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BAS 160 Final

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

__________ is the art of utilizing organizational resources to accomplish goals at work.

a)

Socialization

b)

Justification

c)

Preparation

d)

Management

2.

The management function concerned with anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies to achieve an organization's goals and objectives is known as

a)

directing

b)

leadership

c)

planning

d)

forecasting

3.

When managers work on creating conditions and systems to ensure that everything and everyone works together to achieve the organization's goals, they are involved in the __________ function of management.

a)

controlling

b)

leading

c)

planning

d)

organizing

4.

__________ is the management function that involves determining whether an organization is progressing toward its goals, rewarding employees for doing a good job, and taking corrective action when they are not.

a)

Organizing

b)

Controlling

c)

Leading

d)

Officiating

5.

In a company in which an effective vision has been provided

a)

there is no need for tactical planning.

b)

the economic and competitive environments tend to be much more predictable.

c)

employees are likely to have a sense of purpose and a common set of values.

d)

goals and objectives are no longer needed.

6.

General and divisional managers, plant managers, and deans and department heads at colleges are classified as

a)

middle management.

b)

supervisory management.

c)

top management.

d)

nominal management.

7.

The process of setting up individual functional units of the business to do specialized tasks is called

a)

departmentalization

b)

division of labor

c)

job specialization

d)

delegation of authority

8.

Most businesses follow a logical process when performing the planning function. It is important to understand __________ before creating long-term goals, objectives, and strategies.

a)

the current situation

b)

how to measure objectives

c)

how to evaluate job descriptions and specifications

d)

the needs of secondary suppliers

9.

Dividing tasks into smaller jobs is called

a)

job enrichment.

b)

job specialization.

c)

departmentalization.

d)

division of authority.

10.

Because they often picture the organization as a whole and work to incorporate all departments into one, seamless organization, top managers utilize __________ skills the most.

a)

technical

b)

conceptual

c)

human relations

d)

organizing

11.

Which leadership style focuses on making decisions without consulting others?

a)

authoritarian

b)

participative

c)

team-based

d)

autocratic

12.

Dividing the required work among a group of employees is called

a)

departmentalization

b)

informal organization.

c)

division of labor.

d)

separation of control.

13.

The concept of __________ suggests that as a firm produces more, the average cost of goods produced goes down.

a)

natural growth

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

cost enhancement

d)

economies of scale

14.

A(n) __________ is a visual device that shows relationships among people and divides the organization's work.

a)

organization chart

b)

Venn diagram

c)

corporate plan

d)

Gantt chart

15.

The line of authority that moves from the top of a hierarchy to the lowest level is called the

a)

chain of logic.

b)

chain of command.

c)

organizational design.

d)

delegation of contingent authority.

16.

What statement reflects Weber's view of bureaucratic organizations?

a)

Departments communicate with each other on a regular basis.

b)

Employees follow strict rules and regulations.

c)

Customer satisfaction is the number one priority.

d)

First-line workers are empowered to respond to the needs of customers.

17.

__________ means that decision-making authority is delegated to lower-level managers and employees.

a)

Uniformity of authority

b)

Decentralized authority

c)

Centralized authority

d)

Standardized authority

18.

The optimum number of subordinates a manager can supervise is referred to as the

a)

manager-subordinate ratio.

b)

chain of command.

c)

employee quota.

d)

span of control.

19.

In the past, the major purpose of organizational design was to facilitate the needs of management in making their job easier, rather than

a)

expanding outsourcing.

b)

making a profit.

c)

centralizing authority.

d)

pleasing customers.

20.

Tess works as a patent attorney for a large manufacturing company. Tess’s job is to act as an advisor to the firm’s engineers to be sure they do not confront any legal issues when designing new products. Tess’s position would be classified as a __________ position.

a)

line

b)

middle management

c)

first line

d)

staff

21.

__________ is considered the “father” of scientific management.

a)

Elton Mayo

b)

Frank Gilbreth

c)

Henry Gantt

d)

Frederick Taylor

22.

Maslow was mainly concerned with explaining how

a)

jobs could be broken down into very simple tasks that could be performed by unskilled employees.

b)

human motivation was related to a hierarchy of needs.

c)

managerial assumptions about employees affected their style of management.

d)

to achieve open two-way communication within an organization.

23.

Herzberg's research identified several __________ factors that were related to the job environment and did not necessarily motivate employees if they were increased but could cause employees to become dissatisfied if they were missing or inadequate.

a)

retroactive

b)

inferior

c)

hygiene

d)

negative

24.

Douglas McGregor described two very different sets of managerial attitudes about employees, which he called

a)

the positive view and the negative view.

b)

the macro perspective and the micro perspective.

c)

Theory X and Theory Y.

d)

individualism and collectivism.

25.

The purpose of management by objectives is to

a)

enable top management to set goals for the entire organization.

b)

simplify the jobs of middle management by providing them with predetermined goals and objectives.

c)

help employees motivate themselves with a goal-setting model that involves discussion, review, and evaluation by management and employees.

d)

allow employees to set their own goals without consulting with management.

26.

Equity judgments are based on

a)

quantifiable evidence.

b)

deductive reasoning.

c)

statistical extrapolation.

d)

people's perceptions.

27.

With respect to the development of scientific management, Frederick Taylor’s objective was to

a)

increase worker satisfaction.

b)

decrease the number of work hours per day.

c)

develop a specialized workforce.

d)

increase productivity at work.

28.

According to Herzberg, workers felt that good pay and job security

a)

are the most important motivators for most workers.

b)

were important for participative management.

c)

provided a sense of satisfaction with the job, but did not motivate them.

d)

were the best way to keep jobs interesting and to help them achieve their objectives.

29.

Which approach suggests that a manager believes that employees should be involved in both defining problems and in designing the solutions?

a)

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

b)

McGregor’s Theory X

c)

Taylor’s scientific management

d)

McGregor’s Theory Y

30.

The strategy of making work interesting and motivating employees by moving them from one job to another is called job

a)

enlargement

b)

simplification

c)

rotation

d)

enrichment

31.

A __________ consists of the marketing intermediaries that transport and store goods as they move through their path from producer to final user.

a)

channel of distribution

b)

marketing network

c)

marketing mix

d)

wholesaler

32.

A __________ is a marketing intermediary that sells products to other organizations.

a)

wholesaler

b)

retailer

c)

consumer

d)

jobber

33.

__________ utility is usually provided by producers rather than marketers.

a)

Possession

b)

Time

c)

Place

d)

Form

34.

The types of utility commonly provided by marketing intermediaries include

a)

product, price, place, and promotion.

b)

time, place, possession, information, and service.

c)

retailing, wholesaling, brokering, and financing.

d)

cost, value, flexibility, use, and resale.

35.

Marketing intermediaries that solicit orders from retailers or other wholesalers and have the products delivered directly from the producer to the buyer are known as

a)

drop shippers.

b)

truck jobbers.

c)

channel captains.

d)

merchandise agents.

36.

A(n) __________ distribution strategy distributes a product through only a preferred group of retailers in a given area.

a)

intensive

b)

selective

c)

exclusive

d)

restrictive

37.

__________ manages the movement of raw materials, parts, work in progress, finished goods, and related information throughout the supply chain, as well as managing the return of goods when necessary and the recycling of goods when appropriate.

a)

Direct marketing

b)

Multilevel marketing

c)

Supply chain management

d)

Retail distribution

38.

Service utility is rapidly becoming the most important utility for many __________ as they face competition from direct marketing forces, such as the Internet and catalogs.

a)

wholesalers

b)

discounters

c)

marketers

d)

retailers

39.

When a large retail store like Best Buy sells a huge variety of electronics and dominates the market for those products, it is called a __________ store.

a)

saturation center

b)

category killer

c)

fine-line shaper

d)

market mover

40.

Third-party logistics refers to

a)

bringing goods back to the manufacturers because of defects or to recycle.

b)

the use of outside firms to help move goods from here to there.

c)

managing the flow of unfinished products to business buyers and ultimate consumers.

d)

the movement of goods within a warehouse, from warehouses to the factory floor, and from the factory floor to various workstations.

41.

One of the challenges of running a home-based business is

a)

an increase in business risk.

b)

managing the extra time on your hands.

c)

keeping work and family tasks separate.

d)

increasingly burdensome tax laws.

42.

Successful entrepreneurs are self-nurturing. This means they

a)

look to others for strength and encouragement.

b)

self-finance their business with no assistance from others.

c)

perform all business operations by themselves.

d)

believe in themselves and their ideas.

43.

Enterprise zones are

a)

government-owned properties that are available for entrepreneurial ventures at a reduced cost.

b)

similar to incubator facilities but strictly run by city and state governments.

c)

blighted areas that contain toxic materials making them unsuitable for business operations.

d)

specific locations across the United States where entrepreneurs can set up shop and receive tax breaks for operating in these areas.

44.

Which employment statistic about small businesses is true?

a)

Small businesses create about 15% of all new jobs in the United States.

b)

About 100,000 employee-hiring small businesses are started every year.

c)

A great majority of U.S. workers find their first jobs with a small business.

d)

Small businesses employ less than one-third of all private-sector employees.

45.

A __________ is a written document that details the business idea, the target market and the business's competitive advantage, financial resources available for the business, and the qualification of the management.

a)

feasibility product

b)

marketing plan

c)

business plan

d)

statement of intent

46.

Entrepreneurs seeking financial support from bankers and potential investors should

a)

be vague regarding their creative business plan to avoid having their idea stolen.

b)

seek the bankers' and investors' assistance in developing their business plan.

c)

create a detailed business plan to help the bankers and investors understand why this business will succeed.

d)

ask for a relatively small amount of capital initially, postponing a full funding request until the investors better understand the business concept.

47.

A market consists of potential buyers of a good or service. However, for a market to exist

a)

the business requires wholesalers and retailers.

b)

one firm must dominate in sales and product development.

c)

people must have unsatisfied wants and needs as well as a willingness and ability to buy.

d)

the product must be laboratory tested and approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

48.

Why do incubator facilities continue to remain very popular with start-up businesses?

a)

They are essentially loan offices that provide funding.

b)

They team up with large corporations who are willing to buy out the small businesses.

c)

They almost always provide strong visibility and walk-in customers.

d)

By providing essential services to entrepreneurs, they have a very strong success rate.

49.

The primary concerns when first starting your business are

a)

marketing and accounting.

b)

planning and human resources.

c)

financing and planning.

d)

financing and marketing.

50.

One of the drawbacks of using venture capital is

a)

venture capital firms cannot give the small business owner any advice.

b)

they don’t know your customers.

c)

venture capital firms may ask for a high stake in your business.

d)

the venture capital firm asks for very high interest rates on money loaned.

51.

__________ refers to standards of moral behavior.

a)

Legality

b)

Responsibility

c)

Integrity

d)

Ethics

52.

It is accurate to state that ethical dilemmas in business

a)

force us to make poor choices.

b)

always end up bringing out the best in us.

c)

often force us to choose between equally unsatisfactory alternatives.

d)

define us as being moral absolutists or moral situationalists.

53.

A(n) __________-based ethics code emphasizes the prevention of unlawful behavior by increasing control and penalizing wrongdoers.

a)

legal

b)

corporate responsibility

c)

compliance

d)

integrity

54.

A whistleblower is a person who

a)

monitors employees who work overtime.

b)

reports illegal or unethical behavior in the corporation.

c)

reports health or other corporate emergencies to 911.

d)

works in the human resource department.

55.

We describe charitable donations by corporations to nonprofit organizations as

a)

corporate philanthropy.

b)

corporate responsibility.

c)

corporate strategy.

d)

structural commitment.

56.

If a business fails to meet its responsibilities to its employees, what is likely to occur?

a)

reduced employee turnover

b)

employees believe it is easier to get ahead

c)

more jobs are created

d)

employees do the minimum needed to get by

57.

The purpose of a(n) __________ is to evaluate an organization's progress toward implementing programs that are socially responsible and responsive.

a)

accountability review

b)

social audit

c)

federal disclosure statement

d)

annual report

58.

Josie’s supervisor directed her to use false information in order to enhance sales numbers, while intimating that not participating would spoil Josie’s chances for promotion. Josie was faced with a(n)

a)

important act of self-interest.

b)

ethical dilemma.

c)

win‒win situation

d)

corporate accountability issue.

59.

Organizational ethics begins

a)

at the top levels of management.

b)

only with full-time employees.

c)

with the labor unions and employee groups.

d)

with mid-level and supervisory managers.

60.

Five types of groups serve as watchdogs to monitor how well companies enforce their ethical and social responsibility policies. One of these groups is

a)

internal search and occupy organizations.

b)

corporate raider divisions.

c)

socially conscious research organizations.

d)

secondary market companies.