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Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the model of IS curse and the fed rule, when government spending increases

a)

The interest rate increases and discourages private investment

b)

The interest rate decreases and discourages private investment

c)

The interest rate remains constant

2.

In the model of the IS curve and the Fed Rule, when taxes increase

a)

consumption and output increase

b)

consumption and output decrease

c)

consumption and output remain constant

3.

Quantitative reasoning refers to

a)

the easing of fiscal conditions

b)

the easing of economic conditions

c)

the large scale purchases of long-term Treasury bonds by the Fed

4.

As the interest rate increases, the price of existing bonds

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains constant

5.

According to the expectations theory of term structure of interest rates,

a)

long-term rates are equal to the average amount of current and expected future short-term rates

b)

short-term rates are equal to the average of current and expected future long-term rates

6.

Since 2008, to control the interest rate, the Fed

a)

conducts open market operations

b)

pays interest on excess reserves

c)

decreases investment

7.

Before 2008, to control the interest rate, the Fed used to

a)

conduct open market operations

b)

pay interest on excess reserves

c)

decrease investment

8.

The demand for money

a)

increases as the interest rate increases

b)

decreases as the interest rate increases

c)

does not depend on the interest rate

9.

Since the money multiplier is greater than one

a)

an increase in the money supply causes a larger increase in output

b)

an increase in reserves causes a larger increase in the money supply

c)

an increase in reserves causes a larger increase in output

10.

As the required reserve ratio increases, the money multiplier

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains constant

11.

Banks create money by

a)

creating reserves

b)

creating deposits

c)

creating net worth

12.

Net worth is equal to

a)

a fraction of disposable income

b)

a multiple of disposable income

c)

assets minus liabilities

13.

M1 includes

a)

equilibrium output

b)

inflation

c)

currency held outside banks

d)

demand deposits

14.

Money is

a)

a means of payment, or medium of exchange

b)

an automatic stabilizer

c)

a store of value

d)

a unit of account

15.

An automatic stabilizer stabilizes

a)

GDP

b)

inflation

c)

the marginal propensity to consume

16.

When the government runs a budget deficit, government debt tends to

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stabilize automatically

17.

When the government spends more than it collects in taxes, the government runs

a)

a budget surplus

b)

a budget deficit

c)

a balanced budget

18.

In the model of Chapter 9, if government spending increases

a)

output increases

b)

consumption increases

c)

the multiplier increases

19.

The government spending multiplier is greater than one because

a)

taxes amplify the effect of government spending on output

b)

investment amplifies the effect of government spending on output

c)

consumption amplifies the effect of government spending on output

20.

The tax multiplier is

a)

greater than one

b)

equal to one

c)

less than zero

21.

As the interest rate increases, investment

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains constant

22.

Disposable income is equal to

a)

the difference between income and consumption

b)

the difference between income and saving

c)

the difference betweeen income and taxes

23.

The marginal propensity to save is

a)

the multiplier

b)

the fraction of additional income that is consumed

c)

the fraction of additional income that is saved

24.

Inflation was relatively high

a)

in the 1950s

b)

in the 1970s

c)

in the 1990s

25.

In an expansion

a)

aggregate production tends to increase

b)

employment tends to increase

c)

unemployment tends to increase

d)

consumption tends to increase

e)

investment tends to increase

26.

Gross domestic product measures

a)

the total spending of everyone in the economy

b)

the overall price level

c)

the value of all output in the economy

d)

the total income of everyone in the economy

27.

Gross domestic product includes the value of

a)

new final goods and services

b)

old final goods and services

c)

transfer payments

28.

The largest expenditure component of GDP i

a)

consumption

b)

investment

c)

government spending

d)

net exports

29.

Depreciation refers to

a)

a decrease in the overall level of economic activity

b)

a decrease in the value of capital

c)

a decrease in the overall price level

30.

Net investment is equal to gross investment minus

a)

inflation

b)

GDP

c)

imports

d)

depreciation

31.

Net exports is equal to exports minus

a)

inflation

b)

GDP

c)

imports

d)

depreciation

32.

Disposable personal income is equal to

a)

personal income minus consumption

b)

personal income minus saving

c)

personal income minus depreciation

d)

personal income minus personal income taxes

33.

Changes in nominal GDP can be due to

a)

changes in prices

b)

changes in quantities of output produced

34.

Changes in real GDP can be due to

a)

changes in prices

b)

changes in quantities of output produced

35.

Approximately, the GDP inflation rate is equal to

a)

the sum of the nominal GDP growth rate and the real GDP growth rate

b)

the nominal GDP growth rate minus the real GDP growth rate

c)

the real GDP growth rate minus the nominal GDP growth rate

36.

The marginal propensity to save is

a)

the multiplier

b)

the fraction of additional income that is consumed

c)

the fraction of additional income that is saved

37.

The marginal propensity to save is equal to one minus the marginal propensity to consume

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The slope of the aggregate expenditure function is equal to

a)

the multiplier

b)

the marginal propensity to consume

c)

the marginal propensity to save

39.

As the interest rate increases, investment is likely to

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain constant

40.

Aggregate output minus planned aggregate expenditure is equal to

a)

depreciation

b)

deflation

c)

planned changes in inventories

d)

unplanned changes in inventories

41.

An endogenous variable is

a)

a variable that the model takes as given

b)

a variable that the model explains

42.

Because of a Real Wealth Effect, an increase in the price level

a)

raises real wealth and consumption

b)

lowers real wealth and consumption

c)

raises real wealth but lowers consumption

43.

An increase in inflation expectations may act like an adverse cost shock and raise actual inflation.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

When an exogenous factor Z makes the Fed raise the interest rate

a)

the Aggregate Demand curve shifts to the right

b)

the Aggregate Demand curve shifts to the left

c)

the Aggregate Supply curve shifts to the right

d)

the Aggregate Supply curve shifts up and to the left

45.

When consumer and businesses become more optimistic

a)

the Aggregate Demand curve shifts to the right

b)

the Aggregate Demand curve shifts to the left

c)

the Aggregate Supply curve shifts to the right

d)

the Aggregate Supply curve shifts up and to the left

46.

When advances in technology increase productivity

a)

the Aggregate Demand curve shifts to the right

b)

the Aggregate Demand curve shifts to the left

c)

the Aggregate Supply curve shifts to the right

d)

the Aggregate Supply curve shifts up and to the left

47.

When an increase in Aggregate Demand causes an expansion

a)

the price level increases

b)

the price level decreases

c)

the price level remains constant

48.

When a favorable Aggregate Supply shock causes an expansion

a)

the price level increases

b)

the price level decreases

c)

the price level remains constant

49.

When output is above its potential level, wages and costs increase, and the Aggregate Supply curve shifts upward.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

In the short run, expansionary fiscal and monetary policies

a)

Raise output

b)

Raise the price level

51.

In the long run, expansionary fiscal and monetary policies

a)

Raise output

b)

Raise the price level

52.

In the short run, expansionary monetary policy raises

a)

output

b)

the interest rate

c)

investment

d)

the price level

53.

Government spending has a greater effect on output

a)

when output is well below capacity

b)

when output equals its potential level

c)

when output is near capacity

54.

In a binding situation, when the interest rate is equal to zero

a)

monetary policy is very effective

b)

monetary policy is ineffective

55.

The real interest rate is equal to

a)

the product of the interest rate and real GDP

b)

the ratio of the interest rate to real GDP

c)

the difference between the interest rate and expected future inflation

56.

If inflation is higher than anticipated

a)

debtors gain at the expense of creditors

b)

creditors gain at the expense of debtors

57.

In a period of stagflation

a)

inflation is high

b)

inflation is low

c)

unemployment is high

d)

unemployment is low

58.

Cost-push inflation is

a)

inflation caused by an increase in Aggregate Demand

b)

inflation caused by a decrease in Aggregate Demand

c)

inflation caused by an increase in costs

d)

inflation caused by a decrease in costs

59.

In the 1979-1983 period, under the Fed Chair Paul Volcker, the Fed generally

a)

raised the interest rate to lower inflation

b)

raised government spending to stimulate the economy

c)

lowered taxes to stimulate consumption and output

60.

The goals of monetary policy are

a)

government budget balance and stable public debt

b)

maximum productivity and growth

c)

maximum employment and price stability

61.

An unemployed person is a person who has made specific efforts to find work during the previous

a)

five business days

b)

four weeks

c)

six months

d)

year

62.

The labor force is

a)

the ratio of the labor force to population

b)

the ratio of the unemployed to the labor force

c)

the ratio of the unemployed to population

d)

the sum of the employed and the unemployed

63.

The unemployment rate is

a)

the sum of the employed and the unemployed

b)

the ratio of the labor force to population

c)

the ratio of the unemployed to the labor force

d)

the ratio of the unemployed to population

64.

Since the 1950s, the labor force participation rate of women has

a)

increased

b)

decreased

c)

remained roughly constant

65.

When a discouraged worker stops looking for a job, after a month

a)

the unemployment rate increases

b)

the unemployment rate decreases

c)

the unemployment rate remains the same

66.

Cyclical unemployment is

a)

the portion of unemployment that is due to the normal turnover in the labor market and the time necessary to match workers and jobs

b)

the portion of unemployment that is due to structural features of the economy or changes in the structure of the economy

c)

the portion of unemployment that is caused by business cycle fluctuations

67.

The wage rate may remain above the level that clears the labor market because of

a)

efficiency wages

b)

minimum wage laws

c)

labor unions

68.

Okun's Law describes

a)

a negative relation between inflation and unemployment

b)

a negative relation between output and unemployment

c)

a positive relation between output and the price level

69.

The short-run Phillips curve (the negative relation betweeen inflation and unemployment) results from

a)

shifts in the Aggregate Demand curve

b)

shifts in the Aggregate Supply curve

70.

In the long run, the Phillips curve is vertical. In the long run, then,

a)

the unemployment rate is constant

b)

the inflation rate is constant

c)

the central bank faces a trade-off beween inflation and unemployment

71.

The central bank faces a trade-off beween inflation and unemployment

a)

in a binding situation

b)

in the short run

c)

in the long run

72.

In the long run,

a)

aggregate output equals its potential level

b)

the inflation rate equals the stagflation rate

c)

the unemployment rate equals the natural rate of unemployment