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AP Human Geography project

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The area shown with the dark shading is best identified as

a)

a functional region

b)

a regional free-trade zone

c)

a stateless nation

d)

a special economic zone

2.

Local and regional autonomous governments and a separatist militia group have been established within the Basque region shown on the map. How do these local and regional governments compare with the national governments of Spain and France?

a)

Local and regional governments establish the foundations for new federal states within each of the larger independent states.

b)

Local and regional governments stabilize local communities, aligning the communities with the objectives of the larger independent states.

c)

Local and regional governments create the potential for conflict and act as a centrifugal force within the larger independent states.

d)

Local and regional governments strengthen the unitary systems of government within the larger independent states.

3.

South Sudan gained its independence in 2011, reshaping the boundaries of Sudan. Which of the following best explains the implications of the shaded area shown on the map in Darfur?

a)

Like South Sudan, Darfur has gained its independence and is now a sovereign nation-state.

b)

Devolution is likely in Sudan as the country is a multinational state with no distinct majority group.

c)

Darfur is a region of ethnic difference and political instability where devolution is likely.

d)

Devolution is likely in South Sudan as it is landlocked country with no distinct majority group.

4.

The map shows the world’s newest country, South Sudan, formerly part of Sudan, and the Islamic region of Darfur, which is seeking some level of political autonomy within Sudan. In comparison with the east-west divide between Darfur and the rest of Sudan, which of the following centrifugal forces led South Sudan to seek independence from Sudan?

a)

South Sudan wanted a larger share of productive oil resources located in Ethiopia and Eritrea.

b)

Sudan and South Sudan are home to one homogeneous nation in terms of religion and ethnicity.

c)

Sudan established a military presence in the region of South Sudan following a referendum vote, prompting a conflict.

d)

Sudan and South Sudan’s border is a transition zone between Africa’s Islamic northern region and the Christian and animist regions of sub-Saharan Africa.

5.

In 1993 Belgium divided much of its internal government into three semiautonomous regions. Based on the data shown in the map, which of the following best explains the political divisions within Belgium?

a)

Each region is separated from the others by physical barriers that impede communication and trade among regions.

b)

Regions are delineated based upon the percent of population that speaks French as a first or second language.

c)

Divisions are based on language, providing ethnic groups some self-governance and preserving Belgium as a federal state.

d)

The population is evenly divided between French speakers and Flemish speakers.

6.

Based on the map data, which of the following best explains a factor that has led to ethnic separatism in Belgium?

a)

A multilingual society has emerged, with several languages being spoken by the overall population.

b)

The populations of the three regions are not evenly balanced or equally distributed.

c)

Many who speak French as their first language also speak Flemish, but few people who speak Flemish as their first language also speak French.

d)

Many who speak Flemish as their first language also speak French, but few people who speak French as their first language also speak Flemish.

7.

Which of the following identifies the primary building blocks of the world political map shown?

a)

Nations

b)

Multinational states

c)

Independent states

d)

Multistate nations

8.

Based on the information shown in the map, Nigeria can be identified as a

a)

multinational state

b)

nation-state

c)

choke point

d)

multistate nation

9.

FALKLAND ISLANDS

United Kingdom

Name: Falkland Islands

Distance to the United Kingdom: 6,250 nautical miles

Dates of Control: 1765–1767, 1771–1774, 1833–1982, 1982 to present

Argentina

Name: Islas Malvinas

Distance to Argentina: 182 nautical miles

Dates of Control: 1770–1881 (as Spanish Viceroyalty of Río de la Plata), 1829–1831 (Argentina, onward), 1832–1833, three months in 1982

Source: Britannica.com

The Falkland Islands War took place in 1982 between Argentina and Great Britain, when Argentina’s military invaded the small British overseas territory in the South Atlantic Ocean. British forces reclaimed the islands after a short war.

Using the information shown, which of the following geographic principles explains the conflict in the Falkland Islands?

a)

Irredentism and the desire to form a nation-state

b)

Overlapping claims of sovereignty

c)

A political independence movement against the ruling colonial power

d)

The establishment of territorial seas

10.

Despite the rise of supranationalism in Europe from 1955 to 1993, the number of independent political entities increased. Based on a comparison of the two maps shown, which of the following processes occurred in Europe during that time period?

a)

Devolution of large states into smaller nation-states

b)

Cultural globalization reducing ethnic differences

c)

Redistricting the internal boundaries of federal states

d)

Territorial expansion of imperial states

11.

The geopolitical setting of which of the following countries can be explained by its membership in the Warsaw Pact during the Cold War and its location along the European shatterbelt?

a)

France

b)

Bulgaria

c)

Italy

d)

Belgium

12.

The map shows the Taiwan Strait. Which of the following best explains the global geopolitical significance of the Taiwan Strait?

a)

The Taiwan Strait is a cultural boundary that separates populations of Chinese people who speak different languages.

b)

The Taiwan Strait serves as a major international shipping route that serves large economies, such as South Korea, Japan, and the United States.

c)

The Taiwan Strait is a militarily strategic chokepoint that China and Taiwan claim as territory.

d)

The Taiwan Strait creates an obstacle to trade between Taiwan and China and hinders the region’s economy.

13.

Which of the following statements is helpful in explaining why Iran and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) are able to assert some control over the export of oil from the Persian Gulf oil-production region?

a)

Both Iran and the UAE have coastlines along the Arabian Sea and thus have the easiest access to global markets.

b)

Their location along the choke point of the Strait of Hormuz allows them to influence ship movement into and out of the Persian Gulf.

c)

Their close proximity to the large Asian markets of Japan and China give them an economic advantage over other OPEC countries.

d)

As the founding members of OPEC, they hold the largest influence over OPEC policies and decisions.

14.

The political boundaries of North Africa and the Middle East can best be described as the product of which of the following processes?

a)

Devolution

b)

Imperialism

c)

Self-determination

d)

Democratization

15.

Which of the following types of political boundaries best describe the border between the United States and Canada?

a)

Relict

b)

Militarized

c)

Geometric

d)

Open

16.

In locations such as the Caribbean Sea, international borders between island states are determined by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. These maritime boundaries can best be described as

a)

relict borders

b)

superimposed borders

c)

subsequent borders

d)

consequent borders

17.

Which of the following best explains the primary function of international political boundaries?

a)

Boundaries define national identity and encourage a patriotism that make local cultures recognizable.

b)

Boundaries limit international trade and improve regional economies within the country.

c)

Boundaries limit sovereignty and determine the extent of a state's power within the global political system.

d)

Boundaries promote international relations between neighboring states and encourage peace.

18.

The photograph shows guards at the Truce Village of Panmunjom within the demilitarized zone (DMZ) that divides the Korea Peninsula into North Korea and South Korea. The DMZ border was agreed upon as part of Korean Armistice Agreement at the end of the Korean War in 1953. Which of the following best explains the effect of the DMZ on the Korean Peninsula as a culture region?

a)

North and South Korea are divided into two distinct nations that have separate cultures and heritages.

b)

North and South Korea constitute one sovereign state that have two separate regional governments.

c)

The Korean people are divided into a multistate nation that has a common heritage and ethnicity.

d)

North Korea is a semiautonomous region of South Korea that has self-governance over its military.

19.

Residents of Maryland’s Third District could legally challenge the redistricting of the area shown on the map because they identify it as being

a)

a sovereign boundary created to promote the establishment of an independent state

b)

a maritime boundary that extends out into the waters of the Chesapeake Bay

c)

a gerrymandered boundary that guarantees a political party’s seat within the United States House of Representatives

d)

part of an autonomous region that limits the State of Maryland’s control over the district.

20.

Which of the following describes a typical spatial relationship between federal and unitary states?

a)

Federal states tend to be smaller than unitary states.

b)

Unitary states tend to be smaller than federal states.

c)

Unitary states tend to be more densely populated than federal states.

d)

Federal states are more likely to be landlocked than unitary states.

21.

Which of the following features is a common characteristic of unitary states?

a)

A primarily agricultural society

b)

Dispersed power centers

c)

Specific physical geographical features

d)

A strong central capital

22.

Which of the following describes a unitary state?

a)

An ethnically homogeneous state where all citizens identify as members of the same nation

b)

A state in which government decisions are made at the national level and applied uniformly across the state

c)

A state in which one leader and one party have complete political, economic, and social control

d)

A state that is geographically contiguous with no fragmented land areas separated from the rest of the state

23.

Which of the following statements accurately compares the processes of devolution and supranationalism that challenge the sovereignty of Canada?

a)

Centripetal forces are present in Quebec, whereas the free-trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico is a centrifugal force on a national level.

b)

Centripetal forces are present in Quebec, whereas the free-trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico challenges the Canadian government’s independence on a national level.

c)

Centrifugal forces are present in Quebec, whereas the free-trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico challenges the Canadian government’s independence on a national level.

d)

Centripetal forces are present in Quebec, whereas the free-trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico is a governance issue at the provincial scale.

24.

Which of the following technological examples is best used to compare the effects of local-scale and global-scale political challenges to state sovereignty?

a)

Laptop computers used by aid agencies in nation-building

b)

Social media Web sites supporting supranational organizations

c)

Internet filters restricting the spread of globalization

d)

Cell phone use weakening corrupt governments

25.

Which of the following is the best example of centrifugal forces operating at the local scale as compared to the national or international scale?

a)

A failed state

b)

Increased social equity

c)

A stateless nation

d)

Uneven development

26.

A typical grocery store in the United States may sell oranges grown primarily in California during part of the year and oranges grown primarily in South Africa during a different part of the year. Which of the following explains why oranges are available year-round in the United States?

a)

Grocery stores sell oranges that are grown in locations with similar climates but different growing seasons.

b)

Grocery stores sell oranges that are grown in locations with similar growing seasons but different climates.

c)

Customers have seasonal demands for different varieties of oranges.

d)

Different varieties of oranges are grown for different markets.

27.

Which of the following best explains the significance of a similarity among locations where olives, figs, grapes and lemons are grown?

a)

Extensive agriculture is practiced in a humid continental climate.

b)

Plantation agriculture is practiced in a tropical wet climate.

c)

Extensive agriculture is practiced in a tropical wet and dry climate.

d)

Intensive agriculture is practiced in a Mediterranean climate.

28.

Which of the following best explains the significance of similarities between the farming practices for apple orchards and grape vineyards?

a)

Both farming practices require considerable labor input because the fruit is picked by hand, making it a product of intensive agriculture.

b)

Both farming practices are used for tropical plantation crops grown on large estates with hired labor who plant and harvest crops.

c)

According to von Thünen, both farming practices occur in the outermost areas of agricultural land.

d)

According to land-rent theory, both farming practices are found on small farms and must be located close to markets.

29.

Which of the following best describes the survey system used in both locations shown?

a)

Long lot: nucleated linear settlements with all of the houses arranged along a road or river

b)

Circular rural settlements: a ring of houses that surround a central open space for keeping livestock

c)

Township and range: unit-block field patterns with dispersed farmsteads and occasional villages

d)

Metes and bounds: irregular field patterns with clustered farmsteads in river valleys.

30.

Which of the following correctly explains the relationship between wheat and its early hearth of domestication?

a)

Wheat was first domesticated in the foothills of the Himalayas because the tropical climate in the region is necessary to grow wheat.

b)

Wheat was first domesticated in the Yellow River valley because vast floodplains are the best places to grow wheat.

c)

Wheat was first domesticated in the Nile River valley because overharvesting of the wild form of wheat was causing a widespread famine.

d)

Wheat was first domesticated in Mesopotamia because of a favorable climate and a great diversity of wild grains that led to crossbreeding of seeds.

31.

Which of the following scenarios best explains the Columbian Exchange?

a)

Grain crops such as wheat, oats, and barley were introduced to Europe as a result of interaction with indigenous people in the Americas. Prior to this, the only significant grain crops grown by Europeans were rice and corn.

b)

Many new diseases were introduced to European colonizers when they began to explore the Americas. In particular, diseases like smallpox, influenza, and the measles decimated many of the early colonial populations.

c)

Domesticated animals such as cattle, horses, pigs, and chickens were introduced to the Americas by European colonizers. Prior to this, very few animals had been domesticated in the Americas.

d)

Crops such as potatoes and tomatoes were introduced to the Americas. Prior to European contact, these crops had only been grown in Europe: potatoes primarily in northern Europe and tomatoes primarily in southern Europe.

32.

Which of the following explains the prevalence of banana plantations in Central America?

a)

Bananas were first domesticated in Central America and were later cultivated to be exported to the United States and Canada.

b)

Bananas were first domesticated in Central America and then hybridized to grow in other climate zones around the world.

c)

Banana plants were brought to Central America from Southeast Asia to be grown closer to markets in the United States and Canada.

d)

Banana plants were brought to Central America from sub-Saharan Africa to be grown closer to markets in the United States and Canada.

33.

The images shown illustrate the differences in scale of production for two methods of producing thread. Which of the following best describes advances in the production of textiles during the Second Agricultural Revolution and the Industrial Revolution?

a)

The mechanization of agriculture led to increasing numbers of people entering the agricultural workforce and expanding the amount of thread produced by farmers.

b)

The conversion from manual thread spinning to an industrial processing approach led to increased demand for raw cotton in the agricultural sector.

c)

The hybridization of high-yield seeds led to an increase in production of cotton thread from the agricultural sector and more cotton fabric produced by manufacturers.

d)

The genetic engineering of desirable traits in wool-yielding animals led to increased production of wool thread from the agricultural sector and more woolen fabric produced by manufacturers.

34.

The Green Revolution led to an increase in food production in many places around the world, but there have been some negative consequences. Which of the following explains one of the negative consequences of the Green Revolution that would be of greater concern for people in developing countries than for people in more-developed countries?

a)

Runoff of agricultural chemicals into the local groundwater that pollutes water resources

b)

Excess production of grain products for which there is no market

c)

Increase in the acreage used for agriculture that affects the open space surrounding villages

d)

Collapse of the grain export market that results in farm foreclosures

35.

Which of the following best explains a negative economic consequence of the Green Revolution in less developed countries as compared to more developed countries?

a)

Farmers in less developed countries who had previously grown only one crop were forced to grow multiple crops, leading to increased production costs and fewer exports from less developed countries to more developed countries.

b)

The increased demand for fertilizer in more developed countries, which was required for the new crop varieties, led to fertilizer shortages in less developed countries.

c)

Because of the increased capital investment required to produce new crop varieties using technology that was pioneered in more developed countries, there was an increase in wealth disparity in many farming communities in less developed countries.

d)

The overuse of expanded irrigation systems resulted in flooding and damage to export crops in less developed countries, which led to higher food prices in more developed countries.

36.

Which of the following best compares a technological consequence of the Green Revolution in more developed and less developed countries?

a)

Farmers in more developed countries experienced a dramatic increase in agricultural exports because of the free grain seeds provided by governments of less developed countries.

b)

Farmers in less developed countries experienced increased profits from manufacturing and selling genetically modified seeds on the open market to more developed countries.

c)

Farmers in less developed countries experienced a decrease in water pollution through the use of chemical fertilizers first used in more developed countries.

d)

Farmers in less developed countries were able to increase their profits from growing and exporting high-yield grain to levels similar to those in more developed countries.

37.

Which of the following best explains how a wheat farmer in the Northern Plains region of the United States is able to maximize profits?

a)

Grain farmers can quickly purchase multiple small dispersed plots of land away from an urban area when demand for wheat increases thus maximizing profits on inexpensive land.

b)

Grain farming is an intensive farming practice that can yield profits by cultivating large areas of land close to an urban area for marketability of the product.

c)

Grain farmers can diversify production by planting different cereal crops on small plots of land close to markets that enables rapid shipping of the product before the price drops.

d)

Grain farming is an extensive farming practice that can maximize profits in part by lower land costs, lower transportation costs, and imperishability of the product.

38.

Based on the map above, explain the degree to which lettuce production takes place in the United States

a)

Lettuce production in the United States is an example of commercial farming. Most lettuce is produced, processed, and packaged for sale in supermarkets that are a significant distance from where the product was grown.

b)

Lettuce production in the United States is an example of subsistence farming. The only people who consume fresh lettuce are those who live near the production regions illustrated on the map.

c)

Lettuce production in the United States is an example of commercial farming, but lettuce cannot be transported long distances because it is highly perishable.

d)

Lettuce production is limited to colder environments. Lettuce has a tendency to wilt if it is cultivated in warm climates.

39.

Which of the following best explains the farming practice related to plantation agriculture?

a)

Plantation farming is considered to be an intensive farming practice because farms must be located near the market because of high transportation costs for perishable products.

b)

Plantation farming is considered to be an intensive farming practice because it requires large inputs of labor and capital to produce the crop.

c)

Plantation farming is considered to be an intensive farming practice because there is little arable land available in the climates where crops produced on plantations grow.

d)

Plantation farming is considered to be an extensive farming practice because the amount of land required makes it too expensive to locate near to markets.

40.

Which of the following explains an economic benefit of cattle production using feedlots rather than grass pastures?

a)

Feedlots have a lower carrying capacity than grass pastures because feedlots are contained in a smaller space.

b)

Cattle raised in feedlots command a higher price at market because of the time required to fatten the cattle using this method of production.

c)

Agricultural technology has increased the economy of scale and the carrying capacity of feedlots, increasing profits for the farmer.

d)

Raising cattle in feedlots requires more time to fatten cattle but results in lower-fat beef that is desirable to many consumers.

41.

Since the mid-twentieth century, wheat production has risen dramatically in some regions of the world but not others, which may increase the uneven development among countries. Which statement best explains the increase in wheat production in Europe and the United States compared to sub-Saharan Africa?

a)

Farmers in the United States and Europe double-crop wheat for two harvests each year but farmers in sub-Saharan Africa produce only one crop each year.

b)

Farmers in Europe and the United States use high-yield seeds and other technology but farmers in sub-Saharan Africa depend on low levels of mechanization and non-genetically modified seeds.

c)

Climate change made Europe and the United States more conducive to growing wheat than in sub-Saharan Africa.

d)

Wheat became the highest-selling commodity for farmers in Europe and the United States pushing farmers from sub-Saharan Africa out of the local markets.

42.

More developed countries tend to have greater access to agricultural technology and government-supported loans used to purchase computerized farm equipment. Which of the following best explains the significance of access to these resources?

a)

Government financing and improved technology lead to an increase in the number of small, family-owned farms.

b)

Government financing and improved technology lead to a reduced risk of environmental pollution and fewer environmental regulations.

c)

Government financing and improved technology lead to larger economies of scale and improved efficiency.

d)

Government financing and improved technology lead to higher consumer prices for government-subsidized agricultural products.

43.

Which of the following best explains the degree to which subsistence and commercial agriculture in West African countries such as Ghana and Côte d’Ivoire cultivate the land?

a)

While some farmers are engaged in subsistence agriculture practices, there is significant commercial farming focused on luxury goods for export, such as coffee and cocoa.

b)

Most farmers are subsistence farmers that use the slash-and-burn method of farming to produce corn for export.

c)

Agriculture is the leading employment sector, and the majority of people labor as subsistence farmers producing potatoes for export.

d)

Ranching of animals for export of meat products is the primary type of agriculture in this region due to the vast grassy plains that allow for easy grazing.

44.

Agriculture is practiced at the local scale, and agricultural yields are measured at the national scale. Which of the following best explains why the concept of the global system of agriculture is helpful to geographers?

a)

The concept is most useful for predicting local productivity and market changes.

b)

The concept is the best way to map out the environmental effects of agricultural land use.

c)

The concept is a way to help countries that have become highly dependent on an export commodity.

d)

The concept helps geographers simplify and visualize a vast and complicated global supply chain.

45.

In 2017, the United States exported approximately $500 million of beef to Mexico, and Mexico exported approximately $500 million of beef to the United States. Which of the following best explains this international supply chain?

a)

United States consumers prefer to purchase specialty products made from beef raised in Mexico.

b)

Mexico depends on beef imports because domestic beef production is too low.

c)

United States and Mexican producers rely on each other’s market to sell certain beef products.

d)

The United States and Mexico have an agreement to evenly exchange beef products.

46.

Commercial agriculture in dry climates relies heavily on irrigation. Which of the following best explains an environmental concern that results from irrigation in arid regions?

a)

The high use of water for agriculture increases the price of water for people in urban areas.

b)

The soil will have increased salinity, leading to soil erosion and reduced nutrients in the soil for plant health.

c)

The increased production that results from irrigation of the crop will lead to decreases in crop prices as the total crop harvested will be higher.

d)

The decisions about how much water each landowner can use may become more difficult and a cause of conflict between urban and rural people.

47.

Slash-and-burn cultivation is an agricultural practice used by subsistence farmers in tropical forest areas. Which of the following best explains an environmental effect of this practice?

a)

There are long-term benefits to the tropical soil in the clearings from the increased exposure to the sun and the infusion of nutrients from the burned biomass.

b)

Conservation efforts are in place that have largely stopped this practice, minimizing any environmental issues that might occur.

c)

Tropical soil is damaged from the increased exposure to the sun, but there is a sharp increase in biodiversity that overrides any soil damage.

d)

Air pollution and long-term land-cover change are side effects of slash-and-burn agriculture that have a long-ranging effect on a broader region.

48.

Which of the following best explains how irrigated commercial agriculture in arid environments creates both environmental opportunities and challenges?

a)

Deforestation increases production but can damage natural habitats.

b)

Irrigation increases production but potentially depletes water resources.

c)

Terracing hillsides increases production but reduces water quality.

d)

Shifting cultivation increases available farmland but damages habitats.

49.

Which of the following statements best explains fair trade agriculture as shown for the products on the map?

a)

A program in which the governments of the United States, European Union, and others agree to pay farmers in designated tropical countries a subsidy that would put them on the same financial footing

b)

A governmental trade program in which one country serves as the sole producer of a product in a region, and another country agrees to purchase that good under a contract that sets as a fixed price for the goods sold

c)

A program that subsidizes tropical plantation owners to expand the production and processing of export crops by using low-paid migrant workers, with the intent of raising investment from more developed countries

d)

A system where consumers in mostly more developed countries purchase goods from producers mainly in less developed countries, with the intent to reduce the disparity in income between different regions

50.

Which of the following best explains the differences between countries with higher and lower percentages of women working in agriculture?

a)

Places where subsistence farming is still practiced tend to have few women working in agriculture.

b)

The Green Revolution enabled most women to stop working in subsistence agriculture.

c)

Countries with large percentages of female employment in agriculture tend to be mostly rural and are reliant on subsistence agriculture.

d)

Countries with large populations tend to have the most women working in agriculture, usually commercial agriculture.

51.

The construction of makeshift housing in a country within the periphery, as shown in the photograph, is often the result of

a)

government housing projects that were neglected as a result of government corruption

b)

an increasing number of industrial jobs available in a city without adequate housing

c)

too few schools and an increasing number of informal labor market jobs for children

d)

an increasing number of service-sector jobs available only to workers who have been highly educated

52.

The growth of squatter settlements within urban areas in Latin America, as shown in the photograph, can be explained by rapid migration to cities and the

a)

lack of enforceable zoning regulations

b)

declining number of urban jobs

c)

shortage of working-age individuals

d)

presence of immigration regulations

53.

Given the level of development of the countries and the population densities of the cities shown in the table, which is the most likely location for low-income migrants to take up residence in these urban areas?

a)

The central business district

b)

The outlying areas

c)

Infills within old neighborhoods

d)

Industrial zones

54.

Which of the following would support an explanation of the availability of public services based upon a country’s level of development?

a)

Cities with lower population density are less able to overcome the challenges of providing public services compared to cities with higher population density.

b)

Cities with higher population density are more able to overcome the challenges of providing public services compared to cities with lower population.

c)

A country's level of development provides little indication of a city's ability to overcome the challenges of providing public services.

d)

Cities located in semiperiphery countries are more able to overcome the challenges of providing public services compared to cities in countries of the periphery.

55.

Based on a comparison of commercial space and residential housing, the Burgess concentric zone model shown best represents which of the following patterns?

a)

Urban land use in large Canadian cities with service and technology economies, where specialized suburban central business districts with higher land prices are found on the urban periphery

b)

Urban growth in Midwestern cities such as Chicago during the Industrial Era, where suburban growth rings surrounded a single central business district with higher land prices

c)

High-income housing within West Coast cities during the late 1800s, because the model was based on ethnic neighborhoods in San Francisco that formed distinct sectors in areas with higher land prices

d)

Suburban growth in Southeastern cities in the late twentieth century, because the model was based on Atlanta where gated residential communities are found on the urban periphery in areas with lower land prices

56.

Comparing the patterns of commercial space and residential space, which of the following examples is the weakest fit for the Burgess concentric zone model?

a)

Urban areas such as London that developed before the Industrial Revolution, where a medieval city center is surrounded by increasingly expensive housing

b)

Cities such as Philadelphia, where residents may be willing to commute long distances in order to live in lower-cost housing

c)

Urban areas such as the San Francisco Bay area, where there are multiple centers of employment and multiple areas of high-income residences

d)

Twin cities such as Minneapolis-Saint Paul, where two Industrial-Era central business districts are surrounded by increasingly expensive housing

57.

Compared to the patterns shown in urban models of the United States and Canada, the Latin American city model best explains which of the following patterns?

a)

Manufacturing districts are adjacent to the center of the city.

b)

Plazas are increasingly being built along peripheral areas.

c)

Gentrification has greatly improved housing along peripheral areas.

d)

Income levels and land values increase toward the center of the city and along the spine.

58.

The urbanization and growth of the steel producing centers of the Ruhr Valley in Germany and Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, in the United States can best be explained by the site characteristics of

a)

large, local supplies of iron ore and intersecting railroads

b)

large, local supplies of coal and intersecting rivers

c)

large, local supplies of food and intersecting highways

d)

large, local supplies of educated workers and university growth poles

59.

Most countries within western Europe and South America are highly urbanized. Which of the following statements best explains an important similarity or difference in the urbanization of these regions?

a)

Most countries in western Europe and South America are democracies, a form of government generally associated with urbanized societies.

b)

Western Europe urbanized before South America because industrialization occurred first in Europe.

c)

South America and western Europe share similar population growth rates, leading to comparable levels of urbanization.

d)

Economic development occurred at the same rate in western Europe and South America, leading to similar levels of urbanization.

60.

Which of the following site factors is most significant in explaining the expansion of urban areas of Tokyo and Los Angeles following the Second World War?

a)

Deepwater, protected natural harbors

b)

Flat, open plains along mountainous coastlines

c)

Availability of forest resources

d)

Seismic hazards and plate tectonic boundaries

61.

Which of the following scenarios is best explained by the concept of range in Christaller’s central place theory?

a)

A consumer purchases gasoline at the nearest town but travels to the nearest city to purchase a new car.

b)

A high rate of rural-to-urban migration occurs in a developing country as people seek jobs in cities.

c)

A major department store opens in a small town because the town does not have any major retailers competing for business.

d)

A tech company is headquartered in a more developed country, but its customer service center is located in a less developed country.

62.

Which of the following is a primary characteristic of world cities?

a)

They are located in the interiors of their respective countries and require sophisticated transportation networks.

b)

They have political dominance within their respective regions and are former centers of colonial power.

c)

They are capital cities in their respective countries and centers of political power.

d)

They are financially and politically connected to global markets and drive the process of globalization.

63.

Each year Paris, Milan, and New York City hold fashion weeks showcasing the latest in clothing design. These events provide major clothing designers with the opportunity to finance new brands and to collaborate. Fashion weeks receive a large amount of news coverage in online, print, and televised media, which influences consumers' preferences and purchasing decisions.

Which of the following geographical processes best explains this impact on consumers?

a)

Push and pull factors affect the flows of urban migrants.

b)

Urban populations are correlated as described in the rank-size rule.

c)

World cities have market effects on a globalized urban culture.

d)

Uneven development results from the dominance of primate cities.

64.

For urbanization in North American cities, which of the following is best explained by the model?

a)

The predominant culture region of the area and how neighborhoods can be divided based on ethnicity of immigrant groups

b)

The spatial organization of the greater metropolitan area and the likely locations of different types of residences

c)

The locational advantages for different socioeconomic groups based on their level of local political power

d)

The probable location of primary transportation lines and the neighborhoods served by railways

65.

Seoul is the largest city in South Korea, with a 2018 population of approximately 10 million. Busan is the second-largest city in South Korea, with a 2018 population of approximately 3.5 million.

Which of the following best describes the impact of this population difference?

a)

Seoul exports more goods to Busan than to any other city.

b)

Seoul is centrally located within South Korea, making it easily accessible for all residents of South Korea.

c)

South Korea is experiencing rapid population growth because of a disproportionately high total fertility rate in the Seoul metropolitan area.

d)

Seoul serves as the economic, political, and cultural center of South Korea.

66.

Traffic congestion is a common feature of major Southeast Asian cities. Which of the following is a possible solution that a city or regional government could implement to alleviate traffic congestion and improve the city's urban sustainability?

a)

The government could significantly expand the availability and use of more environmentally friendly mass transit that utilizes renewable resources.

b)

The government could enact laws to limit growth within the city, including the construction of high-rise office buildings.

c)

The government could enact laws that would prohibit the migration of people from nearby rural areas into the city.

d)

The government could enact laws to limit external influence in the form of foreign-owned stores and businesses.

67.

A movement that began in Italy as a reaction to the impact of globalization on the quality of daily urban life promotes

a)

smart growth, which concentrates growth in compact urban centers to avoid sprawl

b)

edge cities, which improve regional economies

c)

Fordism, which promotes industrialization

d)

slow-growth cities, which emphasize long-standing cultural traditions

68.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for cities to invest in remediation and redevelopment of brownfields?

a)

Contaminated brownfields on the outskirts of urban areas often restrict the economic development of edge cities.

b)

The redevelopment of brownfields enables the reuse of abandoned areas that are often located in urban centers and have existing infrastructure.

c)

The remediation of brownfields results in open green spaces within cities, facilitating urban agriculture programs.

d)

The redevelopment of brownfields in city centers complements the development of greenbelts surrounding urban areas.

69.

Policies that increase the quantity of housing units next to downtown employment locations in cities such as Portland, Oregon and Vancouver, Canada are designed to reduce these cities’

a)

ecological footprints

b)

gentrification

c)

urban renewal

d)

greenbelt development

70.

Which of the following is a central goal for planning concepts such as New Urbanism?

a)

Creation of affordable housing such as clusters of high-rise apartment buildings to house low-income residents

b)

Redesign of neighborhoods to replace older historic structures with multistory office buildings and modern residences

c)

Creation of walkable cities that are environmentally friendly and contain a diversity of business, entertainment, and residential areas with large areas of green space

d)

Repeal of zoning regulations that limit construction of new single-family housing developments

71.

Which of the following best explains why geographers would expect two large urban areas in close proximity to one another to have extensive interactions, such as frequent airline flights between the cities?

a)

Rank-size rule

b)

Primate city

c)

Central place theory

d)

Gravity model

72.

Christaller’s central place theory argues that which of the following patterns will occur?

a)

Land value decreases with increasing distance from the central business district.

b)

Large cities will outnumber smaller towns and cities.

c)

People are more likely to commute to a larger city to find a job.

d)

Cities and towns of similar size will be evenly spaced across a country or region.

73.

While New Urbanism is seen as a more sustainable pattern for urban growth, which of the following is a negative consequence of New Urbanism?

a)

The influx of lower-income residents may cause some businesses to leave as they seek higher profits in upper-income areas.

b)

The increase in mixed-use spaces may reduce the unique historic architecture of the area.

c)

The expansion of built-up urban spaces will threaten wildlife and habitats.

d)

The uniformity of residential areas provides limited housing options for residents.

74.

EDGE CITY SPECIALIZATION IN THE WASHINGTON, D.C., AREA

Edge City- Specialization

Tysons Corner, VA- Telecommunications

Bethesda, MD- Medical research

Pentagon City, VA- Defense contracting

Reston, VA- Information technology

Which of the following urban models best addresses the types of specialization in suburban business districts shown?

a)

Burgess concentric zone

b)

Galactic city

c)

Urban realms

d)

Hoyt sector

75.

In more developed countries, suburban development during the mid-twentieth century focused on moderate single-family homes on small lots. In contrast, in the latter half of the twentieth century, many suburban areas were developed to contain large lots with single-family homes. Which of the following explains the importance of this change in the pattern of development?

a)

Urban sprawl resulted from the expansion of transportation networks dependent on cars.

b)

Gentrification resulted from the reinvestment into existing urban residential real estate.

c)

Brownfields resulted from the deindustrialization of factories, warehouses, ports, and rail yards.

d)

Smart growth resulted from the planning of transportation networks dependent on trains and buses.