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HA FINALS

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

it is the heaviest single organ of the body which accounts for approximately 16% of body weight

a)

Skin

b)

Neck

c)

Heart

d)

Lungs

2.

color of a normal skin except:

a)

light to deep brown

b)

ruddy pink to light pink

c)

yellow overtones to olive

d)

bluish color

3.

it is the result of inadequate circulating blood or hemoglobin and subsequent reduction in tissue oxygenation

a)

Pallor

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Jaundice

d)

Erythema

4.

it is the bluish color of the skin and is most evident in the nail beds, lips, and buccal mucosa

a)

Pallor

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Jaundice

d)

Erythema

5.

it is the yellowish tinge and is first evident in the sclera of the eyes and then mucus membranes and the skin

a)

Pallor

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Jaundice

d)

Erythema

6.

it is the skin redness associated with a variety of rashes and other conditions

a)

Pallor

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Jaundice

d)

Erythema

7.

it is seen as patches of hypopigmented skin and is caused by the destruction of melanocytes in the area

a)

Vitiligo

b)

Albinism

c)

Edema

d)

Pallor

8.

it is the complete or partial lack of melanin in the skin, hair, and eyes

a)

Vitiligo

b)

Albinism

c)

Edema

d)

Pallor

9.

it is the presence of ecess interstitial fluid and appears to be swollen, shiny, and taut and tends to blanch the skin color

a)

Vitiligo

b)

Albinism

c)

Edema

d)

Pallor

10.

it is most often indication of impaired venous circulation and in some cases reflects cardiac dysfunction or venous abnormalities

a)

Vitiligo

b)

Albinism

c)

Edema

d)

Pallor

11.

Refers to those that appear initially in response to some change in external or internal environment of the skin

a)

Primary skin lesions

b)

Secondary Skin lesions

12.

it is patch flat, unelevated change in color and is about 1 mm to 1 cm in size and have an irregular shape

a)

Macule

b)

Papule

c)

Plaque

d)

Pustule

13.

it is circumscribed, solid elevation od skin and is less than 1 cm

a)

Macule

b)

Papule

c)

Plaque

d)

Pustule

14.

it is elevated, solid, hard mass that extends deeper into the dermis than a papule

a)

Macule

b)

Papule

c)

Plaque

d)

Nodule and tumor

15.

it is a vesicle or bulla filled with pus

a)

pustule

b)

vesicle and bulla

c)

cyst

d)

wheal

16.

it is a circumscribed, round, or oval, thin translucent mass filled with serous fluid or blood

a)

pustule

b)

vesicle and bulla

c)

cyst

d)

wheal

17.

it is an elevated, encapsulated, fluid filled or semisolid mass arising from the subcutaneous tissue or dermis

a)

pustule

b)

vesicle and bulla

c)

cyst

d)

wheal

18.

it is a localized collection of edema fluid and is irregular in shape

a)

pustule

b)

vesicle and bulla

c)

cyst

d)

wheal

19.

Refers to those that do not appear initially but result from modifications such as chronicity, trauma, or infection of the primary lesion

a)

Primary skin lesions

b)

Secondary Skin lesions

20.

it is a translucent, dry, paper-like sometimes wrinkled skin surface resulting fro thinning or wasting of the skin due to loss of collagen and elastin

a)

atrophy

b)

erosion

c)

lichenification

d)

scales

21.

it is the wearing away of the superficial epidermis causing a moist, shallow depression

a)

atrophy

b)

erosion

c)

lichenification

d)

scales

22.

it is rough, thickened, hardened area of epidermis resulting from chronic irritation such as scratching or rubbing

a)

atrophy

b)

erosion

c)

lichenification

d)

scales

23.

it is the shedding flakes of greasy, keratinized skin tissue

a)

atrophy

b)

erosion

c)

lichenification

d)

scales

24.

it is dry blood serum or pus left on the skin surface when vesicles or pustulates burst

a)

crust

b)

ulcer

c)

fissure

d)

scar

25.

it is deep, irregularly shaped area of skin extending into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue

a)

crust

b)

ulcer

c)

fissure

d)

scar

26.

it is the linear crack with sharp edges, extending into the dermis

a)

crust

b)

ulcer

c)

fissure

d)

scar

27.

it is flat, irregular area of connective tissue left after a lesion or wound has healed

a)

crust

b)

ulcer

c)

fissure

d)

scar

28.

it is elevated, irregular, darkened area f excess scar tissues caused by excessive collagen formation during healing

a)

crust

b)

ulcer

c)

fissure

d)

keloid

29.

it is the linear erosion

a)

crust

b)

excoriation

c)

fissure

d)

keloid

30.

it is a serpentine tunnel made by scabied ite in stratum corneum

a)

burrow

b)

comedone

c)

milium

d)

telengiectasia

31.

it is a tiny plug resent at opening of hair follicle formed by keration and sebum

a)

burrow

b)

comedone

c)

milium

d)

telengiectasia

32.

it is a tiny superficial cyst with epidermal lining and are seen on face at periorbital region

a)

burrow

b)

comedone

c)

milium

d)

telengiectasia

33.

it is visible dilation of capillaries of the skin which blanch on pressure

a)

burrow

b)

comedone

c)

milium

d)

telengiectasia

34.

equipments in assessing the skin are

a)

millimeter rules

b)

clean gloves

c)

magnifying glass

d)

stethoscope

35.

type of hair which is short, fine, inconspicious and relatively unpigmented

a)

vellus hair

b)

terminal hair

36.

type of hair which is coarser, thicker, more conspicuous and usually pigmented

a)

vellus hair

b)

terminal hair

37.

method of hair assessment are

a)

inspection

b)

palpation

c)

auscultation

d)

percussion

38.

loss of hair

a)

alopecia

b)

protein deficiency (kwashiorkor)

c)

hypothyroidism

d)

hyperthyroidism

39.

color of hair is reddish or bleach

a)

alopecia

b)

protein deficiency (kwashiorkor)

c)

hypothyroidism

d)

hyperthyroidism

40.

causs thin and brittle hair or sparse hair

a)

alopecia

b)

protein deficiency (kwashiorkor)

c)

hypothyroidism

d)

hyperthyroidism

41.

causes fine, silky hair

a)

alopecia

b)

protein deficiency (kwashiorkor)

c)

hypothyroidism

d)

hyperthyroidism

42.

it is clearly demarcated round or oval patches of hair loss, usually affecting young adults and children

a)

alopecia areata

b)

trichotillomania

c)

tinea capitis

43.

it is hair loss from pulling, plucking, or twisting hair

a)

alopecia areata

b)

trichotillomania

c)

tinea capitis

44.

it is round scaling patches of alopecia where hairs are broken off close to the surface of the scalp; usually caused by fungal infection from trichophyton tonsurans from humans

a)

alopecia areata

b)

trichotillomania

c)

tinea capitis

45.

equipment used in assessing the hair

a)

millimeter rules

b)

clean gloves

c)

flashlight

46.

it is small pieces of dead skin in a person's hair

a)

dandruff

b)

psoriasis

c)

folliculitis

d)

seborrheic dermatitis

47.

it is pink scaly plaues with a charactristic silvery scal and can be itchy, hurt, crust up and bleed

a)

dandruff

b)

psoriasis

c)

folliculitis

d)

seborrheic dermatitis

48.

it is inflammation of hair follicle caused by bacteria, heavy conditioner, hair dye, excessive sweating and irritation

a)

dandruff

b)

psoriasis

c)

folliculitis

d)

seborrheic dermatitis

49.

it is most common scalp condition which caused by a yeast called malassezia

a)

dandruff

b)

psoriasis

c)

folliculitis

d)

seborrheic dermatitis

50.

it is marble or grape sized, fluid filled sacs than can feel when you comb or brush

a)

alopecia

b)

cyst

c)

ringworm

d)

hirsutism

51.

it is the abnormal growth of hair on a person's face and body especially on a woman

a)

alopecia

b)

cyst

c)

ringworm

d)

hirsutism

52.

what is the shape and angle between the nails and its base

a)

convex; 160 degrees

b)

concave; 160 degrees

c)

convex; 180 degrees

d)

concave; 180 degrees

53.

the color of the nail is an indication of

a)

blood oxygenation

b)

blood deoxygenation

54.

it is a superficial infection of the proximal and lateral folds adjacent to the nail plate causing the nail folds to be red, swollen and tender

a)

paronychia

b)

clubbing of the fingers

c)

onycholysis

d)

terry's nails

55.

it is clinically bulbous swelling of the soft tissue at the nail base, with an angle of 180 degrees or more and the nail bed feels spongy or floating

a)

paronychia

b)

clubbing of the fingers

c)

onycholysis

d)

terry's nails

56.

it is a painless separation of the whitened opaque nail plate from the pinker translucent nail bed

a)

paronychia

b)

clubbing of the fingers

c)

onycholysis

d)

terry's nails

57.

nail plate turns white with ground-glass appearance, a distal band of reddish brown, and obliteration of the lunula

a)

paronychia

b)

clubbing of the fingers

c)

onycholysis

d)

terry's nails

58.

trauma to the nails is commonly followed by nonuniform white spots that grow slowly out with the nail

a)

white spots (leukonychia)

b)

transverse white bands (mees' lines)

c)

transverse linear depression (beau's lines)

d)

pitting

59.

usually bilateral, resulting from temporary disruption of proximal nail growth from systemic illness

a)

white spots (leukonychia)

b)

transverse white bands (mees' lines)

c)

transverse linear depression (beau's lines)

d)

pitting

60.

arising from the disrupted matrix of the proximal nail and varies in width and move distally as the nail grows out

a)

white spots (leukonychia)

b)

transverse white bands (mees' lines)

c)

transverse linear depression (beau's lines)

d)

pitting

61.

it is the spoon shape in which the nail curves upward from the nail bed which may be seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia

a)

white spots (leukonychia)

b)

transverse white bands (mees' lines)

c)

transverse linear depression (beau's lines)

d)

koilonychias

62.

it is the complete absence of the nail

a)

melanonychia

b)

anonychia

c)

racket nail

d)

koilonychias

63.

flattened and expanded nails and is a sign of secondary siphilis

a)

melanonychia

b)

anonychia

c)

racket nail

d)

koilonychias

64.

brown color in nail plate

a)

melanonychia

b)

anonychia

c)

racket nail

d)

koilonychias

65.

delayed return of pink or usual color of the nails during blanch test of capillary refill may indicate what

a)

circulatory impairment

b)

circulatory enhancement

66.

a normal head size is referred to as

a)

cephalic

b)

normocephalic

c)

occipital

d)

macrocephalic

67.

defined as the rounded, bony case enclosing and protecting the brain

a)

cranium

b)

facial bones

c)

sinuses

68.

serve as the resonance chambers and help to reduce the total weight of the skull

a)

cranium

b)

facial bones

c)

sinuses

69.

consist of 14 bones that help to form the nasal cavity and also provide numerous attachment sites for important muscles that control facial expressions and move the jaw

a)

cranium

b)

facial bones

c)

sinuses

70.

it cqn cause exopthalmos, a potrusion of the eyeballs with elevation of the upper eyelids resulting in a startled or staring expression

a)

hyperthyroidism

b)

hypothyroidism

c)

moon face

71.

it is also called myxedema which can cause a dry, puffy face with dry skin and coarse features and thinning of scalp hair and eyebrows

a)

hyperthyroidism

b)

hypothyroidism

c)

moon face

72.

a round face with reddened cheeks that is caused by increased adrenal hormone production or administration of steroids

a)

hyperthyroidism

b)

hypothyroidism

c)

moon face

73.

how often should people under age 40 undergo eyes check up

a)

every 3 to 5 years

b)

every 2 to 4 years

c)

every 1 year

d)

every 6 months

74.

how often should people above age 40 undergo eyes check up

a)

every 3 to 5 years

b)

every 2 years

c)

every 1 year

d)

every 6 months

75.

what are the equipments used in assessing the eye and vision

a)

millimeter ruler

b)

penlight

c)

snellen or e chart

d)

opaque card

76.

how many involuntary blinks does an individual perform per minute

a)

15-30 involuntary blinks

b)

15-20 involuntary blinks

c)

10-20 involuntary blinks

d)

10-30 involuntary blinks

77.

it is a smooth, glistening and peach in color

a)

conjunctiva

b)

sclera

c)

cornea

78.

it is a smooth, glistening and blue and white color

a)

conjunctiva

b)

sclera

c)

cornea

79.

it is a transparent, smooth and moist

a)

conjunctiva

b)

sclera

c)

cornea

80.

pupils are equal in what size

a)

3 to 7 mm in diameter

b)

3 to 6 mm in diameter

c)

2 to 7 mm in diameter

d)

2 to 8 mm in diameter

81.

normal response of the eye when shined under a penlight

a)

it will constrict

b)

it will dilate

c)

nothing will happen

82.

It is the assessment of the CN III, IV, and VI via the pupils

a)

PERRLA

b)

Snellen Test

c)

Capillary refill

83.

at what angle peripheral objects normally seen

a)

90 degrees

b)

60 degrees

c)

160 degrees

d)

180 degrees

84.

visual acuity is recorded as

a)

s---c

b)

c----c

c)

v----c

d)

v-----a

85.

abnormal finding of vision on Snellen-type chart

a)

the numerator is above 40

b)

the denominator is above 40

c)

20/20

d)

the numerator is 20 and denominator is 10

86.

what are the three types of eye charts available to test visual acuity

a)

snellen standard chart

b)

preschool children's chart

c)

snellen e chart

d)

school-aged children's chart

87.

how far should the client be under visual acuity test

a)

15 inches

b)

14 inches

c)

16 inches

d)

13 inches

88.

also known as nearsightedness that have diminished distance vision

a)

myopia

b)

hyperopia

c)

presbyopia

d)

astigmatism

89.

also known as farsightedness that have diminished near vision

a)

myopia

b)

hyperopia

c)

presbyopia

d)

astigmatism

90.

it is the loss of elasticity of the lens and thus loss of ability to see close objects; it usually begins at age 45

a)

myopia

b)

hyperopia

c)

presbyopia

d)

astigmatism

91.

it is the uneven curvature of the cornea that prevents horizontal and vertical rays from focusing on the retina

a)

myopia

b)

hyperopia

c)

presbyopia

d)

astigmatism

92.

inflammation of the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

dacyocyctitis

c)

hordeolum

d)

iritis

93.

inflammation of the lacrimal sac manifested by tearing and a discharge from the nasolacrimal duct

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

dacryocystitis

c)

hordeolum

d)

iritis

94.

also called sty and characterized by redness, swelling, and tenderness of the hair follicle and glands that empathy at that edge of the eyelids

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

dacryocystitis

c)

hordeolum

d)

iritis

95.

inflammation of the iris caused by local or systemic infectious and results in pain, tearing, and photophobia

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

dacryocystitis

c)

hordeolum

d)

iritis

96.

also alled hematomas which are black eyes resulting from injury

a)

contusions

b)

cataracts

c)

glaucoma

d)

ptosis

97.

may occur in infants due to a malformation of the lens if the mother contracted rubella in the first trimester of pregnancy

a)

contusions

b)

cataracts

c)

glaucoma

d)

ptosis

98.

it is the most frequent cause of blindness in people over age of 40 although it can occur at younger ages

a)

contusions

b)

cataracts

c)

glaucoma

d)

ptosis

99.

also called eversion, an out turning of the eyelid

a)

ectropion

b)

entropion

c)

mydriasis

d)

miosis

e)

anisocoria

100.

also called inversion, an inturning of the eyelid usually associated with scarring injuries or the aging process

a)

ectropion

b)

entropion

c)

mydriasis

d)

miosis

e)

anisocoria

101.

it is enlarged pupils that may indicate injury or glaucoma or result from certain drugs

a)

ectropion

b)

entropion

c)

mydriasis

d)

miosis

e)

anisocoria

102.

it is constricted pupils that may indicate an inflammation of the iris

a)

ectropion

b)

entropion

c)

mydriasis

d)

miosis

e)

anisocoria

103.

it is the unequal pupils that result from a central nervous system disorder

a)

ectropion

b)

entropion

c)

mydriasis

d)

miosis

e)

anisocoria

104.

what is the normal size of the ears

a)

4-10 cm

b)

4-11 cm

c)

4-8 cm

d)

5-10 cm

105.

it is the result of interrupted transmission of sound waves through the outer and middle ear structure

a)

conductive hear loss

b)

sensorineural hearing loss

c)

mixed hearing loss

106.

it is the result of damage to the inner ear, the auditory nerve, or the hearing center in the brain

a)

conductive hear loss

b)

sensorineural hearing loss

c)

mixed hearing loss

107.

it is the combination of conduction and sensorineural loss

a)

conductive hear loss

b)

sensorineural hearing loss

c)

mixed hearing loss

108.

equipment used in assessing ears and hearing

a)

otoscope

b)

stethoscope

c)

snellen chart

d)

pen light

109.

what is the normal color of the ears when examine under an otoscope?

a)

pearly gray color

b)

brown color

c)

peach to brown color

d)

dark gray color

110.

test used when the client has difficulty hearing

a)

watch tick test

b)

tuning fork test

c)

weber's test

d)

rinne test tuning

111.

it is acutely inflamed, tender, and weeping freely

a)

otitis externa

b)

exostosis

c)

otitis media

d)

polyp

112.

it is the abnormal growth of bone within the ear

a)

otitis externa

b)

exostosis

c)

otitis media

d)

polyp

113.

it is the inflammation of the middle ear characterized by the accumulation of infected fluid n the middle ear

a)

otitis externa

b)

exostosis

c)

otitis media

d)

polyp

114.

what are the equipments used in assessing the nose and sinuses

a)

nasal speculum

b)

flashlight/penlight

c)

otoscope

d)

millimeter ruler

115.

how many tooth does an adult have

a)

30

b)

31

c)

32

d)

33

116.

it is the largest salivary gland that empties throught the stensen's duct opposite the second molar

a)

parotid gland

b)

submandibular gland

c)

sublingual salivary gland

117.

it empties through Wharton's duct which s situated on either side of the frenulum on the floor of the mouth

a)

parotid gland

b)

submandibular gland

c)

sublingual salivary gland

118.

it lies on the floor of the mouth and has numerous openings

a)

parotid gland

b)

submandibular gland

c)

sublingual salivary gland

119.

what are the equipments used in assessing the mouth and oropharynx

a)

clean gloves

b)

tongue depressor

c)

2x2 gauze pads

d)

penlight

120.

The tonsils are behind the tonsillar pillars which are considered normal

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 2

c)

Grade 3

d)

Grade 4

121.

The tonsils are between the pillars and the uvula

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 2

c)

Grade 3

d)

Grade 4

122.

The tonsils touch the uvula

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 2

c)

Grade 3

d)

Grade 4

123.

One or both tonsils extend to the midline of the oropharynx

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 2

c)

Grade 3

d)

Grade 4