurse aide finds a resident looking in the refrigerator at the nurses’ station at 5 a.m. The resident, who is confused, explains he needs breakfast before he leaves for work. The best response by the nurse aide is to

a)

help the resident back to his room and into bed.

b)

ask the resident about his job and if he is hungry.

c)

remind him that he is retired from his job and in a nursing home

63.

To help prevent resident falls, the nurse aide should

a)

always raise side rails when any resident is in his/her bed.

b)

remind residents who use call lights that they need to wait patiently for staff.

c)

leave residents’ beds at the lowest level when care is complete

64.

PASS

a)

prepare, alarm, set, sweep

b)

pull, aim, sweep squeeze

c)

pull aim squeeze sweep

65.

RACE

a)

Remove patient from danger, activate alarm, contain fire, Extinguish or evacuate

b)

Race to alarm, activate alarm, confirm head count, evacuate

c)

report fire, activate alarm, contain fire, extinguish or evacuate

66.

Safety Data Sheet information

a)

a standard structure for concise, factual, effective, meaningful reporting of patient information.

b)

information provided regarding products includes health hazards, safe use guidelines, and emergency procedures for chemical exposure

c)

information provided regarding extent or range of permissible activities

67.

______ is a medical assistant program for people who have low income or certain disabilities

a)

Medicare

b)

Medicaid

c)

Department of the Treasury

d)

Committee on the budget

68.

Medicare will pay for

a)

All care provided by the recipient

b)

All care request by the doctor

c)

All care requested by the facility

d)

Care that is determines to be medically necessary

69.

Baby Carly is born and weighs 8.5 pounds; if she triples her weight in 1 year, what will she weigh on her first birthday?

a)

21 pound

b)

25.5

c)

24.75

d)

22.8

70.

Mr. Johnson drank a partial glass of milk containing 12 ounces for breakfast. There is 120 ml left in the glass. How much did Mr. Johnson drink?

a)

200 ml

b)

6 ounces

c)

10 ounces

d)

240 ml

71.

A CNA is calculating a resident’s oral intake to record on an intake and output record. The resident had the following for breakfast

a. 8 oz of tea

b. 120 ml of orange juice

c. 2 eggs

d. 2 slices of bacon

e. 1 slice of toast

f. 4 oz of water

g. 4 oz of jello

a)

600 ml

b)

18 ounces

c)

480 ml

d)

12 ounces

72.

The physician ordered 1500 ml of saline to be infused at 200 ml/hr. The infusion will take how many hours?

a)

4.5 hours

b)

10 hours

c)

7.5 hours

d)

8 hours

73.

Mr. Smith's son weighs 90 kg. How many pounds does his son weigh?

a)

40.5 pounds

b)

40.9 pounds

c)

108 pounds

d)

198 pounds

74.

Your patient drank 6 ounces of juice, 3 cups of water, and a half pint of milk. His total intake was what?

a)

1050 ml

b)

1150 ml

c)

1460 ml

d)

2420 ml

75.

Order: Hydrochlorothiazide 75 mg po

Supply: scored tablets 50 mg

How much medication will you give the patient?

a)

0.5 tablets

b)

1 tablet

c)

1.5 tablets

d)

2 tablets