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WorksheetsEvolution Final (practice)
Total questions: 111
Worksheet time: 56mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The study of patterns in the geographic distribution of species is called
a)
diversity
b)
biogeography
c)
ecology
d)
natural history
e)
environmentalism
2.
The study of the body plans and structures among groups of organisms is called
a)
embryology
b)
molecular archeology
c)
evolution
d)
comparative morphology
e)
composition
3.
Some organisms have structures with no apparent function, although they resemble functional structures in other organisms. For example, snakes have the remnants of bones for legs (but no legs), and humans have a tailbone (but no tail). Such structures are referred to as
a)
trace fossils
b)
vestigial
c)
artificial
d)
variable
e)
mutations
4.
The similarity between the bones in the arm of a human and the bones in the wing of a bat are due to their inheritance from a common ancestor. Such structures are said to be
a)
analogous
b)
homologous
c)
mutations
d)
uniformitarity
e)
coevolutionary
5.
“Differential survival and reproduction among individuals of a population that vary in details of shared, inherited traits” is a formal definition of
a)
speciation
b)
biogeography
c)
natural selection
d)
fitness
e)
comparative biology
6.
If mutation introduces a new dominant allele (M) into a population that previously only had one allele (m) for that gene, which of the following is mostly like to occur?
a)
Because it is dominant, the M allele will gradually increase in frequency over time
b)
Because it is dominant, the M allele will rapidly increase in frequency over time
c)
Because it is a mutation, natural selection will remove M over time
d)
The frequency of M will remain constant over time, as predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg model
e)
The frequency of the new allele may increase or decrease over time, depending on its effect on fitness
7.
The idea that the history of the natural world can best be understood by assuming that gradual, repetitive processes have shaped the Earth over great spans of time is called the theory of
a)
evolution
b)
natural selection
c)
catastrophism
d)
gradualism
e)
uniformitarianism
8.
This method of fossilization occurs when dissolved minerals fill up the space inside cells of plants and animal, causing the remains to be “petrified.”
a)
amber
b)
impression fossil
c)
permineralization
d)
pleiomorphism
e)
phylogenization
9.
The place Darwin visited on his trip around the world that had the greatest impact on his thinking was
a)
The Canary Islands
b)
Africa
c)
The Hawaiian Islands
d)
The Galapagos Islands
e)
Brazil
10.
An individual that has two different alleles for a particular gene is said to be
a)
homozygous
b)
heterotropic
c)
haplo-diploid
d)
heterozygous
e)
homotropic
11.
The four different blood types (A, B, AB, and O) are determined by three different alleles for a single gene. Which of the following terms best describes this occurrence of multiple alleles in a population?
a)
phenotypic plasticity
b)
independent assortment
c)
polymorphism
d)
dimorphism
e)
population genetics
12.
When an individual has three or more copies of each and every chromosome, that individual is said to be
a)
aneuploid
b)
diploid
c)
polyploid
d)
redundant
e)
supergenetic
13.
In a population of 1000 axolotls, 450 are heterozygous (Aa) for a particular gene. What is the genotype frequency for the heterozygotes?
a)
0.35
b)
0.7
c)
0.45
d)
0.5
e)
Need additional information to determine
14.
In a population of 1000 penguins, 400 are homozygous dominant (AA) and 200 are homozygous recessive (aa). What is the genotype frequency for heterozygotes in the current population?
a)
0.35
b)
0.4
c)
0.5
d)
0.2
e)
Need additional information to determine
15.
If the frequency of a recessive allele is 50 percent, what percentage of the population is predicted to be heterozygous carriers?
a)
50
b)
10
c)
25
d)
75
e)
80
16.
If the population consists of 1 million diploid individuals with genotypes AA, Aa, and aa, what is the total number of alleles in the population?
a)
1 million
b)
2 million
c)
~333 thousand
d)
500000
e)
Need additional information to determine
17.
For a particular gene with two alleles, if 3% of the alleles are recessive, what proportion of the population (approximately, on a scale of 0 to 1) is predicted to be heterozygous carriers? [You can use a calculator]
a)
0.03
b)
0.06
c)
0.1
d)
0.6
e)
1
18.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium equation, what does p2 represent?
a)
the predicted genotype frequency for individuals that are homozygous for allele 1 (for example, AA)
b)
the rate of evolution
c)
the mutation rate
d)
the allele frequency
e)
the predicted genotype frequency for the heterozygotes in the next generation
19.
After studying a population of pill bugs over a period of 10 years, we determine that the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a particular gene. If so, which of the following statements must be true?
a)
Mutation must have occurred in that gene
b)
Natural selection must have occurred
c)
The population is evolving
d)
The population is not evolving
e)
Gene flow must have occurred
20.
This is a measure of all of the species living in a defined region in a specified interval of time.
a)
Flora
b)
Fauna
c)
Systematics
d)
Biodiversity
e)
Ecosystemic
21.
This refers to phenotypic variation that is the result of environmental variation.
a)
Plesiomorphy
b)
Reaction norm
c)
Synapomorphy
d)
Pleiotropy
e)
Exaptation
22.
Scientist credited with gradualism, uniformitarianism, and the law of uniformity.
a)
George Cuvier
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Lyell
d)
John Watson
e)
James Moriarty
23.
Scientist credited with the concept of catastrophism, including extinctions due to catastrophic geological events.
a)
George Cuvier
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Lyell
d)
John Watson
e)
James Moriarty
24.
Any trait that enhances an individual’s fitness relative to individuals without the trait.
a)
Exaptation
b)
Mutation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Neutral Trait
e)
Agradation
25.
From the fossil record, this is a transitional form between terrestrial mammals and whales.
a)
Archaeopterix
b)
Pakicetus
c)
Tiktaalik
d)
Sahelanthropus
e)
Australopithecus
26.
From the fossil record, this is a transitional form between dinosaurs and birds.
a)
Archaeopterix
b)
Pakicetus
c)
Tiktaalik
d)
Sahelanthropus
e)
Australopithecus
27.
An individual’s ability to survive and reproduce, relative to other individuals in the same population.
a)
Evolution
b)
Phylogenetics
c)
Parsimony
d)
Fitness
e)
Genetics
28.
From the fossil record, this is a transitional form between lob-finned fish the tetrapods (4-legged animals).
a)
Archaeopterix
b)
Pakicetus
c)
Tiktaalik
d)
Sahelanthropus
e)
Australopithecus
29.
English naturalist who, like Darwin, independently conceived of a hypothesis of evolution by natural selection.
a)
Alfred Russel Wallace
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Buster Keaton
d)
Charles Lyell
e)
George Cuvier
30.
This is a trait that was originally selected for one function, and later co-opted to serve a different function.
a)
Mutagen
b)
Transformant
c)
Adaptation
d)
Exaptation
e)
Paradigm Shift
31.
Austrian biologist who demonstrated that inheritance is “particulate” rather than blending.
a)
Alfred Russel Wallace
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Buster Keaton
d)
Charles Lyell
e)
George Cuvier
32.
What is a phylogeny?
a)
An approach to classification that uses shared, derived character states
b)
The evolutionary relationships among a group of organisms
c)
A taxon containing all the descendents of a common ancestor
d)
An ingredient in Baklava
e)
A population of individuals that cannot interbreed
33.
If a group is monophyletic, then:
a)
it contains only one phylum
b)
it cannot be a natural group
c)
it contains all the descendants of a unique ancestor
d)
all of the species belong to the same genus
e)
all of the species belong to the same family
34.
“Leaf arrangement” and “alternate, opposite, or whorled” are examples of:
a)
convergent evolution
b)
symplesiomorphy
c)
homoplasy
d)
plant mutations
e)
a character and character states
35.
Clades are defined by shared, derived characters. In cladistics, what is the term for a derived character that is only found in one species?
a)
apomorphy
b)
synapomorphy
c)
symplesiomorphy
d)
autapomorphy
e)
homoplasy
36.
In phylogenetics, the outgroup method is used to determine:
a)
the ingroup
b)
which ingroup species are most similar to the outgroup
c)
which character states are ancestral (plesiomorphic)
d)
which species should be included in the analysis.
e)
who is the father
37.
The ultimate source of new alleles in populations is
a)
genetic drift
b)
gene flow
c)
inheritance
d)
natural selection
e)
mutation
38.
Each species is given a two-part scientific name (for example, Spongiforma squarepantsii). The first part of the name also indicates the ________________ to which the species belongs.
a)
Family
b)
Genus
c)
Phylum
d)
Rank
e)
Order
39.
When natural selection or random changes in allele frequencies cause all individuals in a population to be homozygous for one allele, this is called
a)
fixation
b)
genotype frequency
c)
recession
d)
mutagenesis
e)
allelopathy
40.
A drastic reduction in population size can bring about a dramatic change in allele frequencies. This pattern in nature is referred to as a
a)
fixation
b)
founder effect
c)
migration
d)
survival of the fittest
e)
bottleneck
41.
In the case where a physical barrier (such as a mountain range or ocean) results in no gene flow between populations, leading to genetic divergence and speciation, this pattern of speciation is called
a)
allopatric speciation
b)
parapatric speciation
c)
sympatric speciation
d)
temporal isolation
e)
genetic drift
42.
The process by which two new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the same geographic region is called
a)
allopatric speciation
b)
parapatric speciation
c)
sympatric speciation
d)
vicariance
e)
duplicity
43.
Polyploidy has apparently played a major role in the diversification of which one of the following groups?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Archaeans
c)
Animals
d)
Fungi
e)
Plants
44.
The shape of an evolutionary tree (i.e., branching order) is called the _______________.
a)
clade
b)
topology
c)
landscape
d)
topography
e)
topiary
45.
This is the term for a group of taxa defined by at least one synapomorphy; also: a branch of an evolutionary tree; a lineage.
a)
taxon
b)
outgroup
c)
clade
d)
stipe
e)
frond
46.
This is a distantly related taxon with a known evolutionary relationship to the taxon being studied; used to root phylogenetic trees and polarize character state changes.
a)
rhizoid
b)
archaeplast
c)
remnant
d)
outgroup
e)
paradigm
47.
This is an explanation of speciation that involves the movement of individuals across a pre-existing barrier.
a)
vacariance
b)
dispersal
c)
hybridization
d)
aneuploidy
e)
polyploidy
48.
An explanation of speciation that involves the development of a new barrier, separating populations.
a)
vacariance
b)
dispersal
c)
hybridization
d)
aneuploidy
e)
polyploidy
49.
The presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell, for example a human cell with 45 or 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.
a)
mutation
b)
karyotype
c)
aneuploidy
d)
euploidy
e)
paraploidy
50.
According to evidence gathered through the scientific method, our universe arose following a “Big Bang” __________ years ago, and the Earth formed approximately __________ years ago.
a)
100 thousand, 10 thousand
b)
13.8 million, 4.5 million
c)
100 million, 10 million
d)
13.8 billion, 4.5 billion
e)
100 billion, 10 billion
51.
What is a protobiont?
a)
a living microorganism that is beneficial to its host organism
b)
an aggregation of abiotically-produced molecules that maintain an internal chemical environment and exhibit some of the properties associated with life
c)
a primitive eukaryote
d)
a prokaryotic cell living symbiotically within another prokaryotic cell
e)
a cell that is part prokaryote, part machine
52.
Based on fossil evidence, the first prokaryotic cells arose approximately __________ years ago.
a)
13.7 billion
b)
3.8 billion
c)
100 million
d)
4.6 million
e)
2 billion
53.
Based on the fossil evidence, what major event took place 2.5 billion years ago?
a)
The origin of chloroplasts
b)
The origin of eukaryotes
c)
The origin of the oxygen-producing form of photosynthesis
d)
The origin of aerobic respiration
e)
The origin of the fossil evidence
54.
This refers to the emergence of life from a nonliving precursor.
a)
Evolution
b)
Pangenesis
c)
endosymbiosis
d)
Probiotic
e)
Abiogenesis
55.
This is the name giving to the common ancestor of all currently extant life.
a)
Root
b)
eToL
c)
LUCA
d)
LUCY
e)
LEIA
56.
According to this hypothesis, life arose in an oxygen-free environment, when UV light and lightening converted atmospheric gases into organic molecules.
a)
phylogenetic event horizon
b)
parsimony
c)
prebiotic soup hypothesis
d)
protocell hypothesis
e)
Murchison hypothesis
57.
Which of the following best characterizes the “phylogenetic event horizon”?
a)
This is as far back in time that we can see in the history of life.
b)
This is the period in the history of life in which phylogenetic methods became possible.
c)
This is a point in the history of Earth when the first cells arose.
d)
This is the event to produced abiogenesis.
e)
All life is built from one or more cells
58.
Which of the following scientists proposed the “Prebiotic Soup Hypothesis”?
a)
Oparin
b)
Haldane
c)
Urey
d)
Both Oparin and Haldane
e)
Both Urey and Haldane
59.
What was the result of the Miller-Urey experiments?
a)
Life emerged from non-life
b)
amino acids emerged from a mixture of simple chemicals
c)
RNA was formed from simple chemicals
d)
mice and flies emerged from rotten food
e)
They found a new method to produce soup
60.
What is the significance of the Murchison meteorite?
a)
It showed that the molecules of life can form in space.
b)
It proves how the dinosaurs died
c)
It provided the energy for abiogenesis.
d)
It proves that life of earth started in space.
e)
It proves that early Earth had a different atmosphere
61.
This is the term for RNA molecules that function as enzymes.
a)
ribosomes
b)
micelles
c)
vesicles
d)
ribozymes
e)
cofactors
62.
The living-together of two organisms, such that one takes up permanent residence in the other, is called…
a)
parasitism
b)
ecological niche modeling
c)
endosymbiosis
d)
mutualism
e)
abiogenesis
63.
The earliest known single-celled eukaryotes arose around ________ years ago, and the earlies multicellular eukaryotes arose around ________ years ago.
a)
3.8 billion, 2.1 billion
b)
2.1 billion, 1.2 billion
c)
3.8 million, 1.2 million
d)
13.8 billion, 4.5 billion
e)
1 billion, 1 million
64.
Organisms that are built out of two or more different ancestral organisms are said to have
a)
archaeplastids ancestry
b)
complementary ancestry
c)
composite ancestry
d)
enigmatic ancestry
e)
homoplastic ancestry
65.
Which of the following structures most likely arose through an enfolding of the plasma membrane?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplasts
c)
nucleus
d)
cell wall
e)
ribosomes
66.
Which scientist is responsible for the Endosymbiotic Theory?
a)
Stanley Miller
b)
J.B.S. Haldane
c)
Lynn Margulis
d)
Rosalind Franklin
e)
Barbara McClintock
67.
Which likely arose first, mitochondria or chloroplasts?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplasts
c)
neither
d)
both
e)
all of the above
68.
The evidence suggests that multicellularity arose independently in fungi, animals, plants, and other lineages. Therefore, this is an example of _______________.
a)
Parsimony
b)
Cladistics
c)
horizontal gene transfer
d)
endosymbiosis
e)
convergent evolution
69.
Which model best explains the origin of multicellularity?
a)
Endosymbiosis
b)
Abiogenesis
c)
“Coming Together” model
d)
“Staying Together” model
e)
Hypercycle model
70.
This refers to the complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism.
a)
karyotype
b)
homologous
c)
proteome
d)
genome
e)
nucleoid
71.
The refers to the observation that the complexity of an organism does not necessary correlate with the size (in base pairs) of the genome; some organisms that have relatively simple phenotypes might have genomes that are larger than organisms that appear more complex.
a)
Synteny
b)
Hypercyclicity
c)
Homoplasy
d)
G-value paradox
e)
C-value paradox
72.
What does “C” stand for in “C-value paradox”?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
complexity
c)
constant
d)
Cronn
e)
consistency
73.
The first genome to be sequenced was from this type of organism.
a)
Bacteria
b)
Archaean
c)
Fungi
d)
Virus
e)
Human
74.
What type of organism is a bacteriophage?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Prion
d)
Ribozyme
e)
Archaean
75.
Which of the following best explains why some organisms have larger genomes than others, despite similar degrees of complexity?
a)
Because they have more non-coding DNA.
b)
Because they are photosynthetic
c)
Because they are anaerobic
d)
Because they are Archaeans
e)
Because they are parasites
76.
This is the name for a self-replicating genetic unit that can move or copy itself within a genome.
a)
Transposable elements
b)
prions
c)
centromere
d)
telomere
e)
exon
77.
Despite seemingly large differences in organismal complexity, multicellular eukaryotes tend to have very similar numbers of genes. This is referred to as the
a)
C-value paradox
b)
Pleiotropy
c)
G-value paradox
d)
Parsimony
e)
Synteny
78.
The microscopic nematode Caenorhabditis elegans is composed of only a thousand cells but has about the same number of genes as a human. This is an example of the
a)
G-value paradox
b)
Endosymbiosis
c)
Multicellular bias
d)
Totepotency
e)
Synteny
79.
These are regulatory proteins that bind to DNA and influence gene expression.
a)
Ribozymes
b)
Transmission factors
c)
Translation factors
d)
Transcription factors
e)
Prescription factors
80.
Viral genomes said to be complex, because they may be:
a)
DNA or RNA
b)
single or double stranded
c)
positive-sense or negative sense
d)
linear or circular
e)
all of these answers
81.
How many genes are in a typical influenza virus?
a)
11
b)
111
c)
1100
d)
11000
e)
20000
82.
How is it possible that viruses can produce more proteins than they have genes?
a)
by starting and stopping in different places in the gene
b)
by using host genes
c)
by creating new genes from scratch
d)
by collaborating with other viruses
e)
by using proteins as genes
83.
This refers to the transfer of genetic material from one organism to another that is not its offspring.
a)
hybridization
b)
phagocytosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
exocytosis
e)
Horizontal gene transfer
84.
This is the term for an RNA-protein complex that catalyzes the removal of introns from nuclear pre-mRNA.
a)
spliceosomes
b)
Transcription factor
c)
ribosomes
d)
ribozymes
e)
lysosomes
85.
These are the non-coding portions of a gene that are removed before translation.
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
promotors
e)
enhancers
86.
This is the term for a viral genome inserted into a bacterial chromosome; these can be excised to initiate viral replication.
a)
plasmid
b)
prophage
c)
bacteriophage
d)
spliceosome
e)
transcription factor
87.
This is an extra bit of DNA found in bacterial cells, also described as circular extrachromosomal genetic elements, and containing some of the genes used by bacteria.
a)
plasmids
b)
prophages
c)
ribozymes
d)
transposons
e)
lysosome
88.
This is the name for the process by which a donor bacterium passes a copy of a plasmid to a recipient bacterium.
a)
Transduction
b)
conjugation
c)
transformation
d)
recombination
e)
cytoplasmic streaming
89.
This refers to the similarity in the order of the genes in different organisms.
a)
synteny
b)
homeostasis
c)
homeology
d)
plesiomorphy
e)
apomorphy
90.
What is the term given to the idea that living organisms could arise from nonliving components?
a)
natural selection
b)
evolution
c)
preformation
d)
collective combination
e)
spontaneous generation
91.
Which of the following molecules was apparently uncommon in the early Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
carbon dioxide (CO₂)
b)
nitrogen (N₂ )
c)
oxygen (O₂)
d)
methane (CH4)
e)
hydrogen (H₂)
92.
These organisms make up a vast majority of our family tree and may have been the only organisms on Earth for about the first 2 billion years of the history of life.
a)
viruses
b)
RNA molecules
c)
prokaryotes
d)
insects
e)
amoeba-like organisms
93.
Primates include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
lagomorphs
b)
humans
c)
apes
d)
monkeys
e)
lemurs
94.
The ancestor of all primates most likely resembled the modern-day organism called a/an
a)
marsupial
b)
monotreme
c)
tree shrew
d)
echidna
e)
loris
95.
All of the following are examples of prosimians EXCEPT
a)
bonobos
b)
lorises
c)
tarsiers
d)
pottos
e)
aye-ayes
96.
The fossil organisms called Proconsul and Dryopithecus are important because they most likely represent the direct ancestors of
a)
the genus Homo
b)
the genus Australopithecus
c)
monkeys and apes
d)
prosimians and anthropoids
e)
The great apes
97.
Primates have approximately 1000 genes associated with the nose, but only about 347 are still functional in humans. The rest are
a)
associated with the mouth
b)
polyploid
c)
recessive
d)
dominant
e)
pseudogenes
98.
Old World (OW) monkeys can be distinguished from New World monkeys because OW monkeys
a)
(a) have flat faces and prehensile tails
b)
(b) have long snouts and non-prehensile tails
c)
(c)are native to Central and South America
d)
Both A and C
e)
Both B and C
99.
The Great Apes includes
a)
(a) gibbons
b)
(b) old world monkeys
c)
(c) orangutans, gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans
d)
Both B and C
e)
Both A and C
100.
Based on molecular data, which pair of organisms are the most closely related?
a)
chimpanzees and humans
b)
chimpanzees and gorillas
c)
gorillas and humans
d)
orangutans and humans
e)
gorillas and orangutans
101.
Humans have 46 chromosomes, but chimpanzees and gorillas each have 48. Based on genetic evidence, the best explanation for this is that
a)
chimpanzees and gorillas are more closely related to each other than to humans
b)
humans completely lost one pair of chromosomes
c)
humans also have sex chromosomes
d)
in humans, the missing chromosomes can be found in mitochondria
e)
in the unique ancestor of humans, two chromosomes fused into one
102.
Among other things, scientists can determine whether a fossil human ancestor was bipedal by looking at the position of the ________________ in the skull.
a)
zygomatic arch
b)
foramen magnum
c)
eye sockets
d)
teeth
e)
crossbones
103.
Hominans (humans and their direct ancestors, including Australopithecines) first appeared around
a)
65 million years ago (mya)
b)
36 mya
c)
4-6 mya
d)
1 mya
e)
10000 years ago
104.
The first bipedal humans, which were probably the direct ancestors of the genus Homo, are placed in the genus
a)
Pan
b)
Felis
c)
Habilis
d)
Australopithecus
e)
Erectus
105.
Which of the following is the oldest (i.e., earliest) species of Homo?
a)
Homo erectus
b)
Homo neanderthalensis
c)
Homo habilis
d)
Homo floresiensis
e)
Homo australopithecus
106.
Which of the following species was the first to build fire, to use furs for clothing, and to migrate out of Africa?
a)
Homo erectus
b)
Homo neanderthalensis
c)
Homo habilis
d)
Homo floresiensis
e)
Homo australopithecus
107.
Anthropologists consider all of the following to be true of Homo neanderthalensis EXCEPT
a)
they made musical instruments
b)
they buried their dead with medicinal herbs
c)
they interbred with Homo sapiens
d)
they lived in Southern Africa
e)
their brains were as large or larger than modern humans
108.
Which of the following events occurred approximately 65 million years ago?
a)
The evolution of the first terrestrial mammals
b)
The Big Bang
c)
The origin of bipedal hominids
d)
The origin of placental mammals
e)
The origin of primates
109.
The Toumei fossil (Sahelanthropus tchadensis) is estimated to be around 7 million years old and has a relatively small cranial capacity. Scientists suggest that this fossil represents
a)
a possible common ancestor of humans and chimps
b)
the earliest humans to have hope and other emotions
c)
proof that humans evolved from monkeys
d)
proof that humans were brachiators
e)
a missing link between humans and gorillas
110.
Modern humans (Homo sapiens) first appear in the fossil record approximately __________ years ago.
a)
6 million
b)
4 million
c)
2 million
d)
195000
e)
10000
111.
According to this now-rejected hypothesis, H. erectus dispersed to various regions (Africa, Asia, Europe), and these populations evolved independently into H. sapiens.
a)
Replacement model
b)
Multiregional model
c)
Out of Africa model
d)
Leaky Replacement model
e)
Diffusion model
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