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Final exam

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which gland produces ADH & Oxytocin and from where are they secreted?

a)

Hypothalamus = Secretes

Posterior pituitary = produces

b)

Hypothalamus = produces

pancreas = Secretes

c)

Hypothalamus = produces

Anterior pituitary = Secretes

d)

Hypothalamus = produces

Posterior pituitary = Secretes

2.

Which division of the peripheral nervous system controls voluntary movements, like walking, running, and writing?

a)

somatic motor division

b)

visceral motor division

c)

visceral sensory division

d)

somatic sensory division

3.

Which other organ system also functions to control and regulate body functions?

a)

the cardiovascular system

b)

the lymphatic / immune system

c)

the endocrine system

d)

the reproductive system

4.

For each answer, indicate whether it applies to the sympathetic system

a)

gets activated when you sense a threat

b)

increases blood flow to skeletal muscle

c)

increases movement along the digestive tract

d)

comes out of the cervical spinal cord

e)

innervates the adrenal medulla

5.

Which division of the peripheral nervous system is the ANS?

a)

visceral sensory division

b)

somatic motor division

c)

somatic sensory division

d)

visceral motor division

6.

Where are the adrenal glands located?

a)

within the abdominal cavity

b)

superior to the kidney

c)

all of the above

d)

lateral to the aorta

7.

In the context of anatomy and physiology, what does ANS stand for?   (in the answer do not use capital letters)

(a)  

8.

If you sit down for an exam and your heart is racing, what is simultaneously happening to your blood pressure?

a)

your blood pressure stays the same

b)

your blood pressure goes up as well

c)

your blood pressure will go down

9.

For each answer, indicate whether it applies to the parasympathetic system

a)

signals travel on the vagus nerve

b)

increases blood flow to skeletal muscle

c)

increases movement along the digestive tract

d)

comes out of the cervical spinal cord

e)

carried on some cranial nerves

10.

Which part of the body regulates both the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system?

a)

the hypothalamus

b)

the adrenal gland

c)

the thalamus

d)

the frontal lobe

11.

Which hormone opposes the effect of calcitonin?

a)

erythropoietin (EPO)

b)

aldosterone

c)

PTH

d)

PRL

12.

A man who is seven feet tall could have an excess of which hormone?

a)

testosterone

b)

GH

c)

testosterone

d)

cortisol

13.

How does the hypothalamus regulate the adrenal medulla?

a)

ANP

b)

angiotensin

c)

aldosterone

d)

ADH

14.

Which 2 hormones have opposing effects on blood glucose levels?

a)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

glucagon and insulin

c)

ADH and ANP

d)

aldosterone and testosterone3

15.

Which 2 hormones increase fluid retention by the kidney, and therefore increase blood pressure?

a)

ANP and EPO

b)

PTH and calcitonin

c)

insulin and glucagon

d)

aldosterone and ADH

16.

Which of these hormones is not produced in the organ from which it is secreted?

a)

PRL

b)

ADH

c)

TSH

d)

GH

17.

What molecule is stored in the colloid at the center of the thyroid follicle?

a)

transferrin

b)

thyroglobulin

c)

TSH

d)

TRH

e)

T3/T4

18.

Which hormone from the adrenal cortex travels to the kidney where it binds to its receptors?

a)

estrogen

b)

aldosterone

c)

testosterone

d)

cortisol

19.

Which 2 hormones regulate the function of the testes (the male gonads)?

a)

oxytocin and prolactin

b)

FSH and LH

c)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

insulin and glucagon

20.

An increase in the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will lead to an increase in release of which 2 pituitary hormones?

a)

ADH and aldosterone

b)

PTH and calcitonin

c)

FSH and LH

d)

testosterone and estrogen

21.

Which of the following hormones is likely to bind to an intracellular receptor?

a)

GH

b)

PTH

c)

cortisol

d)

PRL

22.

Which of these hormones is made from cholesterol?

a)

oxytocin

b)

testosterone

c)

ADH

d)

insulin

23.

Which hormone is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis?

a)

T3/T4

b)

testosterone

c)

epinephrine

d)

cortisol

24.

The pancreas is described as part of the endocrine system, yet 95% of the pancreatic tissue actually functions as part of the _______ system.

a)

cardiovascular

b)

lymphatic / immune

c)

respiratory

d)

digestive

25.

You travel to the Rocky Mountains to train for the Olympic cycling race. Which hormone will increase, to help your blood carry more oxygen in this low oxygen environment?

a)

TSH

b)

erythropoietin (EPO)

c)

PTH

d)

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

26.

In women, which organ is primarily responsible for producing estrogen and progesterone?

a)

the mammary glands

b)

the adrenal gland

c)

the ovary

d)

the uterus

27.

Which hormone sets the basal metabolic rate, when a person is not exercising or eating?

a)

insulin

b)

PTH

c)

glucagon

d)

T3/T4

e)

cortisol

28.

Which of these scenarios demonstrates positive feedback?

a)

the posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin in increasing amounts until labor is complete and a baby is born

b)

the hypothalamus regulates body temperature by increasing or decreasing TRH release

c)

the parathyroid regulates blood calcium by releasing PTH

d)

the posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin in increasing amounts until labor is complete and a baby is born

29.

Which ion movement is responsible for the depolarization stage of an action potential?

a)

sodium ions moving OUT of the cell

b)

sodium ions moving INTO the cell

c)

potassium ions moving INTO the cell

d)

potassium ions moving OUT of the cell

30.

What will happen to the heart rate if the SA node fails to fire?

a)

the AV node will fire spontaneously

b)

the AV bundle will fire spontaneously

c)

the Purkinje fibers will fire spontaneously

d)

the heart will stop beating

31.

What type of tissue surrounds and protects the coronary vessels, found in the atrioventricular sulcus, the anterior interventricular sulcus, and the posterior interventricular sulcus?

a)

dense irregular connective tissue

b)

adipose loose connective tissue

c)

reticular loose connective tissue

d)

areolar loose connective tissue

32.

Which nerve stimulates the heart, with the effect of slowing the heart rate?

a)

the vagus nerve

b)

the musculocutaneous nerve

c)

the trigeminal nerve

d)

the phrenic nerve

33.

What is the effect of decreasing the resting membrane potential of the tissue of the SA node?

a)

heart rate will increase

b)

heart rate will increase

c)

heart rate will decrease

34.

which option lists the structures of the conducting system in order?

a)

SA node->Purkinje fibers->AV node->AV bundle-

>atrial conducting fibers->L/R bundle branches

b)

SA node->atrial conducting fibers->AV node->AV bundle->L/R bundle branches->Purkinje fibers

c)

SA node->atrial conducting fibers->AV node->AV bundle->Purkinje fibers->L/R bundle branches

d)

SA node->atrial conducting fibers->AV bundle->L/R bundle branches->AV node->Purkinje fibers

35.

An EKG/ECG tracing is a picture of the electrical activity of the heart. Which cells produce the electrical signal that is detected in the EKG?

a)

the Purkinje fibers

b)

the cardiomyocytes themselves

c)

the nerves that innervate the heart

d)

the cells of the conducting system

36.

Which of the following structures has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization?

a)

the Purkinje fibers

b)

the AV bundle

c)

the AV node

d)

the SA node

37.

You are analyzing an EKG. You see waves that have the normal shapes, but the rhythm is too fast. Which term describes this phenomenon?

a)

sinus bradycardia

b)

AV block

c)

sinus tachycardia

d)

atrial fibrillation

38.

Which of the following events is unique to the action potential of the cardiac contractile cell?

a)

depolarization

b)

plateau

c)

hyperpolarization

d)

repolarization

39.

Which layer of the heart contains the tissue of the cardiac conducting system?

a)

the epicardium

b)

the pericardium

c)

the myocardium

d)

the endocardium

40.

What happens to membrane potential if calcium ions are allowed to move freely across the cell membrane of a cardiomyocyte?

a)

membrane potential will go up (becoming more positive)

b)

membrane potential will not change

c)

membrane potential will go down (becoming more negative)

41.

What is the first event that is represented in the EKG tracing?

a)

ventricular repolarization

b)

atrial repolarization

c)

ventricular depolarization

d)

atrial depolarization

42.

Cardiac muscle functions as a "syncytium," meaning that this group of individual cells functions as one cell. What microscopic structure enables the cardiac muscle cells to function as one?

a)

the myoglobin

b)

the gap junction

c)

the striations

d)

the mitochondria

43.

Which chamber of the heart performs the majority of the work of the heart in pumping blood?

a)

left ventricle

b)

right ventricle

c)

left atrium

d)

right atrium

44.

Why do cardiomyocytes contain large amounts of myoglobin?

a)

to store glycogen

b)

to store ATP

c)

to store oxygen

d)

to store glucose

45.

There is a painful condition resulting from inflammation of the tissue surrounding the heart. The pain is felt each time the heart beat. Using your knowledge of heart anatomy, please identify the term for this condition.

a)

pleuritis

b)

peritonitis

c)

pericarditis

46.

Movement of the ___ ion allows for repolarization of the membrane during the action potential

a)

calcium

b)

potassium

c)

sodium

47.

The shape of your heart within the thoracic cavity is largely determined by the size and shape of which chamber?

a)

left atrium

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

48.

The cardiac skeleton provides an anchoring structure for all of the heart's ___.

a)

membranes

b)

nodes

c)

valves

d)

myocytes

49.

What effect does stimulating the vagus nerve have on cardiac output?

a)

It decreases CO because it decreases HR.

b)

It increases CO because it increases HR.

c)

It increases CO because it increases SV.

d)

It decreases CO because it decreases SV.

50.

What effect does increased aldosterone have on cardiac output? (and you should think about how this effect happens)

a)

It increases CO because it increases HR.

b)

It increases CO because it increases SV.

c)

It decreases CO because it decreases HR.

d)

It decreases CO because it decreases SV.

51.

Which of these would be a normal value for ejection fraction in a healthy person at rest? (Ejection fraction is the % of EDV that is pumped out as SV)

a)

60%

b)

20%

c)

90%

52.

Which chamber of the heart generates the highest systolic pressure?

a)

left ventricle

b)

left atrium

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

53.

What is the most likely potential effect of a blockage in the anterior interventricular artery?

a)

aortic stenosis

b)

left-sided heart failure

c)

right-sided heart failure

d)

tricuspid valve regurgitation

54.

Which of these vessels does not drain into the right atrium?

a)

the superior sagittal sinus

b)

the inferior vena cava

c)

the coronary sinus

d)

the superior vena cava

55.

If the SA node is sick or damaged and does not fire, the AV node will take over (although it paces the heart at a slower rate). In this situation, which part of the EKG tracing will be missing?

a)

the QRS complex

b)

the P wave

c)

the R-R interval

d)

the T wave

56.

Problems breathing would be most consistent with which type of heart problem?

a)

AV bundle block

b)

endocarditis

c)

left-sided congestive heart failure

d)

idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis

57.

Which of the following is true regarding the effects of AcetylCholine (ACh) on the heart?

a)

ACh is a negative ionotropic agent.

b)

ACh is a negative chronotropic agent.

c)

ACh is a positive chronotropic agent.

d)

ACh is a positive ionotropic agent.

58.

Which layer of the heart wall contains coronary arteries? (the ones you learned in lab)

a)

the endocardium

b)

the epicardium

c)

the myocardium

d)

the parietal pericardium

59.

If the sympathetic system causes an increase in the diastolic blood pressure of the aorta, what will be the effect on cardiac output?

a)

Increased CO because of increased HR.

b)

Increased CO because of increased SV.

c)

Decreased CO because of decreased HR.

d)

Decreased CO because of decreased SV.

60.

During which phase of the cardiac cycle does blood move out of the heart?

a)

isovolumetric relaxation phase

b)

ventricular filling phase

c)

ventricular ejection phase

d)

isovolumetric contraction phase

61.

How does activation of the sympathetic system change cardiac output?

a)

Sympathetic activation can increase heart rate.

b)

Sympathetic activation can increase stroke volume.

c)

Sympathetic activation can increase both heart rate and stroke volume.

d)

Sympathetic activation does not affect heart rate or stroke volume.

62.

What is the effect of the hormone glucagon on cardiac output?

a)

Glucagon increases CO because it increases HR.

b)

Glucagon increases CO because it increases both HR and SV.

c)

Glucagon increases CO because it increases SV.

63.

Where do the coronary arteries (right and left) originate?

a)

superior to the cusps of the aortic valve

b)

superior to the leaflets of the bicuspid valve

c)

superior to the cusps of the pulmonary valve

d)

superior to the leaflets of the tricuspid valve

64.

My grandmother once thought she was dying because her dosage of a calcium-channel blocker (that she was taking to lower her blood pressure) was too high. What happened to her, to make her think she was dying?

a)

her heart beat jumped around, as if she had worms crawling around in her chest

b)

she had chest pain that radiated down her left arm

c)

she had intense substernal pain every time her heart beat

d)

her heart rate slowed to the point where she thought it would stop

65.

Transposition of the great vessels is a lethal cardiac birth defect. Why is it so important to keep the ductus arteriosus (a shortcut between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta) open prior to surgical correction of this defect?

a)

otherwise, the hemoglobin will not be able to carry oxygen

b)

otherwise, the left ventricle does not have enough muscle mass to contract

c)

otherwise, the fossa ovalis does not close between the right and left atria

d)

otherwise, the pulmonary and systemic circulations are not connected

66.

We have probably all heard of famous athletes, often basketball players, who drop dead on the court due to a "heart condition" called IHSS or HOCM. In this condition, the heart muscle has thickened to the point that part of the heart wall gets in the way of blood leaving the heart. What is the immediate effect on cardiac output?

a)

Decreased CO because of decreased SV.

b)

Increased CO because of increased HR.

c)

Decreased CO because of decreased HR.

d)

Increased CO because of increased SV.

67.

During which phase of the cardiac cycle can blood flow through the capillaries within cardiac muscle, bringing oxygen to working cardiac muscle?

a)

ventricular filling phase

b)

ventricular ejection phase

c)

isovolumetric contraction phase

d)

isovolumetric relaxation phase

68.

What effect does increased venous return have on cardiac output?

a)

It decreases CO because it decreases SV.

b)

It increases CO because it increases SV.

c)

It decreases CO because it decreases HR.

d)

It increases CO because it increases HR.