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MSD Final

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

a patient in an acute care hospital presents with a new onset of lower left-sided facial weakness and slow imprecise speech. Which of the following is most likely?

a)

the patient has had a cerebellum stroke

b)

the patient has had a stroke in the right motor cortex or internal capsule on the right side

c)

the patient has PD and these symptoms would be consistent with this dz

d)

both b and c

2.

during a presentation at a conference, a neurologist states that a patient has a brain tumor involving the corticobulbar tract. The patient is reported to have significant dysarthria b/c

a)

the corticobulbar tract supplies the afferent fibers (sensory signals) from the brainstem to the cerebellum

b)

the corticobulbar tract supplies the efferent fibers (motor signals) from the cortex to only the spinal

c)

the corticobulbar tract supplies the efferent fibers (motor signals) from the cortex to the brainstem and therefore to the CNs

d)

the corticobulbar tract is the blood supply to the motor strip

3.

A unilateral upper motor neuron lesion might result in deficits

a)

weakness in the muscles on both sides of the face

b)

muscle wasting and atrophy in the tongue

c)

no significant changes in innervation

d)

weakness on the contralateral side of the face (lower face) to the side of the lesion

4.

A unilateral lower motor neuron lesion to the facial or 7th CN will probably result in...

a)

no significant weakness since it is a LMN lesion

b)

weakness and possible atrophy in the muscles of facial expression on the contralateral side of the face

c)

significant resonance and vocal changes resulting in limited speech production

d)

muscular weakness of the entire side (upper and lower) of the face on the same side as the lesion

5.

Pt has a symmetrical smile and no obvious facial weakness. However, when the pt answers questions, her speech is imprecise and slow, especially when saying words like "take". When the pt protrudes her tongue, her tongue deviates to one side and seems asymmetrical. The SLP states the pt had a suspected brainstem infarct. When CN seems to be involved?

a)

facial VII

b)

hypoglossal XII

c)

Vagus X (nucleus ambiguous)

d)

trigeminal V

6.

Dopamine is often decreased in PD resulting in impaired motor movements. Which of the following is true?

a)

dopamine is a structure in the motor cortex

b)

dopamine is a neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia that facilitates control of motor movements

c)

dopamine is the motor nucleus for CN XII

d)

none of the above

7.

the extrapyramidal or indirect pathway is thought to regulate which of the following?

a)

the primary voluntary motor response

b)

the sensory response

c)

posture and muscle tone

d)

a and b

8.

A patient presents with a stroke in the primary motor cortex on the left side of his brain. This patient could present with both aphasia and dysarthria.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells, like myelin, are

a)

part of the vascular system of the brain

b)

the insulation that surrounds the axons of the central and peripheral nervous system

c)

connective tissue within the CNS

d)

part of the nucleus of a CN

10.

a neurotransmitter is...

a)

a glial cell in the CNS

b)

a part of the axon of a peripheral nerve

c)

a chemical substance that inhibits or excites a nerve impulse across a synapse

d)

a type of neuron in the CNS

11.

What is the corticobulbar tract?

a)

the corpus callosum connects the two primary hemispheres of the brain

b)

a pathway that is composed of upper motor neurons that connect the cortex to the brainstem motor nuclei of the CNs

c)

the interneurons connecting the right and left frontal lobes

d)

this tract connects CNs IX and X to the brainstem

12.

voluntary motor movement for speech movements is initiated in which area of the cortex?

a)

the basal ganglia

b)

the primary motor cortex of the frontal lobe

c)

the right temporal lobe

d)

the bilateral visual cortex

13.

Which is accurate about the corticobulbar tract and the internal capsule of the brain?

a)

they both are considered LMNs

b)

both structures are in the basal ganglia

c)

the corticobulbar tract provides innervation to the muscles of speech and the internal capsule inhibits movement

d)

both contain the neural fibers (motor or efferent fibers) that conduct the neural signal from the primary motor cortex through these areas (structures) to the brainstem

14.

a patient presents with a large lesion in the left internal capsule. Which is true?

a)

bilateral innervation to CN V is impaired and the pt will have significant jaw weakness

b)

this is a LMN lesion and atrophy will result

c)

this is an UMN lesion and there may be weakness on the contralateral side

d)

the axons of the CNs that exit the brainstem and travel to the muscle will be impacted

15.

A pt presents with significant trauma to the face and neck as a result of a motorcycle accident. The trauma doctor notes in the pt's medical chart that there is significant damage to the peripheral branches (LMNs) of CN X. Which of the following is (are) true?

a)

this damage will result in weakness and possibly atrophy of the involved muscles innervated by this nerve

b)

this damage will result in spasticity of the involved muscles innervated by this nerve

c)

the pt will most likely present with tongue deviation

d)

the pt may present with vocal changes as a result of this damage

16.

bilateral innervation to the CNs means...

a)

there are bilateral nuclei in the cerebellum

b)

the CN nucleus receives input from both cortical hemispheres

c)

if there is a lesion on one side of the brain, the CN continues to receive input from the other side of the brain

d)

both B and C

17.

Which is true about the basal ganglion?

a)

it is in the motor cortex of the frontal lobe and contributes to tone regulation

b)

it is a gray matter subcortical structure and contributes to tone regulation

c)

it is located behind the brainstem and contributes to motor planning

d)

it is located behind the brainstem and contributes to tone regulation

18.

the cerebellum is...

a)

a structure that has interconnections to several areas of the brain and forms a circuit that contributes can result in bilateral vocal cord weakness

b)

is a structure located above the brainstem that contributes to sensory integration

c)

a structure that has interconnections to several areas of the brain and forms a circuit that contributes to the timing and force of movements

d)

both A and B

19.

Damage to the hypoglossal nerve axons on the right side (LMNs) will lead to

a)

atrophy and weakness as well as tongue deviation to the right side

b)

no tongue deviation b/c of the bilateral innervation to the brainstem nuclei

c)

deviation of the tongue toward the opposite side of the lesion

d)

bilateral weakness of the tongue

20.

the mvmt of the upper portion of the face is not changed with a unilateral lesion to the primary motor cortex. Choose the best explanation for why this is true.

a)

the upper portion of the face is innervated by CN VII and receives input from only the contralateral motor cortex

b)

the upper portion of the face is innervated by a branches of CN VII and receives input from the motor cortex from both hemispheres

c)

the upper portion of the face is innervated by CN VII and receives input from the ipsilateral motor cortex

d)

the upper portion of the face is innervated by a second brainstem nuclei in the medulla

21.

In diseases like MS and Guillain-Barre syndrome, the underlying pathology contributes to the breakdown of the myelin sheath. Why does this affect speech production?

a)

the neural input traveling to the muscle is interrupted and this can result in weakness in the muscles of speech

b)

lack of the myelin sheath increases spasticity in the muscles

c)

the breakdown of the myelin causes mini-strokes in the primary motor area

d)

all of the above

22.

the reason a lesion in the primary cortex can result in similar deficits as a lesion in the corticobulbar tract is b/c

a)

they are the same structure but called 2 different names

b)

all lesions in the motor cortex results from a lesion in the corticobulbar tract

c)

the corticobulbar tract provides the connection b/t the primary motor cortex and the brainstem

d)

speech motor movements are influenced only by the primary cortex and the corticobulbar tract

23.

An UMN lesion of CN V would result in which and why?

a)

lower facial weakness only since this is an UMN lesion

b)

possibly no significant weakness of the muscles of mastication or jaw strength, since there is no bilateral innervation of this CN

c)

possibly no significant weakness of the tongue, since there is no bilateral innervation of this CN

d)

a significant weakness of the muscles of mastication or jaw strength, since the final neuron pathway to the muscles is interrupted

24.

motor speech deficits are typical in PD due to decreased dopamine. These deficits occur therefore b/c

a)

the resulting LMN lesion causes changes in the neural control of the muscles of speech

b)

the resulting UMN lesion causes changes in the neural control of the muscles of speech

c)

a decrease in a neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia, can cause changes in the neural control of the muscles of speech

d)

several small strokes in the basal ganglia cause changes in the neural control of speech muscles

25.

If a patient presents with ALS and has primary pathology in the corticospinal tracts, the patient will initially present with speech deficits

a)

true

b)

false

26.

What is useful to know about the patient's medical history?

a)

prior diagnosis of PD or stroke

b)

is the change in this speech new, has it been a gradual or sudden change?

c)

does the pt think he has had any changes to this speech?

d)

all of the above

27.

pt stops to wipe his mouth, now think about the CN exam you will soon give, what CN do you think you think you might find involved?

a)

CN XII hypoglossal only

b)

CN VII facial - decreased lip seal

c)

CN X Vagus, superior laryngeal nerve

d)

all of the above

28.

during the eval, you notice a wet, and weak voice. What else do you think you might find involved?

a)

CN XII Hypoglossal

b)

CN X Vagus - superior laryngeal nerve, internal laryngeal branch

c)

CN X vagus - recurrent laryngeal nerve

d)

both B and C

29.

during the eval, decreased tongue strength and limited tongue movements are observed. What CN do you think you might find involved based on these findings?

a)

CN XII Hypoglossal

b)

CN VII facial

c)

CN X recurrent laryngeal nerve

d)

CN V trigeminal

30.

the pt's speech is slow and has many speech distortions. Although the pt had some drooling from the mouth, there is not a obvious asymmetry in his facial movement. Which underlying diagnosis could be excluded?

a)

ALS

b)

PD

c)

left frontal (primary motor area) CVA

d)

MS

31.

Which are the primary characteristics of flaccid dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

precise speech production

b)

atrophy of the muscles

c)

hypotonia

d)

spastic muscles

32.

Which underlying diagnoses are associated with flaccid dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

unilateral stroke

b)

Guillian-Barre syndrome

c)

brainstem stroke

d)

myasthenia gravis

33.

which are the primary characteristics of spastic dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

hyperactive reflexes

b)

weakness

c)

atrophy of the muscles

d)

increased muscle tone

34.

Which underlying diagnoses are associated with spastic dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

brainstem stroke

b)

bilateral cortical stroke

c)

unilateral stroke

d)

lacunar infarcts

35.

Which are the primary characteristics of ataxia? (multi-select)

a)

dysmetria - inability to control movement range

b)

imprecise movement

c)

poorly coordinated movement

d)

increased muscles tone

36.

Which underlying diagnoses are associated with ataxia (multi-select)

a)

degenerative cerebellar dz

b)

brainstem stroke

c)

MS

d)

cerebellar tumors

37.

which are the primary characteristics of hyperkinetic dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

involuntary movements

b)

resting tremor

c)

increased muscle tone

d)

myoclonus - quick jerks of a body part

38.

Which are the primary characteristics of unilateral UMN dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

lower facial weakness on the contralateral side of the lesion

b)

aphonia

c)

imprecise articulation

d)

mono-pitch

39.

which underlying diagnoses are associated with unilateral UMN dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

unilateral cortical non-hemorrhagic stroke

b)

unilateral cortical non-hemorrhagic stroke

c)

myasthenia gravis

d)

unilateral subdural hematoma

40.

What are the primary characteristics of mixed dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

slow rate of speech

b)

strained-strangled voice quality

c)

nasal emissions

d)

imprecise consonants

41.

Which are the primary speech characteristics of apraxia (multi-select)

a)

distorted sound prolongations

b)

consonant and vowel distortions

c)

monotone

d)

fast rate of speech especially on multi-syllabic words

42.

Which underlying diagnoses are associated with apraxia? (multi-select)

a)

LMN impairment

b)

frontal lobe tumor

c)

stroke

d)

degenerative disease

43.

acquired neurogenic mutism can be associated with which of the following?

a)

brainstem stroke

b)

minimally conscious state

c)

unilateral small cortical stroke

d)

neurotoxic state (drug-induced)

44.

acquired neurogenic stuttering can result from TBI

a)

true

b)

false

45.

all of the following are common characteristics cs of hypokinetic dysarthria EXCEPT:

a)

difficulty initiating/stopping speech

b)

monopitch/monoloudness

c)

abnormal tongue movements

d)

reduced range of motion and precision

46.

what is the most common neurological cause of UUMN dysarthria? (multi-select)

a)

non-hemorrhagic stroke

b)

hemorrhagic stroke

c)

TBI

d)

PD

47.

Which underlying medical diagnoses is typically associated with hypokinetic dysarthria?

a)

Unilateral frontal lobe stroke

b)

PD

c)

Bilateral frontal lobe strokes

d)

Brainstem hemorrhage

48.

The presentation of spastic dysarthria could result from a lesion in both the direct and indirect motor pathways

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Apraxia of speech is different from other motor speech disorders in that the patient often is observed to

a)

Have a monotone prosody

b)

Exhibits groping to produce the target word

c)

Has weakness

d)

Has strained vocal quality

50.

Which of the following are true of patient’s presenting with apraxia of speech? (Multi-select)

a)

Repetition of nonsense words is easier than meaningful speech

b)

A high-frequency word “hello” might be easier to say than a low-frequency word “gallow”

c)

A word with many syllables “benefactor” would be easier to say than a word with fewer syllables “benefit”

d)

Counting or automatic speech is easier than volitional speech

51.

Intensive and systematic drills

a)

Are not recommended with AOS

b)

May be appropriate with apraxia b/c this disorder results from inefficiency in speech planning or programming

c)

May be appropriate with apraxia b/c this method is consistent with principles of motor learning

d)

Both B and C

52.

The use of feedback in apraxia of speech tx

a)

Is useful to facilitate the pt’s ability to judge their speech and self-correct errors

b)

Can facilitate retention and generalization of learning

c)

Should be only used with mild disorders

d)

Both A and B

53.

Articulatory kinematic approaches to treatment include

a)

Imitation of a target stimulus (sound or word)

b)

Intensive drill

c)

Using meaningful communication

d)

All the above

54.

Which of the following use rate or rhythm to facilitate articulation

a)

Metronome or pacing techniques

b)

Melodic intonation therapy

c)

Singing

d)

All the above

55.

Which of the following is true regarding respiration and speech breathing (multi-select)

a)

Attention to speech breathing may be necessary in some patient presenting with dysarthria to ensure consistent breath support for speech

b)

There is strong evidence that EMST facilitates increased volume in PD

c)

Postural support can facilitate improved speech breathing in some patients

d)

Even with biofeedback patients can rarely improve in their control of speech breathing

56.

Palatial lift prosthesis is a device used to

a)

Increase vocal intensity

b)

Manage velopharyngeal dysfunction

c)

Lift the palate and improve velopharyngeal closure

d)

B and c

57.

What is true regarding no speech strength training?

a)

These exercises should be used with all pts presenting with dysarthria

b)

These exercises should be used primarily with hyperkinetic dysarthria

c)

These exercises should be used only when weakness is present and this weakness is related to speech impairment

d)

These exercises should be used primarily w/ ataxia

58.

Clear speech primarily promotes

a)

Loudness

b)

Speed

c)

Exaggeration of articulation

d)

Minimizing stress

59.

Rate modification is often used with dysarthria to

a)

Facilitate articulatory precision

b)

Increase utterance length

c)

Improve intelligibility

d)

A and C

60.

What are the salient neuromuscular features of MSDs?

a)

Accuracy of speech produced

b)

Strength, speed

c)

Range, steadiness, tone

d)

Utterance

61.

History taken during a motor speech exam should include…

a)

When did the changes in speech begin

b)

What are the patients goals

c)

What is the underlying medical history

d)

What is the patient’s age, occupation

e)

All the above

62.

During the speech Eval, the SLP’s exam should include the speech mechanism during non-speech tasks. Facial symmetry and oral motor mvmt should be examined (multi-select)

a)

At rest

b)

During sustained postures

c)

During movement

d)

Only during speech

63.

What are some of the tasks used for speech assessment?

a)

Saying “ah” for as long as the pt can

b)

Saying /puh/ for several seconds

c)

Having the pt engage in a conversation

d)

Having the pt read a passage

e)

All the above

64.

Which of the following are tests used to evaluate speech? (Multi-select)

a)

Boston naming test

b)

Frenchay dysarthria assessment

c)

Speech intelligibility test

d)

A word intelligibility test